Drugs Affecting Circulation

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Questions and Answers

Which hemodynamic factors primarily influence systolic and diastolic blood pressure, respectively?

  • Heart rate and stroke volume
  • Preload and afterload (correct)
  • Systemic vascular resistance and cardiac output
  • Afterload and preload

A patient presents with a blood pressure of 190/130 mm Hg and exhibits no acute target organ damage. Which condition is the patient most likely experiencing?

  • Malignant hypertension
  • Hypertensive emergency
  • Hypertensive urgency (correct)
  • Normal blood pressure

Which of the following antihypertensive drug classes directly suppresses the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system?

  • Calcium channel blockers
  • Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (correct)
  • Thiazide diuretics
  • Beta-blockers

What is a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors that often leads to discontinuation of the drug?

<p>Dry cough (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antihypertensive drug class is known for causing a 'first-dose phenomenon' characterized by orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, and syncope?

<p>Alpha-1 adrenergic antagonists (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential adverse effect associated with spironolactone, an aldosterone antagonist?

<p>Gynecomastia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of antihypertensive agents is most likely to cause anticholinergic-like side effects?

<p>Centrally acting alpha-2 agonists (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking guanethidine for hypertension also begins taking a tricyclic antidepressant. What potential interaction should the healthcare provider be aware of?

<p>Diminished antihypertensive effect (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios best describes the pathophysiology of angina pectoris?

<p>Imbalance between myocardial oxygen supply and demand (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does nitroglycerin primarily alleviate angina symptoms?

<p>By reducing myocardial oxygen demand through vasodilation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with chronic angina is prescribed ranolazine. What is the primary mechanism of action of this medication?

<p>Shifting energy production in the heart to use less oxygen (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the initial step in the formation of an acute coronary thrombus?

<p>Injury to the endothelium (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the antidote for unfractionated heparin?

<p>Protamine sulfate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following laboratory values is most important to monitor in a patient receiving warfarin?

<p>International normalized ratio (INR) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does aspirin exert its antiplatelet effect?

<p>By inhibiting the production of thromboxane A2 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed clopidogrel after experiencing a myocardial infarction. What is the mechanism of action of clopidogrel?

<p>It inhibits platelet aggregation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant adverse effect associated with the use of thrombolytic agents?

<p>Excessive bleeding (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an indication for the use of thrombolytic agents?

<p>Acute ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is taking warfarin and develops a gastrointestinal bleed. Which agent would be administered to reverse the effects of warfarin in this situation?

<p>Vitamin K (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the action of direct thrombin inhibitors?

<p>They directly block the action of thrombin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary indication for using glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors?

<p>Acute coronary syndrome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient has a history of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), which anticoagulant is most appropriate to use?

<p>Argatroban (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which route of nitroglycerin administration provides the most rapid relief of acute angina symptoms?

<p>Sublingual (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is taking cilostazol for peripheral artery disease. What is the primary mechanism by which cilostazol improves symptoms?

<p>Causing vasodilation and inhibiting platelet aggregation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the dose-ceiling effect?

<p>The drug's therapeutic effect increases with the dose up to a maximum point; beyond that, only toxicity increases. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical significance of measuring D-dimer levels?

<p>To identify the presence of fibrinolysis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a distinct effect of verapamil and diltiazem compared to other calcium channel blockers like amlodipine and nifedipine?

<p>They have negative chronotropic and inotropic effects (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does aliskiren work to lower blood pressure?

<p>By inhibiting renin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the therapeutic goal when administering heparin?

<p>Balancing unwanted clotting with the risk of hemorrhage (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with hypertension is also diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which antihypertensive agent might provide dual benefits for both conditions?

<p>Alpha-1 Adrenergic Antagonists (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes eplerenone from spironolactone?

<p>Eplerenone has a lower risk of sexual side effects (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to monitor liver enzyme tests (LETs) when administering heparin?

<p>Heparin can cause liver damage, increasing liver enzyme levels (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical significance of intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA) in beta-blockers?

<p>Activates and blocks adrenergic receptors, producing a net stimulatory effect on the sympathetic nervous system (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is ticlopidine typically reserved as a last-resort antiplatelet agent?

<p>It has a high risk of life-threatening blood dyscrasias (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed prasugrel after undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) for acute coronary syndrome (ACS). Why is it crucial to also prescribe aspirin with prasugrel?

<p>Aspirin and prasugrel synergistically decrease the risk of thrombosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be considered when switching a patient who has been taking NSAIDs chronically to aspirin for its antithrombotic effects?

<p>NSAIDs should be discontinued because they inhibit the pharmacological effect of aspirin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a contraindication for thrombolytic therapy?

<p>Known history of internal bleeding (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale for using sustained-release formulations of calcium channel blockers?

<p>To target circadian rhythm variations in blood pressure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has been prescribed dipyridamole following a cardiac valve replacement. What is the primary purpose of this medication in this context?

<p>As an adjunct to warfarin in the prevention of postoperative thromboembolic complications (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure?

<p>Inhibiting the breakdown of bradykinin, leading to vasodilation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are long-acting formulations of calcium channel blockers like verapamil and diltiazem sometimes preferred in the management of hypertension?

<p>They align with circadian rhythms of blood pressure, providing more consistent control. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. What is a crucial consideration regarding its use in a patient with a history of asthma?

<p>Cardioselective beta-blockers can be used with caution, but the patient should be monitored for bronchospasm. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key difference between spironolactone and eplerenone in the treatment of hypertension and heart failure?

<p>Eplerenone is more selective for aldosterone receptors, resulting in fewer hormonal side effects. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are centrally acting adrenergic agents, such as clonidine, often considered second-line treatments for hypertension?

<p>They are associated with a high incidence of anticholinergic-like side effects and rebound hypertension. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale behind administering alpha-1 adrenergic antagonists, such as prazosin, at bedtime, especially when initiating therapy?

<p>To minimize the 'first-dose phenomenon' of orthostatic hypotension. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the combination of a beta-blocker and a loop diuretic often used with vasodilators like hydralazine in the treatment of hypertension?

<p>To counteract the reflex tachycardia and fluid retention caused by hydralazine. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which nitroglycerin alleviates angina symptoms?

<p>Dilating coronary arteries and collaterals to improve myocardial oxygen supply. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does ranolazine improve symptoms in patients with chronic angina?

<p>By shifting myocardial energy production from fatty acid oxidation to glucose oxidation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying cause of angina pectoris?

<p>Imbalance between myocardial oxygen supply and demand. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to balance the antithrombotic effects of heparin with the risk of hemorrhage?

<p>To achieve the therapeutic goal of preventing unwanted clotting without causing excessive bleeding. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For which of the following conditions is Desirudin (Iprivask) specifically indicated?

<p>Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What laboratory parameter is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin?

<p>International normalized ratio (INR) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does aspirin inhibit platelet aggregation?

<p>By inhibiting the production of thromboxane A2. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is dipyridamole used adjunctively with warfarin following cardiac valve replacement?

<p>To prevent postoperative thromboembolic complications. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of clopidogrel?

<p>Inhibition of ADP-mediated platelet activation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is ticlopidine generally reserved for patients in whom aspirin and clopidogrel are not suitable?

<p>It carries a higher risk of life-threatening blood dyscrasias. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is aspirin typically prescribed in conjunction with prasugrel in patients undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) for acute coronary syndrome (ACS)?

<p>Aspirin reduces the risk of stent thrombosis by inhibiting platelet aggregation via a different pathway. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes how cilostazol improves symptoms in patients with peripheral artery disease (PAD)?

<p>By causing vasodilation and inhibiting platelet aggregation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary clinical reason that glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors are not available in an oral formulation?

<p>They are ineffective when administered orally. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which coagulation parameter needs to be monitored when using unfractionated heparin?

<p>Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of hypertension, what does the term "dose-ceiling effect" refer to?

<p>The maximum dose of a drug beyond which it no longer exerts a therapeutic effect but increases the risk of toxicity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of D-dimer levels in the context of antithrombotic therapy?

<p>They indicate the presence of fibrinolysis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common adverse effect of thrombolytic agents?

<p>Bleeding (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Antithrombotics

Drugs that prevent or break up blood clots in conditions like thrombosis or embolism. Includes anticoagulants, antiplatelets, and thrombolytics.

Arterial blood pressure

The product of systemic vascular resistance and cardiac output (heart rate × stroke volume).

Cardiovascular disease (CVD)

Damage to the heart and blood vessels, including those affecting the brain, kidneys, and eyes.

Chronotropic

Influencing the rate of rhythmic movements, especially heartbeat.

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Circadian rhythm

Biologic variations of rhythm within a 24-hour cycle.

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Creatinine clearance (CrCl)

Measurement of the renal clearance of endogenous creatinine per unit of time; approximates glomerular filtration rate (GFR).

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D-dimers

Fragments of cross-linked fibrin polymer during fibrinolysis; indicates fibrinolysis.

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Dose-ceiling effect

Maximum dose of a drug beyond which it no longer exerts a therapeutic effect, but toxic effects increase.

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Fibrin split products (FDPs)

Peptides resulting from plasmin's action on fibrinogen and fibrin; can cause bleeding if uncontrolled.

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Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

Volume of water filtered by the kidneys per unit of time; related to creatinine clearance.

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Hypertensive emergency

Blood pressure greater than 180/120 mmHg with acute target organ injury.

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Hypertensive urgency

Blood pressure greater than 180/120 mmHg without acute target organ complications.

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Inotropes

Drugs influencing the contractility of a muscle (especially the heart).

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Intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA)

Ability to activate and block adrenergic receptors, producing a net stimulatory effect.

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Renin

Enzyme released by the kidney to convert angiotensinogen into angiotensin I.

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Hypertension

High blood pressure ≥140/90 mmHg.

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Essential hypertension

Elevated BP with no known cause.

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Secondary hypertension

Elevated BP caused by a known disease.

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Cardiovascular disease (CVD)

Damage to the heart, brain, kidney and eyes, as a result of hypertension.

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Left ventricular hypertrophy

Enlargement of the heart's left ventricle, that can result from hypertension.

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Angina

Chest pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart.

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Myocardial infarction (MI)

Heart attack; damage to heart muscle due to blocked blood supply.

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Retinopathy

Damage to the retina.

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ACE Inhibitors

Drugs that block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

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ARBs

Drugs that block angiotensin II receptors

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Calcium channel blockers

Drugs that block calcium entry into muscle cells, causing vasodilation.

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Beta-Blockers

Medications that block β-adrenergic receptors.

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Thiazide-type diuretics

Diuretics that act on the distal convoluted tubule in the kidney.

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Vasodilators

Medications that directly relax blood vessels.

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Alpha-Blockers

Drugs that block alpha-adrenergic receptors.

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Alpha2-Agonists

Drugs that stimulate alpha2-adrenergic receptors in the brain, to reduce sympathetic outflow.

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Antiadrenergics

Drugs that deplete norepinephrine stores.

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Direct Renin Inhibitors (DRI)

Acting directly to inhibit renin.

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α1-Adrenergic Antagonists

Drugs that block postsynaptic alpha1-receptors, causing vasodilation.

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Angina Pectoris

Chest pain due to myocardial ischemia.

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Nitrates

Drugs that dilate coronary arteries and reduce myocardial oxygen demand.

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Ranolazine (Ranexa)

Reduces myocardial oxygen demand by shifting energy production.

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Aspirin

Aspirin reduces platelet aggregation through inhibition of thromboxane A2.

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Dipyridamole

Vasodilator and platelet adhesion inhibitor.

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Clopidogrel (Plavix)

A prodrug that is a platelet aggregation inhibitor.

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Prasurgel

A prodrug used for thrombosis prevention in ACS patients undergoing PCI.

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Cilostazol and pentoxifylline

Cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation; indicated for PAD pain.

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Thrombolytic Agents

Drugs used for PE, ischemic stroke and acute ST segment elevation MI.

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Study Notes

  • Drugs affecting circulation include antihypertensives, antianginals, and antithrombotics, crucial in acute, outpatient, and home care settings.

Key Terms

  • Antithrombotics: Prevent or break up blood clots, including anticoagulants, antiplatelets, and thrombolytics.
  • Arterial Blood Pressure: Hemodynamically defined as systemic vascular resistance multiplied by cardiac output (heart rate × stroke volume).
  • Cardiovascular Disease (CVD): Damage to the heart, blood vessels, or circulation, affecting the brain, kidneys, and eyes.
  • Chronotropic: Influences the rate of rhythmic movements, especially heartbeat.
  • Circadian Rhythm: Biological variations within a 24-hour cycle.
  • Creatinine Clearance (CrCl): Renal clearance of endogenous creatinine, approximating glomerular filtration rate (GFR), used for drug dosage.
  • D-dimers: Fragments from fibrinolysis, indicating fibrinolysis presence.
  • Dose-Ceiling Effect: Maximum drug dose beyond which therapeutic effect plateaus but toxicity increases.
  • Fibrin Split/Fibrinogen Degradation Products (FDPs): Peptides from plasmin on fibrinogen/fibrin, acting as anticoagulants causing bleeding if uncontrolled.
  • Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR): Volume filtered by the kidney, 90% of creatinine clearance.
  • Hypertensive Emergency: Blood pressure exceeds 180/120 mm Hg with acute organ injury.
  • Hypertensive Urgency: Blood pressure exceeds 180/120 mm Hg without acute organ complications.
  • Inotropes: Influence muscle contractility, especially heart muscle.
  • Intrinsic Sympathomimetic Activity (ISA): Ability to activate and block adrenergic receptors, stimulating the sympathetic nervous system.
  • Renin: Enzyme from the kidney converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin I due to reduced renal blood flow.

Hypertension

  • High blood pressure is defined as ≥140/90 mm Hg.
  • Primary hypertension lacks a known cause (essential hypertension).
  • Secondary hypertension results from an identifiable disease.
  • Hypertension adversely affects the heart, brain, kidneys, and eyes, leading to cardiovascular disease (CVD).
  • Diagnosis requires two or more seated blood pressure readings on different days.
  • Increased risk includes left ventricular hypertrophy, angina, myocardial infarction (MI), heart failure, stroke, peripheral arterial disease (PAD), retinopathy, and renal failure.
  • Arterial blood pressure is the product of cardiac output (CO) and total resistance.
  • Preload is a major determinant of systolic blood pressure (SBP), affecting venous capacitance.
  • Afterload is a major determinant of diastolic blood pressure (DBP).

Hypertensive Crisis

  • Hypertensive crisis involves blood pressure >180/120 mmHg.
  • Hypertensive urgency: No signs/symptoms of organ complication, potentially with severe headaches, SOB, nosebleeds, and anxiety, managed over 24-48 hours.
  • Hypertensive emergency: Acute, chronic, or progressive organ injury necessitating ICU admission and blood pressure monitoring.

Hypertension Pharmacotherapy

  • First-line agents: Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs), angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs), calcium channel blockers (CCBs), β-blockers, and thiazide-type diuretics.
  • Second-line agents: Vasodilators, α-blockers, α2-agonists, and antiadrenergics.

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitors (ACEIs)

  • ACEIs suppress the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system.
  • They block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
  • Reduce peripheral arterial resistance (PAR), increase CO, and increase renal blood flow.
  • Indicated for hypertension (HTN), heart failure, systolic dysfunction, MI prevention, LV dysfunction, and diabetic neuropathy.
  • Effective alone or with thiazide-type diuretics.
  • Typically decrease SBP and DBP by 15–25%.
  • Common side effect: Dry cough, rarely angioedema.
  • Do not induce glucose intolerance, hyperlipidemia, or hyperuricemia.
  • Significant interaction with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs)

  • Receptors located in vascular smooth muscle, myocardium, brain, kidney, liver, uterus, and adrenal glands.
  • Indicated for HTN and heart failure treatment.
  • Side effects: Orthostatic hypotension, hyperkalemia, neutropenia, nephrotoxicity, and fetotoxicity.

Direct Renin Inhibitors (DRI)

  • Act by inhibiting renin.
  • Can be used alone or with other antihypertensive agents.
  • Aliskiren is the only DRI available.
  • Side effects: Diarrhea, headache, dizziness, fatigue, upper respiratory track infection, nasopharyngitis, and back pain.

Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs)

  • Cause coronary and peripheral vasodilation via L-channel blockade.
  • Verapamil and diltiazem have negative chronotropic and inotropic effects and a high incidence of constipation, with long-acting formulations targeting circadian rhythm.
  • Amlodipine, felodipine, isradipine, nifedipine, and nisoldipine have negligible chronotropic effects (except nifedipine).
  • Only sustained-release dosage forms of nifedipine are indicated for hypertension.
  • Amlodipine and felodipine may be used in patients with heart failure.

β-Blockers

  • Block β-receptors on renal juxtaglomerular cells and myocardial/central nervous system β-receptors.
  • Indications include HTN, angina pectoris, cardiac dysrhythmias, MI prevention, chronic heart failure, and pheochromocytoma, also for migraine prophylaxis and alcohol withdrawal.
  • May induce bronchospasm and render β-agonists ineffective.

Aldosterone Antagonists

  • Spironolactone (Aldactone) and eplerenone (Inspra).
  • Spironolactone, a weak diuretic, is used with other antihypertensives, indicated for hepatic cirrhosis, primary hyperaldosteronism, hypokalemia, heart failure, and HTN.
  • Spironolactone adverse effects include impotence, gynecomastia, deep voice, menstrual irregularities, hirsutism, gastrointestinal upset, rash, and drowsiness.
  • Eplerenone is indicated for HTN and post-MI heart failure, with minimal adverse sexual side effects but a higher risk of hyperkalemia.

Centrally Acting Adrenergic Agents

  • α2-Agonists affect CO and peripheral resistance.
  • They have negative inotropic/chronotropic effects.
  • α2-Agonists are effective but have a high incidence of anticholinergic-like effects.
  • Clonidine transdermal is the most effective and least toxic.

α1-Adrenergic Antagonists

  • Selectively block postsynaptic α1-receptors.
  • Cause arterial and venous dilation, decreasing preload and afterload.
  • First-dose phenomenon manifests with orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, palpitations, dizziness, headaches, and syncope; initial doses should be low and given at bedtime.
  • Indicated for HTN, benign prostatic hyperplasia, heart failure, and Raynaud’s vasospasm.

Antiadrenergic Agents

  • Second-line drugs, such as reserpine, deplete postganglionic norepinephrine, may cause sedation, depression, psychosis, peptic ulcers, and nasal stuffiness.
  • Guanethidine (Ismelin) and guanadrel (Hylorel) substitute neurotransmitters and may cause orthostatic hypotension, sexual dysfunction, and explosive diarrhea.
  • Antihypertensive effects are diminished when combined with tricyclic antidepressants, amphetamines, or ephedrine.

Vasodilators

  • Hydralazine (Apresoline) and minoxidil (Rogaine, Loniten) are second-line treatments for HTN due to side effects.
  • They act on vascular smooth muscle to decrease total peripheral resistance.
  • May cause reflex tachycardia, renin release, and increased CO.
  • Often given with a β-blocker and loop diuretic.

Angina

  • Chest pain is a symptom of myocardial ischemia due to an imbalance of myocardial O2 supply and demand.
  • May present as a heavy weight or pressure on the chest, burning sensation, shortness of breath (SOB), or pain over the sternum, left shoulder, or lower jaw.

Pharmacotherapy for Angina

  • Nitrates: Nitroglycerin reduces myocardial oxygen demand by dilating coronary arteries and collaterals (mostly venous effect).
  • Indications: Angina, acute MI, HTN.
  • Formulations: Oral, IV, ointment, transdermal, translingual, sublingual.
  • Sublingual administration: Every 5 minutes × 3, then seek care.
  • Adverse reactions: Tachycardia, palpitations, hypotension, dizziness, flushing, and headache.
  • Ranolazine (Ranexa): Indicated for chronic angina not responding to other medications.
  • Shifts energy production from fatty acid oxidation to glucose oxidation (uses less O2).
  • Dosage: 500 mg BID (maximum, 1 g BID).
  • Adverse reactions: Dizziness, palpitations, headache, constipation, nausea, pain, and peripheral edema.
  • Contraindicated in hepatic dysfunction.

Antithrombotic Agents

  • Prevent or break up blood clots.
  • Formation and elimination of acute coronary thrombus begin with injury to the endothelium.
  • Platelets adhere, release chemicals causing further aggregation, forming an unstable thrombus, which eventually forms an insoluble fibrin clot.
  • The fibrinolytic system must remove clots for homeostasis.
  • Three categories: Anticoagulants, antiplatelets, and thrombolytics.

Anticoagulant Agents

  • Heparins: Unfractionated heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin.
  • Indicated for venous thromboembolism, pulmonary embolism, atrial fibrillation (AF), disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and peripheral arterial embolism.
  • Extracted from porcine intestinal mucosa.
  • Goal: Balance unwanted clotting with the risk of hemorrhage.
  • Side effects: Bleeding, thrombocytopenia, hyperkalemia, osteoporosis, increased liver enzyme tests (LETs).
  • Antidote: Protamine sulfate.
  • Direct thrombin inhibitors: Desirudin (Iprivask) for deep vein thrombosis (DVT), Bivalirudin (Angiomax) for unstable angina, and Argatroban and lepirudin (Refludan) for anticoagulation of patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia type 2 (HIT-2).
  • Common adverse side effect: Hemorrhage.
  • Warfarin (Coumadin): Oral anticoagulant for venous thrombosis, pulmonary embolism (PE), atrial fibrillation, valve replacement, and coronary occlusion.
  • Daily dosing with a delayed onset of 3–5 days.
  • International normalized ratio (INR) is the standard for monitoring therapy.
  • Hemorrhage is a common side effect.
  • Many factors may increase/decrease effects, including diet, disease states, and drugs.

Antiplatelet Agents

  • Aspirin: In platelets, prostaglandin derivative thromboxane A2 is a major inducer of platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction.
  • Reduces platelet aggregation by inhibiting prostaglandin production.
  • Antithrombotic indications: Reduce the risk of thrombosis, transient ischemic attack (TIA), or stroke.
  • Side effects: Peptic ulcer, renal dysfunction, HTN, tinnitus, pulmonary dysfunction, and bleeding.
  • Ibuprofen inhibits pharmacological effect; concurrent NSAID use may cause fatal gastropathy.
  • Dipyridamole: Vasodilator and platelet adhesion inhibitor.
  • Indicated only as an adjunct to warfarin in the prevention of postoperative thromboembolic complications of cardiac valve replacement.
  • May potentiate the effect of adenosine.
  • Adverse reactions: Headache, dizziness, hypotension, and distress.
  • Clopidogrel (Plavix): A prodrug that must undergo a two-step hepatic conversion.
  • Platelet aggregation inhibitor.
  • Indications: History of MI, stroke, PAD, acute coronary syndrome (ACS).
  • Slightly more effective than aspirin (except for stroke prophylaxis).
  • Metabolized by the liver with steady state in 3 to 7 days.
  • Dosage: 75 mg QD (plus aspirin) or a 300-mg loading dose for ACS.
  • Ticlopidine: Platelet aggregation inhibitor, indicated for stroke.
  • More effective than aspirin, with steady state in 14–21 days.
  • Metabolized by the liver, but has a risk of life-threatening blood dyscrasias, so use only if aspirin and clopidogrel are unacceptable.
  • Prasurgel: A prodrug indicated for the prevention of thrombosis in patients with ACS undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention.
  • In combination with aspirin decreases nonfatal MI but has an increased bleeding risk.
  • Onset of action can be seen as early as 30 minutes.
  • Adverse reaction: Bleeding.
  • Cilostazol and pentoxifylline: Cause vasodilation and inhibition of platelet aggregation.
  • Indicated for PAD pain.
  • Clinical benefits may take up to 12 weeks.
  • Transient adverse effects: Headache, diarrhea, dizziness, and palpitations.
  • Dosage: 100 mg BID on an empty stomach.
  • Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors: Indicated for ACS.
  • Abciximab (ReoPro) is the “drug of choice.”
  • Not available in oral formulation (ineffective).
  • Bleeding is the most common adverse side effect.

Thrombolytic Agents

  • Indicated for PE, ischemic stroke, and acute ST segment elevation MI.
  • Agents: Streptokinase (second line), alteplase, reteplase, and tenecteplase.
  • Therapy should begin within 12 hours of symptoms.
  • Thrombolytics are preferred to percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) when patients present within 3 hours of symptom onset and door-to-primary PCI time will be greater than 90 minutes.
  • Contraindications: Internal bleeding, aortic dissection, head injury or stroke in the last 3 months, HTN, and anticoagulant use.
  • Bleeding is the most common adverse effect, including gastrointestinal, genitourinary, respiratory tract, retroperitoneal, and intracranial.

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Drugs affecting circulation

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AdulatoryRetinalite1657
Drugs affecting circulation & CVD
59 questions

Drugs affecting circulation & CVD

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AdulatoryRetinalite1657
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