Drugs Affecting Circulation

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following best describes the hemodynamic effect of Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitors (ACEIs)?

  • Decreasing cardiac output and increasing peripheral arterial resistance.
  • Increasing both cardiac output and peripheral arterial resistance.
  • Decreasing both cardiac output and peripheral arterial resistance.
  • Increasing cardiac output and reducing peripheral arterial resistance. (correct)

A patient with hypertension is also diagnosed with hepatic cirrhosis. Which antihypertensive medication should be used with caution?

  • Amlodipine.
  • Aliskiren.
  • Eplerenone.
  • Spironolactone. (correct)

Which of the following is a common side effect of centrally acting alpha-2 agonists?

  • Anticholinergic-like effects. (correct)
  • Enhanced mood and motivation.
  • Increased energy and focus.
  • Improved memory and cognition.

Why are vasodilators, such as hydralazine and minoxidil, considered second-line treatments for hypertension?

<p>They have more significant side effects, such as reflex tachycardia and increased cardiac output. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the mechanism by which nitrates alleviate angina?

<p>Nitrates reduce myocardial oxygen demand by dilating coronary arteries and collaterals. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does ranolazine improve symptoms for patients with chronic angina?

<p>By shifting energy production in the heart from fatty acid oxidation to glucose oxidation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of anticoagulant therapy using heparins?

<p>To balance the prevention of unwanted clotting with the risk of hemorrhage. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is taking warfarin for chronic atrial fibrillation. What laboratory parameter is most important to monitor for therapeutic effectiveness?

<p>International Normalized Ratio (INR). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does aspirin exert its antiplatelet effect?

<p>By inhibiting the production of thromboxane A2. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant consideration when using ticlopidine as an antiplatelet agent?

<p>It carries a risk of life-threatening blood dyscrasias, limiting its use to situations where other antiplatelets are unsuitable. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with PAD is prescribed cilostazol. What is the primary mechanism by which cilostazol alleviates the symptoms of PAD?

<p>Causing vasodilation and inhibiting platelet aggregation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios is most appropriate for the use of thrombolytic agents?

<p>A patient with acute ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) presenting within 3 hours of symptom onset. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient experiencing a hypertensive urgency, what is the recommended timeframe for controlling blood pressure?

<p>Over a period of 24 to 48 hours. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an example of a 'dose-ceiling effect'?

<p>A drug reaches a maximum therapeutic effect beyond which further dosage increases only result in increased toxic effects. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes 'intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA)'?

<p>The ability to both activate and block adrenergic receptors, producing a net stimulatory effect on the sympathetic nervous system. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) lower blood pressure?

<p>By blocking angiotensin II receptors in vascular smooth muscle, myocardium, and other tissues. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might amlodipine or felodipine be preferred calcium channel blockers for patients with heart failure?

<p>They are less likely to exacerbate heart failure symptoms compared to other calcium channel blockers. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most significant concern when administering alpha-1 adrenergic antagonists?

<p>First-dose phenomenon. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of D-dimers in assessing antithrombotic therapy?

<p>Identifying the presence of fibrinolysis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on warfarin is started on a medication that inhibits its metabolism. What effect would this interaction likely have on the INR, and what is the potential consequence?

<p>Increase INR, increased risk of bleeding. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor primarily determines systolic blood pressure (SBP) according to the pathophysiology of hypertension?

<p>Preload. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic distinguishes hypertensive emergency from hypertensive urgency?

<p>The presence of acute, progressing target organ injury. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication for hypertension has a common side effect of a dry cough?

<p>Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an adverse sexual side effect associated with spironolactone?

<p>Erectile dysfunction. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Guanethidine and guanadrel's antihypertensive effects may be diminished when combined with which type of medication?

<p>Tricyclic antidepressants. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is nitroglycerin typically administered for immediate relief of angina symptoms, and what is the recommended protocol?

<p>Sublingual tablet: 1 tablet every 5 minutes up to 3 doses, then seek medical care. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of MI, stroke, and PAD is prescribed an antiplatelet medication. Which of the following is most likely to be prescribed?

<p>Clopidogrel. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason that abciximab is not available in an oral formulation?

<p>It is ineffective when administered orally. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key reason for preferring thrombolytics over percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) in certain situations?

<p>Thrombolytics are preferred when patients present within 3 hours of symptom onset and the expected door-to-PCI time will be greater than 90 minutes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the classification of reserpine?

<p>Second-line antiadrenergic agent. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is creatinine clearance (CrCl) used in drug dosage guidelines?

<p>CrCl approximates glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and provides an estimate of renal function. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of direct renin inhibitors (DRIs)?

<p>They directly inhibit renin. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is taking eplerenone. Which electrolyte imbalance is of greatest concern with this medication?

<p>Hyperkalemia. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes prasurgel from clopidogrel in terms of their indication?

<p>Prasurgel is only indicated for prevention of thrombosis in patients with ACS undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes the effects of the fibrinolytic process?

<p>It results in the production of anticoagulant substances that can cause bleeding if uncontrolled. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has heparin-induced thrombocytopenia type 2 (HIT-2). Which anticoagulant is most appropriate?

<p>Lepirudin. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describe beta-blockers?

<p>They should be used with caution in patients with asthma. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best explains why thiazide diuretics are often administered in the morning?

<p>To minimize disruption of nighttime sleep due to nocturia. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed a nonselective beta-blocker. Which comorbid condition would raise the greatest concern regarding the patient's safety?

<p>Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) increase the risk of cardiovascular events in hypertensive patients?

<p>By impairing diastolic filling and increasing myocardial oxygen demand. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. What instruction should be emphasized to the patient regarding administration during an anginal episode?

<p>Dissolve one tablet under the tongue and repeat every 5 minutes for up to three doses, seeking medical attention if pain persists. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with a history of angioedema induced by ACE inhibitors, which antihypertensive medication class is generally considered contraindicated?

<p>Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale for combining a beta-blocker with a vasodilator like hydralazine in the treatment of hypertension?

<p>To counteract the reflex tachycardia caused by hydralazine. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the effect of cilostazol on peripheral arterial disease (PAD)?

<p>It inhibits platelet aggregation and acts as a vasodilator, improving blood flow. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with hypertension and a history of depression is being considered for antihypertensive therapy. Which medication should be used with caution?

<p>Reserpine. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which spironolactone lowers blood pressure?

<p>Antagonizing aldosterone receptors in the kidneys, leading to increased sodium and water excretion. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely reason for the delayed onset of action (3-5 days) of warfarin?

<p>Warfarin's effect depends on depleting existing clotting factors, which have varying half-lives. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who is taking warfarin regularly has an elevated INR of 6.0. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intervention?

<p>Hold the next dose of warfarin and monitor the INR. Administer vitamin K if bleeding occurs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following explains why antiplatelet agents, such as aspirin and clopidogrel, are often prescribed after a myocardial infarction (MI)?

<p>To prevent the formation of new blood clots and reduce the risk of recurrent MI. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does ranolazine improve angina symptoms without significantly affecting heart rate or blood pressure?

<p>By shifting myocardial energy production from fatty acid oxidation to glucose oxidation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents to the emergency department with a suspected acute ischemic stroke. What is the significance of determining the time of symptom onset before administering thrombolytic therapy?

<p>Thrombolytics are only effective if administered within a narrow time window from symptom onset. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban?

<p>They directly bind to and inhibit thrombin, preventing clot formation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is started on aliskiren for hypertension. What is a crucial counseling point regarding its interaction with other medications?

<p>Aliskiren absorption is decreased when taken with high-fat meals. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary advantage of using eplerenone over spironolactone in managing hypertension, especially in male patients?

<p>Eplerenone has fewer adverse sexual side effects compared to spironolactone. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should ticlopidine, an antiplatelet medication, be reserved for cases where aspirin and clopidogrel are not suitable options?

<p>Ticlopidine carries a higher risk of life-threatening blood dyscrasias. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key consideration when switching a patient from warfarin to a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) like dabigatran?

<p>The INR must be within a specific therapeutic range before initiating the DOAC. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately compares the mechanism of action of aspirin and clopidogrel as antiplatelet agents?

<p>Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX)-1, while clopidogrel blocks the ADP receptor on platelets. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale for using a loading dose of clopidogrel in patients with acute coronary syndrome (ACS) undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)?

<p>To rapidly achieve adequate platelet inhibition and reduce the risk of thrombotic events. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A cardiologist is considering using either alteplase or tenecteplase in a patient with a STEMI. What is a primary advantage of tenecteplase over alteplase in the treatment of acute myocardial infarction?

<p>Tenecteplase can be administered as a single bolus, whereas alteplase requires a more complex infusion regimen. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of D-dimer testing in the context of antithrombotic therapy?

<p>To identify the presence of active clot formation and fibrinolysis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed low-dose aspirin for secondary prevention of cardiovascular events. What strategy is most appropriate to minimize the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding?

<p>Prescribing a PPI (proton pump inhibitor) concurrently with aspirin. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Antithrombotics

Drugs that prevent or break up blood clots, including anticoagulants, antiplatelets, and thrombolytics.

Arterial blood pressure

Defined hemodynamically as the product of systemic vascular resistance and cardiac output (heart rate × stroke volume).

Cardiovascular disease (CVD)

Damage to the heart and blood vessels, including damage to the brain, kidney, and eyes.

Chronotropic

Influencing the rate of rhythmic movements (heartbeat).

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Circadian rhythm

Human biologic variations of rhythm within a 24-hour cycle.

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Creatinine clearance (CrCl)

Measurement of renal clearance of endogenous creatinine per unit of time; approximates GFR.

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D-dimers

Covalently cross-linked degradation fragments of fibrin; level increases after fibrinolysis.

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Dose-ceiling effect

Maximum dose of a drug beyond which it no longer exerts a therapeutic effect.

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Fibrin split or fibrinogen degradation products (FDPs)

Small peptides resulting from plasmin action on fibrin(ogen) in fibrinolysis.

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Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

Volume of water filtered by the kidney from plasma into Bowman capsules per unit of time.

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Hypertensive emergency

Blood pressure > 180/120 mmHg with acute, progressing target organ injury.

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Hypertensive urgency

Blood pressure > 180/120 mmHg without acute target organ complications.

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Inotropes

Drugs influencing the contractility of muscle (heart).

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Intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA)

Ability to activate and block adrenergic receptors, producing a net stimulatory effect.

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Renin

Enzyme released by the kidney to convert angiotensinogen into angiotensin I.

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Hypertension

High blood pressure ≥140/90 mmHg

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Essential hypertension

Unknown etiology

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Secondary hypertension

Hypertension due to a known disease process

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Cardiovascular disease (CVD)

Damage to the heart, brain, kidney, eye due to hypertension

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Increased Risk of Hypertension

Angina, MI, heart failure, stroke, PAD, retinopathy, and renal failure.

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Arterial blood pressure

Product of cardiac output (CO) and total resistance

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Preload

Major factor in systolic blood pressure (SBP)

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Afterload

Major factor in diastolic blood pressure (DBP)

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ACEIs, ARBs, CCBs, β-Blockers, Thiazide Diuretics

First-line agents for hypertension.

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ACE Inhibitors

Block conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

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Hemodynamic effect of ACEIs

Reduce peripheral arterial resistance (PAR)

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Indications for ACEIs

Hypertension (HTN), heart failure, systolic dysfunction, etc.

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Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers

Block receptors in vascular smooth muscle, myocardium, brain, kidney, etc.

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Direct Renin Inhibitors (DRI)

Inhibits renin

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Only DRI available

Aliskiren

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Calcium Channel Blockers

Cause coronary and peripheral vasodilation via L-channel blockade

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Verapamil and diltiazem

Negative chronotropic and inotropic effects

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Method of action of β-Blockers

Blockade of β-receptors on renal, myocardial, and CNS sites

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Indications for β-Blockers

HTN, angina pectoris, MI prevention, etc.

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Aldosterone Antagonists

Spironolactone and eplerenone

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Spironolactone

Weak diuretic; used with other antihypertensives

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α2-Agonists

Affect CO and peripheral resistance

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α1-Adrenergic Antagonists

Selectively block postsynaptic α1-receptors

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First-dose phenomenon

Manifests with orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, etc.

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Antiadrenergic Agents

Second-line drugs that deplete postganglionic norepinephrine.

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Vasodilators

Hydralazine and minoxidil

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Angina

Symptom of myocardial ischemia

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Nitrates

Nitroglycerin

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Nitroglycerin

Reduces myocardial oxygen demand by dilating vessels.

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Ranolazine (Ranexa)

Adjunct for chronic angina not responding to other meds

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Antithrombotic Agents

Prevents or breaks up blood clots

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Heparins

Unfractionated and low-molecular-weight

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Indications for Heparins

Venous thromboembolism, atrial fibrillation, etc.

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Antidote for Heparin

Protamine sulfate

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Aspirin

Inhibits thromboxane A2 production.

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Study Notes

  • Drugs affecting circulation include antihypertensives, antianginals, and antithrombotics

Key Terms

  • Antithrombotics: Prevent or break up blood clots in conditions like thrombosis or embolism, including anticoagulants, antiplatelets, and thrombolytics.
  • Arterial blood pressure (blood pressure): Defined as the product of systemic vascular resistance and cardiac output (heart rate × stroke volume).
  • Cardiovascular disease (CVD): Damage to the heart, blood vessels, or circulation, including damage to the brain, kidney, and eyes.
  • Chronotropic: Influencing the rate of rhythmic movements, such as heartbeat.
  • Circadian rhythm: Human biologic variations of rhythm within a 24-hour cycle.
  • Creatinine clearance (CrCl): Measurement of the renal clearance of endogenous creatinine per unit of time, approximating glomerular filtration rate (GFR), used for drug dosage guidelines.
  • D-dimers: Degradation fragments of cross-linked fibrin polymer during plasmin-mediated fibrinolysis; levels increase after fibrinolysis onset.
  • Dose-ceiling effect: Maximum drug dose beyond which it no longer exerts a therapeutic effect, but its toxic effect increases.
  • Fibrin split or fibrinogen degradation products (FDPs): Small peptides resulting after plasmin action on fibrinogen and fibrin, acting as anticoagulant substances that can cause bleeding if fibrinolysis is uncontrolled.
  • Glomerular filtration rate (GFR): Volume of water filtered from plasma by the kidney into Bowman capsules per unit of time.
  • Hypertensive emergency: Blood pressure greater than 180/120 mm Hg, with acute, progressing target organ injury.
  • Hypertensive urgency: Blood pressure greater than 180/120 mm Hg without acute target organ complications.
  • Inotropes: Drugs influencing the contractility of a muscle (heart).
  • Intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA): Ability to activate and block adrenergic receptors, producing a net stimulatory effect on the sympathetic nervous system.
  • Renin: Enzyme released by the kidney that converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin I.

Hypertension

  • High blood pressure is defined as ≥140/90 mm Hg.
  • Primary hypertension: Has an unknown etiology (essential hypertension).
  • Secondary hypertension: Results from a known disease process.
  • Adversely affects the heart, brain, kidney, and eyes, leading to cardiovascular disease (CVD).
  • Diagnosis requires two or more seated blood pressure readings taken on different days.
  • Increases the risk of left ventricular (LV) hypertrophy, angina, myocardial infarction (MI), heart failure, stroke, peripheral arterial disease (PAD), retinopathy, and renal failure.

Pathophysiology of Hypertension

  • Arterial blood pressure is the product of cardiac output (CO) and total resistance.
  • Preload is the major factor in systolic blood pressure (SBP), affecting venous capacitance.
  • Afterload is the major factor in diastolic blood pressure (DBP).

Hypertensive Crisis

  • Defined as blood pressure > 180/120 mmHg.
  • Hypertensive urgency: No signs or symptoms of organ complication; may involve severe headaches, SOB, nosebleeds, or severe anxiety, and is controlled over 24-48 hours.
  • Hypertensive emergency: Involves acute, chronic, or progressive organ injury, requiring ICU admission and blood pressure monitoring.

Hypertension Pharmacotherapy

  • First-line agents: Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs), angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs), calcium channel blockers (CCBs), β-Blockers, and thiazide-type diuretics.
  • Second-line agents: Vasodilators, α-Blockers, α2-Agonists, and antiadrenergics.

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitors

  • They suppress the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
  • Hemodynamic effects: Reduce peripheral arterial resistance (PAR), increase CO, and increase renal blood flow.
  • Indicated for hypertension (HTN), heart failure, systolic dysfunction, MI prevention, LV dysfunction, and diabetic neuropathy.
  • Effective alone or with thiazide-type diuretics, generally decreasing SBP and DBP by 15–25%.
  • The most common side effect is a dry cough, less commonly angioedema.
  • Do not induce glucose intolerance, hyperlipidemia, or hyperuricemia.
  • There is a significant interaction with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers

  • Receptors are found in vascular smooth muscle, myocardium, brain, kidney, liver, uterus, and adrenal glands.
  • Indicated for HTN and treatment of heart failure.
  • Slightly weaker than ACEIs.
  • Side effects: Orthostatic hypotension, hyperkalemia, neutropenia, nephrotoxicity, and fetotoxicity.

Direct Renin Inhibitors (DRI)

  • Act by inhibiting renin.
  • Can be used alone or in combination with other antihypertensive agents.
  • Aliskiren is the only DRI available.
  • Side effects: Diarrhea, headache, dizziness, fatigue, upper respiratory track infection, nasopharyngitis, and back pain.

Calcium Channel Blockers

  • Cause coronary and peripheral vasodilation via L-channel blockade.
  • Verapamil and diltiazem: Have negative chronotropic and inotropic effects, long-acting formulations, high incidence of constipation and other side effects.
  • Amlodipine, felodipine, isradipine, nifedipine, nisoldipine: Have negligible chronotropic effects (except nifedipine), only sustained-release dosage forms of nifedipine are indicated for hypertension, and amlodipine and felodipine may be used in patients with heart failure.

β-Blockers

  • Act by blocking the β-receptors on the renal juxtaglomerular cells, myocardial β-receptors, and central nervous system β-receptors.
  • Indications: HTN, angina pectoris, cardiac dysrhythmias, MI prevention, chronic heart failure, and pheochromocytoma
  • Also used for migraine prophylaxis and alcohol withdrawal.
  • May induce bronchospasm and render β-agonist ineffective.

Aldosterone Antagonists

  • Spironolactone (Aldactone) and eplerenone (Inspra).
  • Spironolactone is a weak diuretic, often used with other antihypertensives,indicated for hepatic cirrhosis, primary hyperaldosteronism, hypokalemia, heart failure, used in combination for HTN.
  • Adverse effects of spironolactone: Impotence, gynecomastia, deep voice, menstrual irregularities, hirsutism, gastrointestinal upset, rash, and drowsiness.
  • Eplerenone: Indicated for HTN and post-MI heart failure, minimal adverse sexual side effects, higher risk of hyperkalemia.

Centrally Acting Adrenergic Agents

  • α2-Agonists.
  • Affect CO and peripheral resistance.
  • Negative inotrope/negative chronotrope.
  • α2-Agonists are effective but riddled with side-effects, having a high incidence of anticholinergic-like effects.
  • Clonidine transdermal is the most effective and least toxic.

α1-Adrenergic Antagonists

  • Selectively block postsynaptic α1-receptors.
  • Cause arterial and venous dilation, decreasing preload and afterload.
  • First-dose phenomenon: Manifests with orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, palpitations, dizziness, headaches, and syncope.
  • Initial doses should be low and taken at bedtime.
  • Indicated for HTN, benign prostatic hyperplasia, heart failure, and Raynaud’s vasospasm.

Antiadrenergic Agents

  • Second-line drugs.
  • Reserpine: Depletes postganglionic norepinephrine, may cause sedation, depression, psychosis, peptic ulcers, and nasal stuffiness.
  • Guanethidine (Ismelin) and guanadrel (Hylorel): Substitute neurotransmitters, may cause orthostatic hypotension, sexual dysfunction, and explosive diarrhea.
  • Antihypertensive effects diminished when combined with tricyclic antidepressants, amphetamines, or ephedrine.

Vasodilators

  • Hydralazine (Apresoline) and minoxidil (Rogaine, Loniten).
  • Second-line treatment for HTN because of side effects.
  • Act on vascular smooth muscle to decrease total peripheral resistance.
  • May cause reflex tachycardia, renin release, and increased CO.
  • Often given with a β-blocker and loop diuretic.

Angina

  • A symptom of myocardial ischemia caused by an imbalance of myocardial O2 supply and demand.
  • May present as heavy weight or pressure on the chest, burning sensation, shortness of breath (SOB), or pain over the sternum, left shoulder, or lower jaw.

Pharmacotherapy for Angina

  • Nitrates
  • Nitroglycerin reduces myocardial oxygen demand by dilating coronary arteries and collaterals (mostly venous effect).
  • Indications: Angina, acute MI, and HTN.
  • Formulations: Oral, IV, ointment, transdermal, translingual, and sublingual.
  • Sublingual administration: Q 5 minutes × 3, then seek care.
  • Adverse reactions: Tachycardia, palpitations, hypotension, dizziness, flushing, and headache.
  • Ranolazine (Ranexa)
  • Indicated for chronic angina not responding to other medications.
  • Shifts energy production from fatty acid oxidation to glucose oxidation (uses less O2).
  • 500 mg BID (maximum, 1 g BID).
  • Adverse reactions: Dizziness, palpitations, headache, constipation, nausea, pain, and peripheral edema.
  • Contraindicated in hepatic dysfunction.

Antithrombotic Agents

  • Prevent or break up blood clots.
  • Formation and elimination of acute coronary thrombus.
  • Formation is initiated by injury to the endothelium.
  • Platelets adhere to the site of injury, release chemicals that cause further aggregation, forming an unstable thrombus.
  • Eventually forms an insoluble fibrin clot.
  • Must be removed by the fibrinolytic system for homeostasis to be maintained.
  • Three categories: Anticoagulants, antiplatelets, and thrombolytics.

Anticoagulant Agents

  • Heparins: Unfractionated heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin.
  • Indications: Venous thromboembolism, pulmonary embolism, atrial fibrillation (AF), disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and peripheral arterial embolism.
  • Extracted from porcine intestinal mucosa.
  • Goal: Balance unwanted clotting with the risk of hemorrhage.
  • Side effects: Bleeding, thrombocytopenia, hyperkalemia, osteoporosis, and increased liver enzyme tests (LETs).
  • Antidote: Protamine sulfate.
  • Direct thrombin inhibitors:
  • Desirudin (Iprivask): Indicated for deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
  • Bivalirudin (Angiomax): Indicated for unstable angina.
  • Argatroban and lepirudin (Refludan): Used for anticoagulation of patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia type 2 (HIT-2).
  • Common adverse side effect: Hemorrhage.
  • Warfarin (Coumadin):
  • Oral anticoagulant for venous thrombosis, pulmonary embolism (PE), atrial fibrillation, valve replacement, and coronary occlusion.
  • Daily dosing (delayed onset of 3–5 days).
  • International normalized ratio (INR) is the standard for monitoring therapy.
  • Hemorrhage is a common side effect.
  • Many factors may increase/decrease effects, including diet, disease states, and drugs.

Antiplatelet Agents

  • Aspirin:
  • In platelets, prostaglandin derivative thromboxane A2 is a major inducer of platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction.
  • Reduces platelet aggregation by the inhibition of prostaglandin production.
  • Antithrombotic indications: Reduce risk of thrombosis, transient ischemic attack (TIA), or stroke.
  • Side effects: Peptic ulcer, renal dysfunction, HTN, tinnitus, pulmonary dysfunction, and bleeding.
  • Ibuprofen inhibits pharmacological effect; concurrent NSAID use may cause fatal gastropathy.
  • Dipyridamole:
  • Vasodilator and platelet adhesion inhibitor.
  • Indicated only as an adjunct to warfarin in the prevention of postoperative thromboembolic complications of cardiac valve replacement.
  • May potentiate the effect of adenosine.
  • Adverse reactions: Headache, dizziness, hypotension, and distress.
  • Clopidogrel (Plavix):
  • A prodrug; must undergo a two-step hepatic conversion.
  • Platelet aggregation inhibitor.
  • Indications: History of MI, stroke, PAD, and acute coronary syndrome (ACS).
  • Slightly more effective than aspirin (except for stroke prophylaxis).
  • Metabolized by the liver.
  • Steady state in 3 to 7 days.
  • 75 mg QD (plus aspirin); 300-mg loading dose for ACS.
  • Ticlopidine:
  • Platelet aggregation inhibitor.
  • Indicated for stroke.
  • More effective than aspirin.
  • Steady state in 14–21 days.
  • Metabolized by the liver.
  • Risk of life-threatening blood dyscrasias.
  • Use only if aspirin and clopidogrel are unacceptable.
  • Prasurgel:
  • A prodrug.
  • Only indicated in use for prevention of thrombosis in patients with ACS undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention.
  • In combination with aspirin decreases nonfatal MI but has increased bleeding risk.
  • Onset of action can be seen as early as 30 minutes.
  • Adverse reaction: Bleeding.
  • Cilostazol and pentoxifylline:
  • Cause vasodilation and inhibition of platelet aggregation.
  • Indicated for PAD pain.
  • Clinical benefits may take up to 12 weeks.
  • Transient adverse effects: Headache, diarrhea, dizziness, and palpitations.
  • 100 mg BID on an empty stomach.
  • Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors:
  • Indicated for ACS.
  • Abciximab (ReoPro) is the “drug of choice”.
  • Not available in oral formulation (ineffective).
  • Bleeding is the most common adverse side effect.

Thrombolytic Agents

  • Indicated for PE, ischemic stroke, and acute ST segment elevation MI.
  • Agents: Streptokinase (second line), alteplase, reteplase, and tenecteplase.
  • Therapy should begin within 12 hours of symptoms.
  • Thrombolytics are preferred to percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) when patients present within 3 hours of symptom onset, and door to primary PCI time will be greater than 90 minutes.
  • Contraindications: Internal bleeding, aortic dissection, head injury or stroke in the last 3 months, HTN, and anticoagulant use.
  • Bleeding is the most common adverse effect, including gastrointestinal, genitourinary, respiratory tract, retroperitoneal, and intracranial bleeding.

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