Drugs affecting circulation & CVD

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Questions and Answers

What is the hemodynamic effect of ACEIs (Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitors) on peripheral arterial resistance (PAR)?

  • Variable, depending on the individual
  • No change
  • Increase
  • Reduce (correct)

A patient with hypertension is prescribed a medication that causes vasodilation by blocking alpha-1 receptors. Which of the following side effects is most associated with the initiation of this medication?

  • Hypertension
  • Orthostatic hypotension (correct)
  • Bradycardia
  • Fluid retention

What is the primary mechanism by which nitroglycerin reduces myocardial oxygen demand in patients with angina?

  • Blocking calcium channels in myocardial cells.
  • Constricting peripheral arteries to increase afterload.
  • Dilating coronary arteries and collaterals, with a predominant venous effect. (correct)
  • Increasing heart rate and contractility.

A patient experiencing a hypertensive emergency requires immediate blood pressure reduction. Which of the following defines a hypertensive emergency?

<p>Blood pressure exceeding 180/120 mmHg accompanied by acute, progressing target organ injury. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a significant adverse effect associated with spironolactone use in male patients?

<p>Gynecomastia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed clopidogrel. What is the primary mechanism of action of clopidogrel?

<p>Inhibiting platelet aggregation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with hypertension is prescribed aliskiren. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

<p>Directly inhibiting renin. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following instructions should be given to a patient taking sublingual nitroglycerin for angina?

<p>Take up to three tablets, five minutes apart; seek medical care if pain persists. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antihypertensive drug classes is known to potentially induce bronchospasm, making beta-agonists less effective?

<p>Beta-blockers (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most common side effect associated with ACEIs (Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitors)?

<p>Dry cough (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary indication for the use of thrombolytic agents?

<p>Dissolving existing blood clots in conditions like acute MI and stroke. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value is most important for monitoring the therapeutic effect of this medication?

<p>International Normalized Ratio (INR) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of ranolazine in treating angina?

<p>Shifting energy production from fatty acid oxidation to glucose oxidation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of thrombolytic agents?

<p>Recent head injury or stroke (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is taking guanethidine for hypertension. Which of the following medications could diminish the antihypertensive effects of guanethidine?

<p>Tricyclic antidepressants (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale behind using sustained-release formulations of verapamil and diltiazem??

<p>To target circadian rhythm variations in blood pressure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common adverse effect associated with the use of dipyridamole?

<p>Headache (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is aspirin prescribed in the management and prevention of cardiovascular events?

<p>It inhibits thromboxane A2 production, reducing platelet aggregation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which vasodilators, such as hydralazine and minoxidil, lower blood pressure?

<p>Acting on vascular smooth muscle to decrease total peripheral resistance. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is started on an alpha-2 agonist for hypertension. What are some potential side effects the patient should be educated about?

<p>High incidence of anticholinergic-like effects. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason ticlopidine is reserved for use only when aspirin and clopidogrel are unacceptable?

<p>It carries a risk of life-threatening blood dyscrasias. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with peripheral artery disease (PAD) is prescribed cilostazol. How long may it take for the patient to experience clinical benefits from this medication?

<p>Up to 12 weeks (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which category of antithrombotic agents includes heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin?

<p>Anticoagulants (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of antiadrenergic agents like reserpine in treating hypertension?

<p>Depleting postganglionic norepinephrine. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common symptom of angina pectoris?

<p>Heavy weight or pressure on the chest (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia type 2 (HIT-2). Which of the following medications is appropriate for anticoagulation in this patient?

<p>Argatroban (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the general recommendation regarding the use of thrombolytics versus percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) in patients presenting with an acute ST-segment elevation MI?

<p>Thrombolytics are preferred if patients present within 3 hours of symptom onset and door-to-PCI time will be greater than 90 minutes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential side effect of taking antiplatelet agents?

<p>Increased risk of bleeding (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary hemodynamic effect of beta-blockers in treating hypertension?

<p>Blocking beta-receptors on the renal juxtaglomerular cells and myocardial cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports taking ibuprofen regularly for arthritis pain while also taking low-dose aspirin for cardioprotection. What is a potential concern with this combination?

<p>Ibuprofen may inhibit the pharmacological effect of aspirin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is eplerenone indicated for?

<p>post-MI heart failure (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of using glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors like abciximab?

<p>To reduce platelet aggregation in acute coronary syndromes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is the major contributor to diastolic blood pressure (DBP)?

<p>Afterload (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For which condition is Desirudin (Iprivask) indicated?

<p>Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a 'dose-ceiling effect'?

<p>The maximum dose of a drug beyond which it no longer exerts a therapeutic effect but its toxic effect increases. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which thiazide diuretics lower blood pressure?

<p>Promoting sodium and water excretion. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with hypertension is prescribed aliskiren. What is an expected effect of this medication related to renin?

<p>Direct inhibition of renin's activity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which nitroglycerin provides relief in patients experiencing angina?

<p>Decreasing preload and afterload, leading to reduced myocardial oxygen demand (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed spironolactone for hypertension. Which of the following potential side effects should be discussed, particularly in male patients?

<p>Gynecomastia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of clopidogrel?

<p>Blocking the ADP receptor on platelets, preventing platelet aggregation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antihypertensive medication classes may be least effective as a monotherapy in African American patients?

<p>ACE Inhibitors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking warfarin is also prescribed amiodarone. How does amiodarone affect warfarin's action?

<p>Enhances the anticoagulant effect, increasing the risk of bleeding. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are sustained-release formulations of verapamil and diltiazem beneficial for patients with hypertension and angina?

<p>To target the circadian rhythm of blood pressure (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is started on an alpha-2 agonist for hypertension. What is a potential side effect the patient should be educated about?

<p>Nasal congestion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the rationale for prescribing aspirin in cardiovascular event management?

<p>Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of thrombus formation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do vasodilators like hydralazine and minoxidil lower blood pressure?

<p>By acting on vascular smooth muscle to decrease peripheral resistance (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient asks why ticlopidine is not used as commonly as other antiplatelet agents. What is the most accurate answer?

<p>It poses a risk of life-threatening blood dyscrasias. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with peripheral artery disease (PAD) starts cilostazol. How long should the patient be advised it might take to feel clinical benefits?

<p>Up to 12 weeks (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor contributes significantly to diastolic blood pressure (DBP)?

<p>Systemic vascular resistance (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential side effect of taking antiplatelet agents that patients should be aware of?

<p>Increased risk of bleeding (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on low-dose aspirin for cardioprotection reports regular ibuprofen use for arthritis pain. What is a potential concern with this combination?

<p>Decreased antiplatelet effect of aspirin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports experiencing a dry cough after starting an ACE inhibitor. What action is most appropriate?

<p>Switch the patient to an ARB (Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is admitted to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 200/130 mmHg and signs of end-organ damage. This would be classified as:

<p>Hypertensive emergency (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the term 'dose-ceiling effect'?

<p>Once the maximum effective dose is reached, increasing the dose does not increase the therapeutic effect but may increase toxic effects. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason beta-blockers are used in the treatment of angina pectoris?

<p>They reduce heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of stroke is prescribed dipyridamole as an adjunct to warfarin. What is the purpose of this combination?

<p>To prevent postoperative thromboembolic complications of cardiac valve replacement (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed guanethidine for hypertension. Which of the following classes of medications might diminish its antihypertensive effects?

<p>Tricyclic antidepressants (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia type 2 (HIT-2). Besides discontinuing heparin, what treatment is appropriate?

<p>Initiating anticoagulation with argatroban or lepirudin. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For which of the following reasons should thrombolytics only be considered within the initial hours of symptoms of ST-segment elevation MI?

<p>Reperfusion is more effective at this time. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Antithrombotics

Drugs that prevent or break up blood clots in conditions like thrombosis or embolism.

Arterial Blood Pressure

The product of systemic vascular resistance and cardiac output (heart rate × stroke volume).

Cardiovascular Disease (CVD)

Damage to the heart, blood vessels, or circulation affecting the brain, kidneys, and eyes.

Chronotropic

Drugs that influence the rate of rhythmic movements (heartbeat).

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Circadian Rhythm

Human biological variations of rhythm within a 24-hour cycle.

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Creatinine Clearance (CrCl)

Measurement of renal clearance of endogenous creatinine per unit of time, approximating GFR.

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Dose-Ceiling Effect

Maximum dose of a drug beyond which it no longer provides a therapeutic effect, but the toxic effect increases.

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Hypertensive Emergency

Greater than 180/120 mm Hg, accompanied by acute, progressing target organ injury.

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Hypertensive Urgency

Blood pressure greater than 180/120 mm Hg, without acute target organ complications.

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Inotropes

Drugs influencing the contractility of the heart muscle.

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Intrinsic Sympathomimetic Activity (ISA)

The ability to activate and block adrenergic receptors, producing net stimulatory effect.

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Renin

Enzyme released by the kidney in response to lack of renal blood flow, converting angiotensinogen into angiotensin I.

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Hypertension

High blood pressure (≥140/90 mmHg).

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Essential Hypertension

Hypertension with unknown etiology.

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Secondary Hypertension

Hypertension due to a known disease process.

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Cardiovascular Disease (CVD)

Damage to the heart, brain, kidney, and eye due to hypertension.

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ACEIs

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.

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ARBs

Angiotensin II receptor blockers.

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CCBs

Calcium channel blockers.

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ACE Inhibitors

Drugs that suppress the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system.

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Hemodynamic Effect (ACEIs)

Reduces peripheral arterial resistance, increases CO, and increases renal blood flow.

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Dry Cough (ACEIs)

Most common side effect of ACEIs.

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Angiotensin II Receptors

Receptors found in vascular smooth muscle, myocardium, brain, kidney, liver, uterus, adrenal glands.

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ARBs vs. ACEIs

Slightly “weaker” than ACEIs.

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Side Effects of DRIs

Diarrhea, headache, dizziness, fatigue, URI, nasopharyngitis, back pain.

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Calcium Channel Blockers

Cause coronary and peripheral vasodilation via L-channel blockade.

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Verapamil and Diltiazem

Drugs that have negative chronotropic and inotropic effects.

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Beta-Blockers Method of Action

Blockade of the β-receptors on the renal juxtaglomerular cells, myocardial β-receptors, central nervous system β-receptors.

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Beta-Blockers Risks

May induce bronchospasm and render β-agonist ineffective.

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Aldosterone Antagonists

Spironolactone (Aldactone) and eplerenone (Inspra).

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Adverse Effects of Spironolactone

Impotence, gynecomastia, menstrual irregularities, hirsutism, gastrointestinal upset, rash, drowsiness.

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Centrally Acting Adrenergic Agents

α2-Agonists.

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Alpha-1 Blocker Effects

Arterial and venous dilation, decreasing preload and afterload.

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First-Dose Phenomenon

Orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, palpitations, dizziness, headaches, syncope.

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Reserpine

Depletes postganglionic norepinephrine.

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Vasodilators

Act on vascular smooth muscle to decrease total peripheral resistance.

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Myocardial Ischemia

Imbalance of myocardial O2 supply and demand.

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Nitrates

Nitroglycerin.

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Sublingual Nitroglycerin Dosing

Q 5 minutes × 3, then seek care.

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Ranolazine (Ranexa) Adverse Reactions

Dizziness, palpitations, headache, constipation, nausea, pain, peripheral edema.

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Thrombus Formation

Formation initiated by injury to the endothelium.

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Goal of Heparin Therapy

Balance unwanted clotting with risk of hemorrhage.

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Heparin Antidote

Protamine sulfate.

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Direct Thrombin Inhibitors Adverse Effect

Hemorrhage.

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Warfarin Monitoring

International Normalized Ratio (INR).

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Aspirin Action

Reduces platelet aggregation by the inhibition of prostaglandin production.

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Aspirin Uses

Antithrombotic indications: Reduce risk of thrombosis, transient ischemic attack (TIA), or stroke.

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Dipyridamole

Vasodilator and platelet adhesion inhibitor.

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Clopidogrel (Plavix)

A prodrug; must undergo a two-step hepatic conversion.

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Study Notes

  • Drugs affecting circulation include antihypertensives, antianginals, and antithrombotics
  • Cardiovascular disease (CVD) is damage to the heart, blood vessels, or overall circulation

Key Terms

  • Antithrombotics: Drugs preventing or breaking up blood clots in conditions like thrombosis or embolism, including anticoagulants, antiplatelets, and thrombolytics.
  • Arterial Blood Pressure: Hemodynamically defined as the product of systemic vascular resistance and cardiac output (heart rate × stroke volume).
  • Chronotropic: Influencing the rate of rhythmic movements, especially heartbeat.
  • Circadian Rhythm: Human biologic variations of rhythm within a 24-hour cycle.
  • Creatinine Clearance (CrCl): Measurement of the renal clearance of endogenous creatinine per unit of time, approximating glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
  • D-dimers: Degradation fragments of cross-linked fibrin polymer during fibrinolysis, indicating the presence of fibrinolysis.
  • Dose-ceiling effect: Maximum drug dose beyond which therapeutic effect doesn't increase, but toxic effects do.
  • Fibrin Split or Fibrinogen Degradation Products (FDPs): Peptides resulting from plasmin's action on fibrinogen and fibrin, acting as anticoagulants and potentially causing bleeding if fibrinolysis is excessive.
  • Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR): Volume of water filtered by the kidney from plasma into Bowman capsules per unit of time.
  • Hypertensive Emergency: Blood pressure exceeding 180/120 mm Hg with acute, progressing target organ injury.
  • Hypertensive Urgency: Blood pressure exceeding 180/120 mm Hg without acute target organ complication signs or symptoms.
  • Inotropes: Drugs affecting muscle contractility, particularly in the heart.
  • Intrinsic Sympathomimetic Activity (ISA): Ability to activate and block adrenergic receptors, resulting in a net stimulatory effect on the sympathetic nervous system.
  • Renin: Enzyme released by the kidney to convert angiotensinogen into angiotensin I in response to reduced renal blood flow.

Epidemiology and Etiology of Hypertension

  • High blood pressure is defined as ≥140/90 mm Hg.
  • Primary hypertension has an unknown cause (essential hypertension).
  • Secondary hypertension results from a known disease process.
  • Hypertension can adversely affect the heart, brain, kidneys, and eyes, leading to cardiovascular disease (CVD).
  • Diagnosis involves two or more seated blood pressure readings taken on different days.
  • Hypertension increases the risk of left ventricular hypertrophy, angina, myocardial infarction, heart failure, stroke, peripheral arterial disease, retinopathy, and renal failure.

Pathophysiology of Hypertension

  • Arterial blood pressure is the product of cardiac output (CO) and total resistance.
  • Preload is a major factor influencing systolic blood pressure (SBP) and affects venous capacitance.
  • Afterload is a major factor influencing diastolic blood pressure (DBP).

Hypertensive Crisis

  • Defined as blood pressure > 180/120 mmHg.
  • Hypertensive urgency involves no signs/symptoms of organ complication, possibly with severe headaches, shortness of breath, nosebleeds, or severe anxiety, and is managed over 24-48 hours.
  • Hypertensive emergency involves acute, chronic, or progressive organ injury, requiring ICU admission and blood pressure monitoring.

Hypertension Pharmacotherapy

  • First-line agents include:
    • Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs)
    • Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)
    • Calcium channel blockers (CCBs)
    • β-Blockers
    • Thiazide-type diuretics
  • Second-line agents include:
    • Vasodilators
    • α-Blockers
    • α2-Agonists
    • Antiadrenergics

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitors (ACEIs)

  • Suppress the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
  • Hemodynamic effects include reduced peripheral arterial resistance, increased cardiac output, and increased renal blood flow.
  • ACEIs are indicated for hypertension, heart failure, systolic dysfunction, MI prevention, LV dysfunction, and diabetic neuropathy.
  • They are effective alone or with thiazide-type diuretics and generally decrease SBP and DBP by 15–25%.
  • A common side effect is a dry cough, with rare occurrences of angioedema.
  • ACEIs do not induce glucose intolerance, hyperlipidemia, or hyperuricemia.
  • There is a significant interaction with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs)

  • Receptors are found in vascular smooth muscle, myocardium, brain, kidney, liver, uterus, and adrenal glands.
  • ARBs are indicated for hypertension and heart failure treatment.
  • They are considered slightly "weaker" than ACEIs.
  • Side effects include orthostatic hypotension, hyperkalemia, neutropenia, nephrotoxicity, and fetotoxicity.

Direct Renin Inhibitors (DRI)

  • Act by inhibiting renin.
  • Can be used alone or in combination with other antihypertensive agents.
  • Aliskiren is the only DRI available.
  • Side effects include diarrhea, headache, dizziness, fatigue, upper respiratory tract infection, nasopharyngitis, and back pain.

Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs)

  • Cause coronary and peripheral vasodilation via L-channel blockade.
  • Verapamil and diltiazem have negative chronotropic and inotropic effects, are formulated for long-acting circadian rhythm targeting, and have a high incidence of constipation.
  • Amlodipine, felodipine, isradipine, nifedipine, and nisoldipine have negligible chronotropic effects (except nifedipine).
  • Only sustained-release dosage forms of nifedipine are indicated for hypertension.
  • Amlodipine and felodipine may be used in patients with heart failure.

β-Blockers

  • Block β-receptors on renal juxtaglomerular cells and myocardial and central nervous system β-receptors.
  • Indications include hypertension, angina pectoris, cardiac dysrhythmias, MI prevention, chronic heart failure, and pheochromocytoma.
  • Also used for migraine prophylaxis and alcohol withdrawal.
  • May induce bronchospasm and render β-agonists ineffective.

Aldosterone Antagonists

  • Spironolactone (Aldactone) and eplerenone (Inspra).
  • Spironolactone is a weak diuretic often used with other antihypertensives, indicated for hepatic cirrhosis, primary hyperaldosteronism, hypokalemia, and heart failure, and used in combination for HTN.
    • Adverse effects of spironolactone include impotence, gynecomastia, deep voice, menstrual irregularities, hirsutism, gastrointestinal upset, rash, and drowsiness.
  • Eplerenone is indicated for HTN and post-MI heart failure.
    • It has minimal adverse sexual side effects but a higher risk of hyperkalemia.

Centrally Acting Adrenergic Agents (α2-Agonists)

  • Affect cardiac output and peripheral resistance with negative inotropic and chronotropic effects.
  • α2-Agonists are effective but have side effects, including a high incidence of anticholinergic-like effects.
  • Clonidine transdermal is the most effective and least toxic.

α1-Adrenergic Antagonists

  • Selectively block postsynaptic α1-receptors, causing arterial and venous dilation, decreasing preload and afterload.
  • The first-dose phenomenon manifests with orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, palpitations, dizziness, headaches, and syncope.
    • Initial doses should be low and taken at bedtime.
  • Indications include HTN, benign prostatic hyperplasia, heart failure, and Raynaud’s vasospasm.

Antiadrenergic Agents

  • Second-line drugs.
  • Reserpine depletes postganglionic norepinephrine and may cause sedation, depression, psychosis, peptic ulcers, and nasal stuffiness.
  • Guanethidine (Ismelin) and guanadrel (Hylorel) substitute neurotransmitters and may cause orthostatic hypotension, sexual dysfunction, and explosive diarrhea.
    • Antihypertensive effects are diminished when combined with tricyclic antidepressants, amphetamines, or ephedrine.

Vasodilators

  • Hydralazine (Apresoline) and minoxidil (Rogaine, Loniten) are second-line treatments for HTN due to side effects.
  • They act on vascular smooth muscle to decrease total peripheral resistance.
  • May cause reflex tachycardia, renin release, and increased cardiac output.
  • Often given with a β-blocker and loop diuretic.

Epidemiology, Etiology, and Pathophysiology of Angina

  • Angina is "chest pain" resulting from myocardial ischemia, where there is an imbalance of myocardial oxygen supply and demand.
  • It may present as a heavy weight or pressure on the chest, burning sensation, shortness of breath, or pain over the sternum, left shoulder, or lower jaw.

Pharmacotherapy for Angina

  • Nitrates (e.g., nitroglycerin) reduce myocardial oxygen demand by dilating coronary arteries and collaterals (mostly venous effect).
    • Indications include angina, acute MI, and HTN.
    • Formulations include oral, IV, ointment, transdermal, translingual, and sublingual.
    • For sublingual administration, administer every 5 minutes × 3, then seek care.
    • Adverse reactions: Tachycardia, palpitations, hypotension, dizziness, flushing, and headache.

Ranolazine (Ranexa)

  • Indicated for chronic angina not responding to other medications.
  • Shifts energy production from fatty acid oxidation to glucose oxidation (uses less O2).
  • Dosage: 500 mg BID (maximum, 1 g BID).
  • Adverse reactions: Dizziness, palpitations, headache, constipation, nausea, pain, and peripheral edema.
  • Contraindicated in hepatic dysfunction.

Antithrombotic Agents

  • Prevent or break up blood clots.
  • Formation and elimination of acute coronary thrombus: Formation is initiated by injury to the endothelium.
    • Platelets adhere to the injury site, release chemicals causing further aggregation, forming an unstable thrombus.
    • An insoluble fibrin clot eventually forms.
    • The fibrinolytic system must remove it for homeostasis to be maintained.
  • Three categories:
    • Anticoagulants
    • Antiplatelets
    • Thrombolytics

Anticoagulant Agents

  • Heparins: Unfractionated heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin.
    • Indicated for venous thromboembolism, pulmonary embolism, atrial fibrillation, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and peripheral arterial embolism.
    • Extracted from porcine intestinal mucosa.
    • Goal: Balance unwanted clotting with the risk of hemorrhage.
    • Side effects: Bleeding, thrombocytopenia, hyperkalemia, osteoporosis, and increased liver enzyme tests (LETs).
    • Antidote: Protamine sulfate.

Direct Thrombin Inhibitors

  • Desirudin (Iprivask) is indicated for deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
  • Bivalirudin (Angiomax) is indicated for unstable angina.
  • Argatroban and lepirudin (Refludan) are used for anticoagulation of patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia type 2 (HIT-2).
  • Common adverse side effect: Hemorrhage.

Warfarin (Coumadin)

  • Oral anticoagulant for venous thrombosis, pulmonary embolism (PE), atrial fibrillation, valve replacement, and coronary occlusion.
  • Daily dosing (delayed onset of 3–5 days).
  • International normalized ratio (INR) is the standard for monitoring therapy.
  • Hemorrhage is a common side effect.
  • Many factors may increase/decrease effects, including diet, disease states, and drugs.

Antiplatelet Agents

  • Aspirin: Prostaglandin derivative thromboxane A2 induces platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction.
    • Reduces platelet aggregation by inhibiting prostaglandin production.
    • Antithrombotic indications: Reduce the risk of thrombosis, transient ischemic attack (TIA), or stroke.
    • Side effects: Peptic ulcer, renal dysfunction, HTN, tinnitus, pulmonary dysfunction, and bleeding.
    • Ibuprofen inhibits pharmacological effect; concurrent NSAID use may cause fatal gastropathy.

Dipyridamole

  • Vasodilator and platelet adhesion inhibitor.
  • Indicated only as an adjunct to warfarin in preventing postoperative thromboembolic complications of cardiac valve replacement.
  • May potentiate the effect of adenosine.
  • Adverse reactions: Headache, dizziness, hypotension, and distress.

Clopidogrel (Plavix)

  • A prodrug that must undergo a two-step hepatic conversion.
  • Platelet aggregation inhibitor.
  • Indications: History of MI, stroke, PAD, acute coronary syndrome (ACS).
  • Slightly more effective than aspirin (except for stroke prophylaxis).
  • Metabolized by the liver; Steady state in 3 to 7 days.
  • Dosage: 75 mg QD (plus aspirin); 300-mg loading dose for ACS.

Ticlopidine

  • Platelet aggregation inhibitor.
  • Indicated for stroke.
  • More effective than aspirin.
  • Steady state in 14–21 days.
  • Metabolized by the liver.
  • Risk of life-threatening blood dyscrasias.
    • Use only if aspirin and clopidogrel are unacceptable.

Prasurgel

  • A prodrug.
  • Only indicated for the prevention of thrombosis in patients with ACS undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention.
  • In combination with aspirin, it decreases nonfatal MI but has increased bleeding risk.
  • Onset of action can be seen as early as 30 minutes.
  • Adverse reaction: Bleeding.

Cilostazol and Pentoxifylline

  • Cause vasodilation and inhibition of platelet aggregation.
  • Indicated for PAD pain.
  • Clinical benefits may take up to 12 weeks.
  • Transient adverse effects: Headache, diarrhea, dizziness, palpitations.
  • 100 mg BID on an empty stomach.

Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa Inhibitors

  • Indicated for ACS.
  • Abciximab (ReoPro) is the "drug of choice."
  • Not available in oral formulation (ineffective).
  • Bleeding is the most common adverse side effect.

Thrombolytic Agents

  • Indicated for PE, ischemic stroke, acute ST-segment elevation MI.
  • Agents: Streptokinase (second line), alteplase, reteplase, and tenecteplase.
    • Therapy should begin within 12 hours of symptoms.
    • Thrombolytics are preferred over percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) when patients present within 3 hours of symptom onset, and door-to-primary PCI time will be greater than 90 minutes.
  • Contraindications: Internal bleeding, aortic dissection, head injury or stroke in the last 3 months, HTN, anticoagulant use.
  • Bleeding is the most common adverse effect, including gastrointestinal, genitourinary, respiratory tract, retroperitoneal, and intracranial bleeding.

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