DNA Structure and Replication
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Questions and Answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes the properties of supercoiled DNA?

  • Guanine content dictates the degree to which the DNA will supercoil.
  • Supercoiling alters the writhing number (W) and twisting number (T), which contribute to the linking number (L). (correct)
  • The linking number of a supercoiled DNA molecule can be altered without breaking any phosphodiester bonds.
  • Supercoiling commonly occurs in both open circular and linear DNA molecules.

A scientist is studying a new virus and finds that its DNA has an unusually high guanine and cytosine content. What can the scientist infer from this observation?

  • The proportion of guanine is approximately equal to the proportion of cytosine. (correct)
  • The DNA will be less stable at high temperatures.
  • The DNA is likely single-stranded.
  • The ratio of adenine to thymine will also be high.

In the context of DNA structure and replication, what is the significance of the antiparallel arrangement of the two polynucleotide chains?

  • It ensures that each base pair is rotated 72° around the axis of the helix.
  • It enables complementary base pairing, where each strand acts as a template for replication. (correct)
  • It allows both strands to be synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction.
  • It facilitates the formation of Z-DNA.

Considering the Meselson-Stahl experiment, what key conclusion was drawn about DNA replication?

<p>DNA replication is semi-conservative, with each new duplex containing one parental and one daughter strand. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During DNA replication, what determines the sequence of nucleotides in the newly synthesized daughter strand?

<p>Complementary base pairing with the separated parental strand. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is working with an enzyme that cleaves phosphodiester bonds within a DNA strand. Which type of enzyme is the researcher most likely using?

<p>An endonuclease (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the central dogma of molecular biology, what is the correct flow of genetic information?

<p>DNA to RNA to Protein (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstances can RNA be converted back into DNA?

<p>During the replication of RNA viruses using reverse transcriptase. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes the relationship between a genome, chromosomes, and genes?

<p>A genome is composed of multiple chromosomes, each containing numerous genes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of bacterial transformation, what is the critical step that leads to a change in the genetic properties of the recipient bacteria?

<p>Introducing DNA extracted from the donor strain into the recipient strain. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Genetic engineering involves introducing new DNA into an organism. What is the primary purpose of this process?

<p>To introduce new traits into cells or organisms. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes the roles of nucleosides and nucleotides in DNA structure?

<p>A nucleoside consists of a base and a sugar, while a nucleotide is a nucleoside plus a phosphate. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are consecutive deoxyribose residues linked in a polynucleotide chain of DNA?

<p>By a phosphate group between the 3' carbon of one sugar and the 5' carbon of the next sugar. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the fundamental difference in the sugar component between DNA and RNA?

<p>DNA contains deoxyribose (2'–H), while RNA contains ribose (2'–OH). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the presence of uracil contribute to the difference in composition between DNA and RNA?

<p>RNA contains uracil instead of thymine. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the structural forms of DNA and RNA as they typically exist in nature?

<p>DNA exists as a double helix, while RNA exists as a single strand. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most direct consequence of heating a DNA duplex?

<p>Separating the two DNA strands. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes a transition mutation?

<p>Substitution of one pyrimidine for another. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does an insertion or deletion within a coding region often eliminate the activity of the gene?

<p>It may alter the reading frame, leading to a frameshift mutation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes a suppression mutation from a second-site reversion?

<p>A suppression mutation occurs in a different gene, compensating for the first mutation's effects, while a second-site reversion occurs within the same gene. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of mutation is least likely to revert spontaneously?

<p>Deletion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher observes that a specific DNA sequence has a significantly higher rate of mutation compared to other regions of the genome. What is the most likely explanation for this observation?

<p>The sequence is a mutational hotspot. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A scientist discovers a new chemical mutagen that causes a high frequency of specific mutations at a particular location in the genome. This observation suggests that:

<p>The mutagen may have a specific hotspot at that location. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A gene encoding an enzyme has been inactivated due to a forward mutation. Which of the following events would be classified as a back mutation?

<p>A second mutation within the same gene restores the original function of the enzyme. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A mutation occurs in a gene that encodes a protein consisting of multiple polypeptide chains. Which hypothesis most accurately describes the relationship between the gene and the protein?

<p>One gene-one polypeptide hypothesis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely outcome of a mutation that introduces a premature stop codon in the coding region of a gene?

<p>A truncated protein with altered function (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In an organism with two sets of chromosomes, where do the two copies of each gene originate?

<p>One from each parent (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Two mutant strains of bacteria, each with a recessive mutation causing the same phenotype, are crossed. The resulting progeny all display the mutant phenotype. What does this result suggest?

<p>The mutations are alleles of the same gene and fail to complement. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does genetic linkage affect the inheritance of genes located on the same chromosome?

<p>It causes genes to be inherited together more often than expected by chance. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a null mutation?

<p>Results in a wild-type phenotype (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A certain segment of DNA contains a long string of repeating 'CCG' triplets. What is this an example of, and what can it potentially cause?

<p>A &quot;slippery sequence&quot;; can lead to changes in length during replication. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the complementation test?

<p>To determine whether two recessive mutations are alleles of the same gene. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher identifies a new mutation in mice that results in increased muscle mass. Breeding experiments show this trait appears even when only one copy of the mutated gene is present. What type of mutation is most likely responsible?

<p>Gain-of-function mutation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a species of flowering plant, the gene for flower color has multiple alleles. A plant breeder crosses two heterozygous plants with different flower color alleles. The offspring display a range of flower colors not seen in either parent. What genetic phenomenon is being observed?

<p>Polymorphism (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Two genes, A and B, are located on the same chromosome. Scientists observe a low frequency of recombination between them. What does this suggest about the physical distance between genes A and B?

<p>They are closely linked on the same chromosome. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A geneticist is studying a gene in yeast. They create a mutation that completely eliminates the function of the gene. Under what condition would this mutation be lethal according to the content?

<p>When homozygous or hemizygous (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During meiosis, crossing over occurs. Which of the following best describes the immediate result of the single strand exchange during crossing over?

<p>Formation of heteroduplex DNA (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A new drug is developed that prevents the formation of chiasmata during meiosis. What direct effect would this have on genetic recombination?

<p>Inhibition of genetic exchange (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of loss-of-function mutations?

<p>They are usually gain-of-function mutations. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Inversions are chromosomal rearrangements in which a segment of a chromosome is reversed end-to-end. How would you expect an inversion to impact recombination frequency within the inverted region?

<p>Inversions would likely suppress recombination within the inverted region. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are frameshift mutations often more detrimental than point mutations?

<p>Frameshift mutations typically disrupt the entire reading frame, often leading to complete loss of gene function. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A gene encodes a polypeptide of 300 amino acids. Approximately how many nucleotides are present in the coding region of that gene?

<p>900 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines an 'open reading frame' (ORF) within a gene?

<p>A continuous sequence of codons from a start codon to a stop codon capable of being translated into a polypeptide. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher identifies a mutation in a bacterial gene that involves the deletion of three consecutive nucleotides. What is the MOST likely consequence of this mutation?

<p>The deletion of one amino acid in the encoded polypeptide. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In gene expression, what is the role of the antisense (template) strand of DNA?

<p>It serves as the template for mRNA transcription. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following mutations would NOT cause a frameshift?

<p>Deletion of three nucleotides. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the start codon that signals the beginning of translation?

<p>AUG (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does it mean for a polypeptide and its corresponding gene to be colinear?

<p>The sequence of nucleotides in the gene exactly corresponds to the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Genome

The complete set of hereditary information in an organism, stored as a long DNA sequence.

Gene

A sequence of DNA that encodes an RNA molecule; in protein-coding genes, the RNA encodes a polypeptide.

Bacterial transformation

Transfer of genetic properties from one bacterial strain to another by introducing DNA.

Polynucleotide chain

A chain of nucleotides, the building block of DNA and RNA.

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Nucleoside

A purine or pyrimidine base linked to a pentose sugar.

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Nucleotide

A nucleoside linked to a phosphate group.

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DNA vs RNA (sugar)

DNA: 2'-H. RNA: 2'-OH.

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DNA double helix

A structure in which two strands of DNA are wound around each other.

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Supercoiling

DNA can be twisted upon itself to form a supercoil in closed circular or linear DNA.

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Linking Number (L)

L = T + W; describes the number of times one strand crosses over another in space.

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Chargaff's Rule

The proportion of guanine is always equal to the proportion of cytosine.

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Template Strand

Each strand of a DNA duplex serves as a guide for creating a new strand.

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DNA Polymerases

Enzymes that synthesize new DNA strands using existing strands as templates.

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Nucleases

Enzymes that degrade nucleic acids. They include DNases and RNases, which either cut within (endo) or remove from ends (exo).

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Endonucleases

Breaks phosphodiester linkages within RNA or DNA molecules, generating discrete fragments.

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Exonucleases

Removes nucleotide residues one at a time from the end of the molecule, generating mononucleotides.

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DNA Denaturation

Separation of two DNA strands without breaking covalent bonds.

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DNA Renaturation/Hybridization

The re-association of separated DNA strands.

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Mutations

Changes in the DNA sequence.

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Point Mutation

Mutation that alters a single base pair.

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Transition Mutation

Substitution of a pyrimidine for another pyrimidine or a purine for another purine.

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Transversion Mutation

Purine replaced by pyrimidine or vice versa.

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Frameshift Mutation

Insertion or deletion that alters the reading frame.

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Second-site reversion

Mutation somewhere else compensating for a point mutation.

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Null Mutation

A mutation that completely eliminates the function of a gene. Essential for testing if a gene is essential for survival.

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Loss-of-Function Mutation

Mutations that reduce or eliminate the normal function of a gene. Typically recessive.

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Gain-of-Function Mutation

Mutations that result in a gene acquiring a new or enhanced function. Typically dominant.

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Silent Mutation

Mutation in a gene that does not alter the amino acid sequence of the resulting protein, and therefore has no phenotypic effect.

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Multiple Alleles

Different versions of the same gene within a population.

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Polymorphism

The existence of multiple functional alleles for a particular gene within a population.

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Genetic Recombination

The generation of new combinations of alleles during sexual reproduction.

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Chiasma

The visible site of crossing over between homologous chromosomes during meiosis.

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Modified DNA Base

A modified DNA base that can cause spontaneous mutations, creating a hotspot.

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Slippery Sequence

A DNA region with repeated short sequences that can change length during replication.

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Non-Polypeptide Hereditary Agents

Small hereditary agents made of RNA (viroids) or protein (prions) that are infectious.

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Genetic Locus

The specific location of a gene on a chromosome.

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Genetic Linkage

The tendency of genes on the same chromosome to be inherited together.

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One Gene-One Polypeptide Hypothesis

The concept that one gene typically codes for one polypeptide chain.

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Recessive Mutation

Wild-type allele masks the effect of a mutant allele.

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Complementation Test

Test to see if two mutations are in the same gene. Failure to complement means they are alleles of the same gene.

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Codons

Triplet nucleotides that code for amino acids

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Open Reading Frame (ORF)

A continuous sequence of codons from the start codon to the stop codon

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Termination Codons

Codons that signal the end of translation (UAG, UAA, UGA)

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Closed/Blocked Reading Frame

A reading frame with frequent stop codons, preventing translation

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Colinearity

The relationship where the nucleotide sequence directly matches the amino acid sequence

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Gene Expression

The process by which a gene's information is used to create a functional product

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Coding Region

Part of mRNA that contains the nucleotide sequence matching the amino acid sequence

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Study Notes

  • The genome, a long sequence of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), forms the hereditary basis of every living organism.
  • The genome provides the complete set of hereditary information for the organism and its individual cells.

DNA Sequence

  • The DNA sequence codes for all proteins of an organism.
  • Proteins have roles in the development and functioning of an organism-structural, metabolic, regulation, and signal transduction.

Genes

  • The genome divides into chromosomes, which are further divided into genes.
  • A gene is a DNA sequence encoding an RNA.
  • In protein-coding (structural) genes, the RNA encodes a polypeptide.

Bacterial Transformation

  • Bacterial transformation provided that DNA is the genetic material of bacteria.
  • In bacterial transformation genetic properties transfer from one bacterial strain to another by extracting DNA from the first strain and adding it to the second strain.
  • During bacteriophage reproduction, the DNA from the parent phages transmits to the progeny phages produced by infecting bacteria.
  • The genetic material of some viruses is RNA instead of DNA.
  • Genetic engineering can introduce new traits into cells or organisms through introduction of new DNA.

DNA

  • DNA consists of a polynucleotide chain of nitrogenous bases linked to a sugar-phosphate backbone.
  • A nucleoside consists of a purine or pyrimidine base linked to the 1' carbon of a pentose sugar.
  • A nucleotide is a nucleoside linked a phosphate.
  • Consecutive (deoxy)ribose residues on a polynucleotide chain are joined by a phosphate group between the 3' carbon of one sugar and the 5' carbon of the next sugar.
  • One end of the chain has a free 5' end and the other end of the chain has a free 3' end.
  • DNA has a deoxyribose sugar (2'-H) and RNA has a ribose sugar (2'-OH).
  • DNA contains the four bases adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine while RNA contains uracil instead of thymine.
  • Most DNAs in nature exist as a double helix structure while RNAs exist as a single strand.
  • Two strands of DNA join and form a double helix, which can also wind around itself in a process called supercoiling.
  • Supercoiling can only occur in closed or linear DNA
  • Characterization of a supercoiled molecule of DNA is by its linking number (L) which is the result of the writhing number (w) and twisting number (t).
  • The linking number of a particular closed molecule can only be changed by breaking one or both strands.
  • The two polynucleotide chains are joined by hydrogen bonding between purine and pyrimidine nitrogenous bases (Guanine binds to Cytosine while Adenine binds to Thymine or Uracil).
  • Chargaff's rule states that the proportion of Guanine (G) in DNA is always identical to the proportion of Cytosine (C), describing the composition of that DNA.
  • The two polynucleotide chains run antiparallel to each other.
  • Each base pair is rotated ~36° around the axis of the helix relative to the next base pair, so ~10 base pairs make a complete turn of 360°.
  • In B-DNA, the double helix is said to be "right-handed" and the turns run clockwise as viewed along the helical axis.
  • The Meselson-Stahl experiment used “heavy" isotope labeling to show that the single polynucleotide strand is the unit of DNA that is conserved during replication, making DNA replication semi-conservative.
  • Each strand of a DNA duplex acts as a template for synthesis of a daughter strand.
  • A complex of enzymes separates the parental strands at a replication fork and synthesizes the daughter strands; determined by complementary base pairing with the separated parental strands.
  • DNA polymerases are the enzymes that synthesize DNA.
  • Nucleases are enzymes that degrade nucleic acids, including DNases and RNases, and can be categorized as endonucleases or exonucleases.
  • Endonucleases break individual phosphodiester linkages within RNA or DNA molecules, generating discrete fragments; while exonucleases remove nucleotide residues one at a time from the end of the molecule, generating mononucleotides.
  • The central dogma of molecular biology states that DNA is transcribed into RNA, which is translated into polypeptides (proteins).
  • RNA may be converted into DNA by reverse transcription (as in replication of RNA viruses), but the translation of RNA into proteins is unidirectional and cannot run in reverse.
  • Separating the two strands without disrupting the covalent bonds that form the polynucleotides is a crucial property of the double helix.
  • Heating causes the two strands of a DNA duplex to separate (denaturation).
  • Denaturation reverses under certain conditions (renaturation/hybridization).
  • The ability of two single-stranded nucleic acids to hybridize is a measure of their complementarity.

Mutations

  • Mutations -changes in the sequence of DNA-may occur spontaneously or may be induced by mutagens.
  • Point mutations (a mutation that changes a single base pair) can be caused by the chemical conversion of one base into another or by errors that occur during replication.
    • The most common point mutations are transitions (the substitution of one pyrimidine by the other or of one purine by the other) and transversions (a purine is replaced by a pyrimidine or vice versa).
  • Insertions and/or deletions can result from the movement of transposable elements.
    • An insertion (or deletion) within a coding region usually eliminates the activity of the gene because it may alter the reading frame, such an insertion/deletion is called a frameshift mutation.
  • Effects of some mutations can be reversed.
    • A point mutation can revert either by restoring the original sequence (true reversion) or by gaining a mutation elsewhere in the gene that compensates for the point mutation (second-site reversion). -Suppression mutation: the second mutation in another gene can reverse the phenotype of first mutation, unlike second-site reversion where both the first and second mutations occur in the same gene.
    • An insertion can revert by deletion of the inserted sequence (second-site reversion).
    • A deletion of a sequence cannot revert in the absence of some mechanism to restore the lost sequence.
    • Mutations that inactivate a gene are called forward mutations and their effects are reversed by back mutations.
  • The frequency of mutation at any particular base pair is statistically the same, except for hotspots, where the frequency is increased by at least an order of magnitude.
    • Spontaneous mutations may occur at hotspots, and different mutagens may have different hotspots.
    • Chemical modification of one of the four standard bases can result in the presence of a modified base in the DNA: 5-methylcytosine encourages spontaneous mutation, generating a hotspot.
    • "Slippery sequence" is a type of hotspot: a homopolymer run or region where a very short sequence (one or a few nucleotides) is repeated many times in tandem, which can either increase or decrease in length during replication of the sequence.
  • Some very small hereditary agents do not encode polypeptide, but consist of RNA (viroids) or protein (prions) with heritable (infectious) properties.

Genes Encode RNAs and Polypeptides

  • Each chromosome consists of a linear array of genes and each gene resides at a particular location on the chromosome, (the genetic locus).
  • In organisms with two sets of chromosomes, one of each chromosome pair, each gene is inherited from each parent (one is the paternal allele and the other is the maternal allele).
  • Genetic linkage is the tendency for genes on the same chromosome to remain together in progeny instead of assorting independently.
  • A typical gene is a stretch of DNA encoding one or more forms of a single polypeptide chain, also known as the "one gene-one enzyme hypothesis.”
    • However, some proteins contain more than one polypeptide (thus more than one gene is required for its production) resulting in the term the "one gene-one polypeptide" hypothesis.
    • Note that some genes do not encode polypeptides, they encode structural or regulatory RNAs.
  • Recessive to the wild-type allele is indicative of most mutations that damage gene function because if an organism contains one wild-type allele and one mutant allele, the wild-type allele can direct production of the enzyme and the organism can still function.
  • A mutation in a gene affects only the product (polypeptide or RNA) encoded by the mutant copy of the gene and does not affect the product encoded by any other allele.
    • The complementation test determines whether two recessive mutations are alleles of the same or in different genes.
    • Failure of two mutations to complement (produce wild-type phenotype) means that they are alleles of the same gene.
  • A null mutation completely eliminates gene function (usually because the gene is deleted) and is lethal when homozygous or hemizygous if the gene is essential to the organism's survival.
    • Testing whether a gene is essential requires a null mutation (one that completely eliminates its function).
  • Mutations that impede gene function are called loss-of-function mutations and are recessive; where mutations that cause genes to acquire a new function are called gain-of-function mutations and are dominant.
  • Silent mutations indicate mutations without apparent phenotypic effect.
  • Different variants of the same gene are called multiple alleles allowing for the possibility of heterozygotes representing any pairwise combination of alleles, including heterozygotes with two mutant alleles.
  • A locus may have several alleles with no individual allele when a unique wild-type allele is not necessary for any particular locus.
    • A situation in which there are multiple functional alleles in a population, is described as a polymorphism (the human ABO blood group system is an example).
  • Genetic recombination generation of new combinations of alleles at each generation in diploid organisms.
    • During meiosis, corresponding segments between the two homologous copies of each chromosome "cross over” exchanging chromosomal material and generating recombinant chromosomes that are different from the parental chromosomes.
    • Crossing over occurs at a chiasma (the point of synapsis between homologs) involving two of the four chromatids.
    • Single strands in the region of the crossover exchange their partners, resulting in a branch, creating a stretch of heteroduplex DNA in which the single strand of one duplex is paired with its complement from the other duplex.
    • The formation of heteroduplex DNA requires the sequences of the two recombining duplexes to be close enough to allow pairing between the complementary strands.
    • The frequency of recombination between two genes is proportional to their physical distance; and that the probability that a crossover will occur within any specific region of the chromosome is more or less proportional to the length of the region.
    • Recombination between genes that are very closely linked is rare while those that are very far apart has frequency of recombination which is not proportional to their physical distance because recombination happens so frequently.
  • The genetic code is read in triplet nucleotides called codons, which do not overlap and are read from a fixed starting point, denoted by an initiation codon (AUG).
    • A genuine functional gene must have an open reading frame: a continuous stretch of codons from the start codon (usually AUG) to the stop or termination codon that can be translated into a functional polypeptide.
    • Three termination codons (UAG, UAA, or UGA) that indicate where translation of a polypeptide stops exist.
    • A reading frame that cannot be translated into a polypeptide because termination codons occur frequently is said to be closed, or blocked.
  • Insertion or deletion mutations of individual bases cause a shift in the triplet sets after the site of mutation; these are frameshift mutations, which are more toxic than point mutations because of the frequent destruction of the function of the gene.
  • Combinations of mutations that together insert or delete three bases (or multiples of three) do not change the reading of the triplets beyond the last site of mutation, but can however, insert or delete amino acids from the polypeptide.
  • A polypeptide is colinear if_the sequence of nucleotides in the gene exactly corresponds to the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide, as is the case in bacterial and bacteriophage genes.
    • If a polypeptide contains N amino acids, the gene encoding that polypeptide contains 3N nucleotides.
  • Bacterial genes are typically expressed by transcription into messenger RNA (mRNA) and then by translation of the mRNA into polypeptide.
    • Messenger RNA (mRNA) is transcribed through the same complimentary base pairing process used in DNA replication (the antisense, or template, strand).
  • The process by which information from a gene is used to synthesize an RNA or polypeptide product is called gene expression.
  • The coding region is the part of an mRNA molecule that contains a sequence of nucleotides corresponding with the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide.
  • The important stage in RNA processing is splicing, in which introns (regions that do not carry coding information) are removed as well as exons (regions that do carry coding information) are spliced together.
    • Yielding results in an mRNA that is colinear with the polypeptide product.
  • Translation is accomplished by a complex apparatus that includes the ribosome (composed of ribosomal RNA) and transfer RNA, which carries the appropriate amino acid to the growing polypeptide, as directed by codons.
  • All gene products (RNA or polypeptides) are trans-acting, therefore acting on any copy of a gene in the cell, while a site on DNA that regulates the activity of an adjacent gene is said to be cis-acting.
  • Gene expression can be inactivated either by a mutation in a control site or by a mutation in a coding region.
    • Cis-acting mutations only affect the coding region to which it connected, but does not affect the ability of the homologous allele to be expressed.
    • Trans- acting mutations can prevent both alleles from being expressed.

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