Podcast
Questions and Answers
Which of the following best describes the hemodynamic effect of Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitors (ACEIs)?
Which of the following best describes the hemodynamic effect of Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitors (ACEIs)?
- Decreasing cardiac output and increasing peripheral arterial resistance.
- Increasing both cardiac output and peripheral arterial resistance.
- Decreasing both cardiac output and peripheral arterial resistance.
- Increasing cardiac output and reducing peripheral arterial resistance. (correct)
A patient with hypertension is also diagnosed with hepatic cirrhosis. Which antihypertensive medication should be used with caution?
A patient with hypertension is also diagnosed with hepatic cirrhosis. Which antihypertensive medication should be used with caution?
- Amlodipine.
- Aliskiren.
- Eplerenone.
- Spironolactone. (correct)
Which of the following is a common side effect of centrally acting alpha-2 agonists?
Which of the following is a common side effect of centrally acting alpha-2 agonists?
- Anticholinergic-like effects. (correct)
- Enhanced mood and motivation.
- Increased energy and focus.
- Improved memory and cognition.
Why are vasodilators, such as hydralazine and minoxidil, considered second-line treatments for hypertension?
Why are vasodilators, such as hydralazine and minoxidil, considered second-line treatments for hypertension?
Which statement accurately describes the mechanism by which nitrates alleviate angina?
Which statement accurately describes the mechanism by which nitrates alleviate angina?
How does ranolazine improve symptoms for patients with chronic angina?
How does ranolazine improve symptoms for patients with chronic angina?
What is the primary goal of anticoagulant therapy using heparins?
What is the primary goal of anticoagulant therapy using heparins?
A patient is taking warfarin for chronic atrial fibrillation. What laboratory parameter is most important to monitor for therapeutic effectiveness?
A patient is taking warfarin for chronic atrial fibrillation. What laboratory parameter is most important to monitor for therapeutic effectiveness?
How does aspirin exert its antiplatelet effect?
How does aspirin exert its antiplatelet effect?
What is a significant consideration when using ticlopidine as an antiplatelet agent?
What is a significant consideration when using ticlopidine as an antiplatelet agent?
A patient with PAD is prescribed cilostazol. What is the primary mechanism by which cilostazol alleviates the symptoms of PAD?
A patient with PAD is prescribed cilostazol. What is the primary mechanism by which cilostazol alleviates the symptoms of PAD?
Which of the following scenarios is most appropriate for the use of thrombolytic agents?
Which of the following scenarios is most appropriate for the use of thrombolytic agents?
In a patient experiencing a hypertensive urgency, what is the recommended timeframe for controlling blood pressure?
In a patient experiencing a hypertensive urgency, what is the recommended timeframe for controlling blood pressure?
Which of the following is an example of a 'dose-ceiling effect'?
Which of the following is an example of a 'dose-ceiling effect'?
Which of the following best describes 'intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA)'?
Which of the following best describes 'intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA)'?
How do angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) lower blood pressure?
How do angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) lower blood pressure?
Why might amlodipine or felodipine be preferred calcium channel blockers for patients with heart failure?
Why might amlodipine or felodipine be preferred calcium channel blockers for patients with heart failure?
What is the most significant concern when administering alpha-1 adrenergic antagonists?
What is the most significant concern when administering alpha-1 adrenergic antagonists?
What is the role of D-dimers in assessing antithrombotic therapy?
What is the role of D-dimers in assessing antithrombotic therapy?
A patient on warfarin is started on a medication that inhibits its metabolism. What effect would this interaction likely have on the INR, and what is the potential consequence?
A patient on warfarin is started on a medication that inhibits its metabolism. What effect would this interaction likely have on the INR, and what is the potential consequence?
Which factor primarily determines systolic blood pressure (SBP) according to the pathophysiology of hypertension?
Which factor primarily determines systolic blood pressure (SBP) according to the pathophysiology of hypertension?
Which characteristic distinguishes hypertensive emergency from hypertensive urgency?
Which characteristic distinguishes hypertensive emergency from hypertensive urgency?
Which medication for hypertension has a common side effect of a dry cough?
Which medication for hypertension has a common side effect of a dry cough?
Which of the following is an adverse sexual side effect associated with spironolactone?
Which of the following is an adverse sexual side effect associated with spironolactone?
Guanethidine and guanadrel's antihypertensive effects may be diminished when combined with which type of medication?
Guanethidine and guanadrel's antihypertensive effects may be diminished when combined with which type of medication?
How is nitroglycerin typically administered for immediate relief of angina symptoms, and what is the recommended protocol?
How is nitroglycerin typically administered for immediate relief of angina symptoms, and what is the recommended protocol?
A patient with a history of MI, stroke, and PAD is prescribed an antiplatelet medication. Which of the following is most likely to be prescribed?
A patient with a history of MI, stroke, and PAD is prescribed an antiplatelet medication. Which of the following is most likely to be prescribed?
What is the primary reason that abciximab is not available in an oral formulation?
What is the primary reason that abciximab is not available in an oral formulation?
What is a key reason for preferring thrombolytics over percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) in certain situations?
What is a key reason for preferring thrombolytics over percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) in certain situations?
Which of the following best describes the classification of reserpine?
Which of the following best describes the classification of reserpine?
Why is creatinine clearance (CrCl) used in drug dosage guidelines?
Why is creatinine clearance (CrCl) used in drug dosage guidelines?
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of direct renin inhibitors (DRIs)?
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of direct renin inhibitors (DRIs)?
A patient is taking eplerenone. Which electrolyte imbalance is of greatest concern with this medication?
A patient is taking eplerenone. Which electrolyte imbalance is of greatest concern with this medication?
What distinguishes prasurgel from clopidogrel in terms of their indication?
What distinguishes prasurgel from clopidogrel in terms of their indication?
Which of the following statements accurately describes the effects of the fibrinolytic process?
Which of the following statements accurately describes the effects of the fibrinolytic process?
A patient has heparin-induced thrombocytopenia type 2 (HIT-2). Which anticoagulant is most appropriate?
A patient has heparin-induced thrombocytopenia type 2 (HIT-2). Which anticoagulant is most appropriate?
Which of the following statements accurately describe beta-blockers?
Which of the following statements accurately describe beta-blockers?
Which of the following best explains why thiazide diuretics are often administered in the morning?
Which of the following best explains why thiazide diuretics are often administered in the morning?
A patient is prescribed a nonselective beta-blocker. Which comorbid condition would raise the greatest concern regarding the patient's safety?
A patient is prescribed a nonselective beta-blocker. Which comorbid condition would raise the greatest concern regarding the patient's safety?
How does left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) increase the risk of cardiovascular events in hypertensive patients?
How does left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) increase the risk of cardiovascular events in hypertensive patients?
A patient is prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. What instruction should be emphasized to the patient regarding administration during an anginal episode?
A patient is prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. What instruction should be emphasized to the patient regarding administration during an anginal episode?
In a patient with a history of angioedema induced by ACE inhibitors, which antihypertensive medication class is generally considered contraindicated?
In a patient with a history of angioedema induced by ACE inhibitors, which antihypertensive medication class is generally considered contraindicated?
What is the rationale for combining a beta-blocker with a vasodilator like hydralazine in the treatment of hypertension?
What is the rationale for combining a beta-blocker with a vasodilator like hydralazine in the treatment of hypertension?
Which of the following best describes the effect of cilostazol on peripheral arterial disease (PAD)?
Which of the following best describes the effect of cilostazol on peripheral arterial disease (PAD)?
A patient with hypertension and a history of depression is being considered for antihypertensive therapy. Which medication should be used with caution?
A patient with hypertension and a history of depression is being considered for antihypertensive therapy. Which medication should be used with caution?
What is the primary mechanism by which spironolactone lowers blood pressure?
What is the primary mechanism by which spironolactone lowers blood pressure?
What is the most likely reason for the delayed onset of action (3-5 days) of warfarin?
What is the most likely reason for the delayed onset of action (3-5 days) of warfarin?
A patient who is taking warfarin regularly has an elevated INR of 6.0. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intervention?
A patient who is taking warfarin regularly has an elevated INR of 6.0. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intervention?
Which of the following explains why antiplatelet agents, such as aspirin and clopidogrel, are often prescribed after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
Which of the following explains why antiplatelet agents, such as aspirin and clopidogrel, are often prescribed after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
How does ranolazine improve angina symptoms without significantly affecting heart rate or blood pressure?
How does ranolazine improve angina symptoms without significantly affecting heart rate or blood pressure?
A patient presents to the emergency department with a suspected acute ischemic stroke. What is the significance of determining the time of symptom onset before administering thrombolytic therapy?
A patient presents to the emergency department with a suspected acute ischemic stroke. What is the significance of determining the time of symptom onset before administering thrombolytic therapy?
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban?
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban?
A patient is started on aliskiren for hypertension. What is a crucial counseling point regarding its interaction with other medications?
A patient is started on aliskiren for hypertension. What is a crucial counseling point regarding its interaction with other medications?
What is the primary advantage of using eplerenone over spironolactone in managing hypertension, especially in male patients?
What is the primary advantage of using eplerenone over spironolactone in managing hypertension, especially in male patients?
Why should ticlopidine, an antiplatelet medication, be reserved for cases where aspirin and clopidogrel are not suitable options?
Why should ticlopidine, an antiplatelet medication, be reserved for cases where aspirin and clopidogrel are not suitable options?
What is a key consideration when switching a patient from warfarin to a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) like dabigatran?
What is a key consideration when switching a patient from warfarin to a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) like dabigatran?
Which statement accurately compares the mechanism of action of aspirin and clopidogrel as antiplatelet agents?
Which statement accurately compares the mechanism of action of aspirin and clopidogrel as antiplatelet agents?
What is the rationale for using a loading dose of clopidogrel in patients with acute coronary syndrome (ACS) undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)?
What is the rationale for using a loading dose of clopidogrel in patients with acute coronary syndrome (ACS) undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)?
A cardiologist is considering using either alteplase or tenecteplase in a patient with a STEMI. What is a primary advantage of tenecteplase over alteplase in the treatment of acute myocardial infarction?
A cardiologist is considering using either alteplase or tenecteplase in a patient with a STEMI. What is a primary advantage of tenecteplase over alteplase in the treatment of acute myocardial infarction?
What is the significance of D-dimer testing in the context of antithrombotic therapy?
What is the significance of D-dimer testing in the context of antithrombotic therapy?
A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed low-dose aspirin for secondary prevention of cardiovascular events. What strategy is most appropriate to minimize the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding?
A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed low-dose aspirin for secondary prevention of cardiovascular events. What strategy is most appropriate to minimize the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding?
Flashcards
Antithrombotics
Antithrombotics
Drugs that prevent or break up blood clots, including anticoagulants, antiplatelets, and thrombolytics.
Arterial blood pressure
Arterial blood pressure
Defined hemodynamically as the product of systemic vascular resistance and cardiac output (heart rate × stroke volume).
Cardiovascular disease (CVD)
Cardiovascular disease (CVD)
Damage to the heart and blood vessels, including damage to the brain, kidney, and eyes.
Chronotropic
Chronotropic
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Circadian rhythm
Circadian rhythm
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Creatinine clearance (CrCl)
Creatinine clearance (CrCl)
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D-dimers
D-dimers
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Dose-ceiling effect
Dose-ceiling effect
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Fibrin split or fibrinogen degradation products (FDPs)
Fibrin split or fibrinogen degradation products (FDPs)
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Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
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Hypertensive emergency
Hypertensive emergency
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Hypertensive urgency
Hypertensive urgency
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Inotropes
Inotropes
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Intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA)
Intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA)
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Renin
Renin
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Hypertension
Hypertension
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Essential hypertension
Essential hypertension
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Secondary hypertension
Secondary hypertension
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Cardiovascular disease (CVD)
Cardiovascular disease (CVD)
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Increased Risk of Hypertension
Increased Risk of Hypertension
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Arterial blood pressure
Arterial blood pressure
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Preload
Preload
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Afterload
Afterload
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ACEIs, ARBs, CCBs, β-Blockers, Thiazide Diuretics
ACEIs, ARBs, CCBs, β-Blockers, Thiazide Diuretics
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ACE Inhibitors
ACE Inhibitors
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Hemodynamic effect of ACEIs
Hemodynamic effect of ACEIs
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Indications for ACEIs
Indications for ACEIs
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Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers
Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers
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Direct Renin Inhibitors (DRI)
Direct Renin Inhibitors (DRI)
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Only DRI available
Only DRI available
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Calcium Channel Blockers
Calcium Channel Blockers
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Verapamil and diltiazem
Verapamil and diltiazem
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Method of action of β-Blockers
Method of action of β-Blockers
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Indications for β-Blockers
Indications for β-Blockers
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Aldosterone Antagonists
Aldosterone Antagonists
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Spironolactone
Spironolactone
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α2-Agonists
α2-Agonists
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α1-Adrenergic Antagonists
α1-Adrenergic Antagonists
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First-dose phenomenon
First-dose phenomenon
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Antiadrenergic Agents
Antiadrenergic Agents
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Vasodilators
Vasodilators
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Angina
Angina
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Nitrates
Nitrates
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Nitroglycerin
Nitroglycerin
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Ranolazine (Ranexa)
Ranolazine (Ranexa)
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Antithrombotic Agents
Antithrombotic Agents
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Heparins
Heparins
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Indications for Heparins
Indications for Heparins
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Antidote for Heparin
Antidote for Heparin
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Aspirin
Aspirin
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Study Notes
- Drugs affecting circulation include antihypertensives, antianginals, and antithrombotics
Key Terms
- Antithrombotics: Prevent or break up blood clots in conditions like thrombosis or embolism, including anticoagulants, antiplatelets, and thrombolytics.
- Arterial blood pressure (blood pressure): Defined as the product of systemic vascular resistance and cardiac output (heart rate × stroke volume).
- Cardiovascular disease (CVD): Damage to the heart, blood vessels, or circulation, including damage to the brain, kidney, and eyes.
- Chronotropic: Influencing the rate of rhythmic movements, such as heartbeat.
- Circadian rhythm: Human biologic variations of rhythm within a 24-hour cycle.
- Creatinine clearance (CrCl): Measurement of the renal clearance of endogenous creatinine per unit of time, approximating glomerular filtration rate (GFR), used for drug dosage guidelines.
- D-dimers: Degradation fragments of cross-linked fibrin polymer during plasmin-mediated fibrinolysis; levels increase after fibrinolysis onset.
- Dose-ceiling effect: Maximum drug dose beyond which it no longer exerts a therapeutic effect, but its toxic effect increases.
- Fibrin split or fibrinogen degradation products (FDPs): Small peptides resulting after plasmin action on fibrinogen and fibrin, acting as anticoagulant substances that can cause bleeding if fibrinolysis is uncontrolled.
- Glomerular filtration rate (GFR): Volume of water filtered from plasma by the kidney into Bowman capsules per unit of time.
- Hypertensive emergency: Blood pressure greater than 180/120 mm Hg, with acute, progressing target organ injury.
- Hypertensive urgency: Blood pressure greater than 180/120 mm Hg without acute target organ complications.
- Inotropes: Drugs influencing the contractility of a muscle (heart).
- Intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA): Ability to activate and block adrenergic receptors, producing a net stimulatory effect on the sympathetic nervous system.
- Renin: Enzyme released by the kidney that converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin I.
Hypertension
- High blood pressure is defined as ≥140/90 mm Hg.
- Primary hypertension: Has an unknown etiology (essential hypertension).
- Secondary hypertension: Results from a known disease process.
- Adversely affects the heart, brain, kidney, and eyes, leading to cardiovascular disease (CVD).
- Diagnosis requires two or more seated blood pressure readings taken on different days.
- Increases the risk of left ventricular (LV) hypertrophy, angina, myocardial infarction (MI), heart failure, stroke, peripheral arterial disease (PAD), retinopathy, and renal failure.
Pathophysiology of Hypertension
- Arterial blood pressure is the product of cardiac output (CO) and total resistance.
- Preload is the major factor in systolic blood pressure (SBP), affecting venous capacitance.
- Afterload is the major factor in diastolic blood pressure (DBP).
Hypertensive Crisis
- Defined as blood pressure > 180/120 mmHg.
- Hypertensive urgency: No signs or symptoms of organ complication; may involve severe headaches, SOB, nosebleeds, or severe anxiety, and is controlled over 24-48 hours.
- Hypertensive emergency: Involves acute, chronic, or progressive organ injury, requiring ICU admission and blood pressure monitoring.
Hypertension Pharmacotherapy
- First-line agents: Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs), angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs), calcium channel blockers (CCBs), β-Blockers, and thiazide-type diuretics.
- Second-line agents: Vasodilators, α-Blockers, α2-Agonists, and antiadrenergics.
Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitors
- They suppress the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
- Hemodynamic effects: Reduce peripheral arterial resistance (PAR), increase CO, and increase renal blood flow.
- Indicated for hypertension (HTN), heart failure, systolic dysfunction, MI prevention, LV dysfunction, and diabetic neuropathy.
- Effective alone or with thiazide-type diuretics, generally decreasing SBP and DBP by 15–25%.
- The most common side effect is a dry cough, less commonly angioedema.
- Do not induce glucose intolerance, hyperlipidemia, or hyperuricemia.
- There is a significant interaction with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers
- Receptors are found in vascular smooth muscle, myocardium, brain, kidney, liver, uterus, and adrenal glands.
- Indicated for HTN and treatment of heart failure.
- Slightly weaker than ACEIs.
- Side effects: Orthostatic hypotension, hyperkalemia, neutropenia, nephrotoxicity, and fetotoxicity.
Direct Renin Inhibitors (DRI)
- Act by inhibiting renin.
- Can be used alone or in combination with other antihypertensive agents.
- Aliskiren is the only DRI available.
- Side effects: Diarrhea, headache, dizziness, fatigue, upper respiratory track infection, nasopharyngitis, and back pain.
Calcium Channel Blockers
- Cause coronary and peripheral vasodilation via L-channel blockade.
- Verapamil and diltiazem: Have negative chronotropic and inotropic effects, long-acting formulations, high incidence of constipation and other side effects.
- Amlodipine, felodipine, isradipine, nifedipine, nisoldipine: Have negligible chronotropic effects (except nifedipine), only sustained-release dosage forms of nifedipine are indicated for hypertension, and amlodipine and felodipine may be used in patients with heart failure.
β-Blockers
- Act by blocking the β-receptors on the renal juxtaglomerular cells, myocardial β-receptors, and central nervous system β-receptors.
- Indications: HTN, angina pectoris, cardiac dysrhythmias, MI prevention, chronic heart failure, and pheochromocytoma
- Also used for migraine prophylaxis and alcohol withdrawal.
- May induce bronchospasm and render β-agonist ineffective.
Aldosterone Antagonists
- Spironolactone (Aldactone) and eplerenone (Inspra).
- Spironolactone is a weak diuretic, often used with other antihypertensives,indicated for hepatic cirrhosis, primary hyperaldosteronism, hypokalemia, heart failure, used in combination for HTN.
- Adverse effects of spironolactone: Impotence, gynecomastia, deep voice, menstrual irregularities, hirsutism, gastrointestinal upset, rash, and drowsiness.
- Eplerenone: Indicated for HTN and post-MI heart failure, minimal adverse sexual side effects, higher risk of hyperkalemia.
Centrally Acting Adrenergic Agents
- α2-Agonists.
- Affect CO and peripheral resistance.
- Negative inotrope/negative chronotrope.
- α2-Agonists are effective but riddled with side-effects, having a high incidence of anticholinergic-like effects.
- Clonidine transdermal is the most effective and least toxic.
α1-Adrenergic Antagonists
- Selectively block postsynaptic α1-receptors.
- Cause arterial and venous dilation, decreasing preload and afterload.
- First-dose phenomenon: Manifests with orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, palpitations, dizziness, headaches, and syncope.
- Initial doses should be low and taken at bedtime.
- Indicated for HTN, benign prostatic hyperplasia, heart failure, and Raynaud’s vasospasm.
Antiadrenergic Agents
- Second-line drugs.
- Reserpine: Depletes postganglionic norepinephrine, may cause sedation, depression, psychosis, peptic ulcers, and nasal stuffiness.
- Guanethidine (Ismelin) and guanadrel (Hylorel): Substitute neurotransmitters, may cause orthostatic hypotension, sexual dysfunction, and explosive diarrhea.
- Antihypertensive effects diminished when combined with tricyclic antidepressants, amphetamines, or ephedrine.
Vasodilators
- Hydralazine (Apresoline) and minoxidil (Rogaine, Loniten).
- Second-line treatment for HTN because of side effects.
- Act on vascular smooth muscle to decrease total peripheral resistance.
- May cause reflex tachycardia, renin release, and increased CO.
- Often given with a β-blocker and loop diuretic.
Angina
- A symptom of myocardial ischemia caused by an imbalance of myocardial O2 supply and demand.
- May present as heavy weight or pressure on the chest, burning sensation, shortness of breath (SOB), or pain over the sternum, left shoulder, or lower jaw.
Pharmacotherapy for Angina
- Nitrates
- Nitroglycerin reduces myocardial oxygen demand by dilating coronary arteries and collaterals (mostly venous effect).
- Indications: Angina, acute MI, and HTN.
- Formulations: Oral, IV, ointment, transdermal, translingual, and sublingual.
- Sublingual administration: Q 5 minutes × 3, then seek care.
- Adverse reactions: Tachycardia, palpitations, hypotension, dizziness, flushing, and headache.
- Ranolazine (Ranexa)
- Indicated for chronic angina not responding to other medications.
- Shifts energy production from fatty acid oxidation to glucose oxidation (uses less O2).
- 500 mg BID (maximum, 1 g BID).
- Adverse reactions: Dizziness, palpitations, headache, constipation, nausea, pain, and peripheral edema.
- Contraindicated in hepatic dysfunction.
Antithrombotic Agents
- Prevent or break up blood clots.
- Formation and elimination of acute coronary thrombus.
- Formation is initiated by injury to the endothelium.
- Platelets adhere to the site of injury, release chemicals that cause further aggregation, forming an unstable thrombus.
- Eventually forms an insoluble fibrin clot.
- Must be removed by the fibrinolytic system for homeostasis to be maintained.
- Three categories: Anticoagulants, antiplatelets, and thrombolytics.
Anticoagulant Agents
- Heparins: Unfractionated heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin.
- Indications: Venous thromboembolism, pulmonary embolism, atrial fibrillation (AF), disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and peripheral arterial embolism.
- Extracted from porcine intestinal mucosa.
- Goal: Balance unwanted clotting with the risk of hemorrhage.
- Side effects: Bleeding, thrombocytopenia, hyperkalemia, osteoporosis, and increased liver enzyme tests (LETs).
- Antidote: Protamine sulfate.
- Direct thrombin inhibitors:
- Desirudin (Iprivask): Indicated for deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
- Bivalirudin (Angiomax): Indicated for unstable angina.
- Argatroban and lepirudin (Refludan): Used for anticoagulation of patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia type 2 (HIT-2).
- Common adverse side effect: Hemorrhage.
- Warfarin (Coumadin):
- Oral anticoagulant for venous thrombosis, pulmonary embolism (PE), atrial fibrillation, valve replacement, and coronary occlusion.
- Daily dosing (delayed onset of 3–5 days).
- International normalized ratio (INR) is the standard for monitoring therapy.
- Hemorrhage is a common side effect.
- Many factors may increase/decrease effects, including diet, disease states, and drugs.
Antiplatelet Agents
- Aspirin:
- In platelets, prostaglandin derivative thromboxane A2 is a major inducer of platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction.
- Reduces platelet aggregation by the inhibition of prostaglandin production.
- Antithrombotic indications: Reduce risk of thrombosis, transient ischemic attack (TIA), or stroke.
- Side effects: Peptic ulcer, renal dysfunction, HTN, tinnitus, pulmonary dysfunction, and bleeding.
- Ibuprofen inhibits pharmacological effect; concurrent NSAID use may cause fatal gastropathy.
- Dipyridamole:
- Vasodilator and platelet adhesion inhibitor.
- Indicated only as an adjunct to warfarin in the prevention of postoperative thromboembolic complications of cardiac valve replacement.
- May potentiate the effect of adenosine.
- Adverse reactions: Headache, dizziness, hypotension, and distress.
- Clopidogrel (Plavix):
- A prodrug; must undergo a two-step hepatic conversion.
- Platelet aggregation inhibitor.
- Indications: History of MI, stroke, PAD, and acute coronary syndrome (ACS).
- Slightly more effective than aspirin (except for stroke prophylaxis).
- Metabolized by the liver.
- Steady state in 3 to 7 days.
- 75 mg QD (plus aspirin); 300-mg loading dose for ACS.
- Ticlopidine:
- Platelet aggregation inhibitor.
- Indicated for stroke.
- More effective than aspirin.
- Steady state in 14–21 days.
- Metabolized by the liver.
- Risk of life-threatening blood dyscrasias.
- Use only if aspirin and clopidogrel are unacceptable.
- Prasurgel:
- A prodrug.
- Only indicated in use for prevention of thrombosis in patients with ACS undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention.
- In combination with aspirin decreases nonfatal MI but has increased bleeding risk.
- Onset of action can be seen as early as 30 minutes.
- Adverse reaction: Bleeding.
- Cilostazol and pentoxifylline:
- Cause vasodilation and inhibition of platelet aggregation.
- Indicated for PAD pain.
- Clinical benefits may take up to 12 weeks.
- Transient adverse effects: Headache, diarrhea, dizziness, and palpitations.
- 100 mg BID on an empty stomach.
- Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors:
- Indicated for ACS.
- Abciximab (ReoPro) is the “drug of choice”.
- Not available in oral formulation (ineffective).
- Bleeding is the most common adverse side effect.
Thrombolytic Agents
- Indicated for PE, ischemic stroke, and acute ST segment elevation MI.
- Agents: Streptokinase (second line), alteplase, reteplase, and tenecteplase.
- Therapy should begin within 12 hours of symptoms.
- Thrombolytics are preferred to percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) when patients present within 3 hours of symptom onset, and door to primary PCI time will be greater than 90 minutes.
- Contraindications: Internal bleeding, aortic dissection, head injury or stroke in the last 3 months, HTN, and anticoagulant use.
- Bleeding is the most common adverse effect, including gastrointestinal, genitourinary, respiratory tract, retroperitoneal, and intracranial bleeding.
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