178 Questions
Which route of drug administration involves the use of a patch?
Transdermal
Which route of drug administration is rarely used in humans?
Intraperitoneal (IP)
Which route of drug administration involves the use of drops?
Topical
Which route of drug administration involves injecting the drug into a muscle?
IV
Which route of drug administration involves placing the drug under the tongue?
Sublingual
Which route of drug administration is NOT the same as oral administration?
Sublingual
Which organ is the main site of drug absorption?
Small intestine
Which factor can decrease drug absorption in the gastrointestinal tract?
Gut motility
Which factor can affect drug absorption in the gastrointestinal tract?
Gut pH
Which of the following factors can affect drug absorption in the gastrointestinal tract?
Age, gender, genetic polymorphism
Which of the following can lead to poor drug absorption in the gastrointestinal tract?
Strong acid or base conditions
Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of drug absorption?
Active transport
Which type of drugs are more likely to be absorbed through passive transport via diffusion?
Lipid-soluble drugs
Which of the following statements about membrane transportation is correct?
The lipophilicity of the drug affects its membrane permeability
Which form of drugs has good membrane permeability?
Unionised form
Which factor affects the permeability of drugs through the membrane?
pH of the surrounding environment
Which form of drugs is more easily absorbed in acidic conditions?
Unionised form
Which form of drugs is more easily absorbed in alkaline conditions?
Ionised form
How are drugs distributed in the body?
They randomly meet with their targets
Which of the following factors can affect the rate of drug distribution in the body?
Blood perfusion
Which of the following factors can affect the extent of drug distribution in the body?
Availability of drug
Which type of drugs are more likely to distribute faster in the body?
Membrane permeable drugs
Which of the following is the most important plasma protein that binds with acidic and some basic drugs?
Albumin
What percentage of drug binding is reversible between the free and protein-bound form?
99%
Which form of the drug is pharmacologically active and can freely bind with its targets to exert its effects?
Free form
Which organ contains drug metabolizing enzymes that can contribute to the first-pass metabolism?
Liver
What is the primary route of drug excretion from the body?
Urine
What effect does first-pass metabolism have on drug bioavailability?
Reduces drug bioavailability
Which of the following factors can affect the extent of first-pass metabolism?
The route of administration and the drug dose
What happens to the drug level and bioavailability during first-pass metabolism?
The drug level decreases and bioavailability decreases
What is the role of drug metabolizing enzymes in first-pass metabolism?
They metabolize a portion of the drug
Which organ is the primary site for drug metabolism?
Liver
What is the main objective of drug metabolism?
To enhance drug hydrophilicity
What are the two stages of drug metabolism?
Phase 1 and Phase 2
Which type of reaction in Phase 1 metabolism involves the addition of a new -OH group directly?
Hydroxylation
Which of the following is NOT a type of reaction in Phase 1 metabolism?
Reduction
Which of the following enzymes is responsible for glucuronidation in Phase 2 metabolism?
UDP-glucuronyltransferase
Which products of Phase 2 metabolism are ready to be excreted in urine?
Water-soluble products
During drug overdose, what happens to Phase 2 metabolism?
It becomes saturated at its highest capacity
Which of the following is a major excretion system for drugs?
Lungs
What is the primary route of drug excretion from the body?
Kidneys
What is enterohepatic circulation?
The process of drug reabsorption to the portal and systemic circulation
Which mechanism is the most effective for drug elimination in the kidneys?
Active tubular secretion
What factors can affect active tubular secretion of drugs?
Competition and inhibition of transporters
Which part of the kidney is mainly responsible for tubular reabsorption of lipophilic drugs?
Distal tubule
Which type of drug target can be bound by an agonist to activate its action?
Receptors
Which type of drug target can be bound by an antagonist to block the action of an agonist?
Receptors
Which type of drug target can be inhibited by a drug to act as a false substrate?
Enzymes
What is the primary objective of drug metabolism?
To convert drugs into inactive or less active forms
Which type of drug target is associated with ligand-gated ion channels?
Ion channels
Which type of dose-response curve is used to measure the response of a single model, such as cells or animals, to the concentration or dose of an agonist?
Graded dose-response curve
What does the half-maximal effective dose (ED50) represent in a graded dose-response curve?
The concentration or dose of an agonist that produces 50% of the maximum effect
What happens to the response of a drug after it reaches its maximal effect in a dose-response relationship?
The response remains the same despite higher doses
Which of the following accurately describes affinity in relation to drug binding?
Affinity refers to the strength of a drug binding to a receptor.
How is the equilibrium dissociation constant (Kd) calculated to determine drug affinity?
By measuring the percentage of receptor occupied vs dose of drug.
What does a smaller Kd value indicate about drug affinity?
A smaller Kd value indicates greater affinity.
What is the purpose of calculating the ED50 of a drug?
To assess the potency of the drug
What is a common misconception about drug potency?
Maximal effect (EMAX) of the drug is always 100%
Which method is used to determine the efficacy of a drug?
Comparing the Emax from a graph of graded dose-response
What is the primary difference between a full agonist and a partial agonist?
Full agonists have higher efficacy and can produce a maximal response, while partial agonists have lower efficacy and cannot produce a maximal response
What is the meaning of Emax in the context of drug efficacy?
The maximum effect that a drug can achieve
Which type of antagonist binds at a different site of the receptor, mostly permanently, and cannot be overcome by increasing agonist concentration?
Non-competitive antagonist
What effect does the presence of a competitive antagonist have on the potency of agonists?
Decreases potency
Which type of antagonist competes with agonists for binding at the agonist recognition site reversibly?
Competitive antagonist
Which of the following statements about drug selectivity is correct?
A selective drug can differentiate between different targets.
Which of the following statements about drug specificity is correct?
Specificity refers to the number of different mechanisms involved in a drug's action.
Which of the following statements about drug selectivity and specificity is correct?
Specificity refers to a drug's ability to differentiate between different targets.
Which of the following best defines the therapeutic index?
The ratio of the amount of a therapeutic agent that causes the therapeutic effect to the amount that causes toxicity
Which of the following statements about drugs with a low therapeutic index is true?
They can be difficult to use unless therapeutic dose monitoring is in operation
What is the importance of the therapeutic window and index in indicating a drug's safety?
A larger value of therapeutic index or therapeutic window indicates a safer drug to use
Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of drug desensitization?
Higher number of receptors in production or receptor internalization
Which of the following best describes tolerance in relation to drug response?
The need for a higher dose to produce the same magnitude of response
What is the difference between tolerance and molecular desensitization?
Tolerance refers to altered drug metabolism, while molecular desensitization refers to the reduction in drug response
Which of the following pathways can lead to tolerance?
Both pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic
Which type of cell-cell communication involves the release of chemical messengers (hormones) into the circulatory system to signal distant cells?
Endocrine signaling
What type of cell-cell communication signals adjacent cells or communicates with the cell next to it using chemical messengers (cytokines, chemokines)?
Paracrine signaling
Which type of cell-cell communication signals a cell via chemical messengers (neurotransmitters) in the synapse?
Synaptic signaling
Which of the following statements about steroid hormones is correct?
Steroid hormones can freely cross the cell membrane.
Which of the following is true about the release of steroid hormones into the blood circulation?
The rate of steroid hormone release is correlated to its synthesis rate.
What is the role of the hormone-receptor complex in steroid hormone action?
It serves as a transcription factor to activate gene transcription.
Which of the following is true about peptide hormones?
Peptide hormones are stored in secretory vesicles in the cytoplasm.
What is the role of cAMP in peptide hormone signaling?
cAMP is a secondary messenger that activates protein/enzymes.
Which type of receptor is associated with steroid hormones?
Nuclear receptor
Which type of response is characteristic of peptide hormones?
Fast but transient response
Which signaling pathway is activated by peptide hormones?
cAMP production & protein phosphorylation
Which type of control involves the release of a hormone in response to stimulation from another hormone?
Trophic control
What is the primary purpose of a negative feedback loop in hormone regulation?
To suppress the stimulus
Which type of feedback loop occurs less commonly but is essential in certain processes?
Positive feedback loop
Which lobe of the pituitary gland is responsible for storing and secreting oxytocin and antidiuretic hormones?
Posterior lobe
Which lobe of the pituitary gland synthesizes and releases growth hormone (GH) and prolactin as direct acting hormones?
Anterior lobe
Which gland regulates and controls the anterior and posterior lobes of the pituitary gland?
Hypothalamus
Which hormone from the anterior pituitary gland targets the bone, liver, and adipose tissue?
GH
Which hormone from the anterior pituitary gland is responsible for the secretion of cortisol, aldosterone, and androgens?
ACTH
Which hormone from the posterior pituitary gland is involved in uterus contraction during labor and milk production?
Oxytocin
Which class of hormones is synthesized from cholesterol?
Steroid hormones
Which class of hormones does not require plasma protein for transportation?
Peptide hormones
Which type of receptors are involved in rapid and transient actions of hormones?
Cell surface receptors
Which type of hormone binds with intracellular receptors?
Steroid hormones
Which hormone serves as a vehicle for hydrophilic hormones that need plasma protein?
Cortisol
Which gland produces melatonin?
Pineal gland
Which of the following statements about the release of peptide hormones is correct?
Peptide hormones are stored in secretory vesicles.
Which of the following is true about the release of amino-acid hormones?
Amino-acid hormones are released into blood circulation by simple diffusion.
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for the release of steroid hormones?
Steroid hormones are stored in secretory vesicles.
Which type of hormone is released into blood circulation by simple diffusion?
Steroid hormone
How are peptide hormones released from storage when needed?
Exocytosis
Which type of hormone synthesis involves iodination of tyrosine residues?
Thyroid Hormones
Which part of the adrenal gland produces glucocorticoids?
Adrenal cortex
Which hormone is mainly regulated by ACTH?
Glucocorticoids
Which zone of the adrenal cortex produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone?
Glomerulosa
Which disease is characterized by high levels of glucocorticoid (cortisol)?
Cushing syndrome
Which adrenal disease is mainly caused by autoimmune factors?
Adrenal insufficiency
Which adrenal disease is characterized by high levels of mineralocorticoid (aldosterone)?
Hyperaldosteronism
Which cell type in the brain is responsible for myelinating the cells in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
Oligodendrocyte
What is the main function of astrocytes in the brain?
Structure support for the brain
What is the role of microglial cells in the brain?
Act as immune cells and respond to injury
Which neurotransmitter is both excitatory and inhibitory?
Acetylcholine
Which neurotransmitter is excitatory via D1 receptors and inhibitory via D2 receptors?
Dopamine
Which neuropeptide is excitatory?
Substance P
Which ion(s) experience increased conductance in the post-synaptic cell when a neurotransmitter binds to receptors?
Na+ and K+
What happens if the threshold is reached in the post-synaptic cell?
Generation of action potential
What is the effect of an inhibitory post-synaptic potential (IPSP) on the post-synaptic neurone?
Hyperpolarisation
Which ions are typically let through by neurotransmitter receptors?
Sodium, chloride, and potassium
Which neurotransmitter is generally considered inhibitory?
GABA
What leads to changes within the cell to cause a biological response after neurotransmitter activation?
Signal transduction
Which class of receptors allows selective movement of ions and is faster in transmitting signals?
Ionotropic receptors
What is the major neurotransmitter of the nervous system?
Acetylcholine
Which enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of acetylcholine?
Acetyl-Co A
Which type of receptor is activated by acetylcholine to cause depolarization in the post-synaptic cell?
Nicotinic ionotropic receptor
What is the main role of acetylcholinesterase (AChE) in the breakdown of acetylcholine?
Hydrolyze ACh
What is the product of the breakdown of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase (AChE)?
Acetate
Which of the following statements about myelin is correct?
Myelin is a substance that helps to transmit electrical signals along the axon of a neuron.
What happens to the speed of electrical signal transmission when myelin is present?
The speed of electrical signal transmission increases.
Which cells are responsible for producing myelin in the central nervous system?
Oligodendrocytes
Which of the following cells has a more negative resting membrane potential?
Skeletal Muscle Cell
What triggers action potentials in excitable cells like muscle and nerve cells?
Stimulus that alters the resting membrane potential
What maintains the concentration gradient across a cell membrane?
Sodium potassium pump
Which ion plays a major role in generating the resting membrane potential?
Potassium (K+)
What is the approximate value of the resting membrane potential?
-70mV
What is the role of Gibbs and Donnan equilibrium in the resting membrane potential?
They generate a negative charge inside cells with respect to outside
Which ion(s) experience increased conductance during the generation and conductance of an action potential?
VG Na+ open
What is the potential difference during the after-depolarisation phase of an action potential?
+35 mV
What is the term for the period of time between the stimulus and the generation of an action potential?
Latent period
Which of the following is true about the generation and conductance of an action potential?
The local currents drawn to the area of positive charge.
What is the advantage of myelin insulator in saltatory conduction?
It increases the conduction velocity of the action potential.
Which ion channels open first during the initiation of an action potential?
Sodium (Na+)
Which ion(s) experience increased conductance in the post-synaptic cell when a neurotransmitter binds to receptors?
Na+ and K+
What is the first step in the process of neurotransmitter release at a terminal bouton?
Generation of an action potential
What happens if the threshold for an action potential is reached in the post-synaptic cell?
An action potential is generated
Which part of the nervous system processes, interprets, and stores information, as well as issues orders for motor control of muscles and glands?
Central nervous system (CNS)
How many pairs of cranial nerves are there in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
12 pairs
What is the main function of the spinal cord in the nervous system?
To connect between the brain and spinal nerves
Which division of the nervous system regulates the contraction of skeletal muscles?
Somatic nervous system
Which division of the autonomic nervous system prepares the body for an emergency?
Sympathetic nervous system
Which division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for conserving and restoring energy?
Parasympathetic nervous system
Which fibers of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) convey neural impulses from the sense organs to the central nervous system (CNS)?
Afferent fibers
Which fibers of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) convey neural impulses from the CNS to the effector organs?
Efferent fibers
What are nerves in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) derived from?
Spinal nerves
Which layer of the meninges is inseparable from the surface of the spinal cord?
Pia mater
What is the name of the collection of spinal nerve roots that extend inferiorly beyond the termination of the spinal cord?
Cauda equina
Which layer of the meninges forms a sheath around the spinal cord and extends from the foramen magnum to the lower border of the second sacral (S2) vertebra?
Dura mater
Which part of the brain is responsible for connecting the left and right cerebral hemispheres?
Forebrain
Which part of the brain remains after the removal of the forebrain and cerebellum?
Midbrain
Which meninges surround and protect the brain?
Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
Which part of the brain is responsible for balance and coordination?
Cerebellum
Which lobe of the brain is associated with motor function?
Frontal lobe
Which part of the brainstem controls respiratory and cardiac function?
Medulla oblongata
Which layer of meninges covers the spinal cord closest to the bone?
Dura mater
Which nerve root contains motor fibers?
Anterior (ventral) nerve root
What are the structures connected by the corpus callosum?
Cerebral hemispheres
Which part of the nervous system is responsible for the collection of nerve cell bodies within the CNS?
Spinal cord
What is the name of the structure that continues as a thread-like structure called filum terminale below the spinal cord?
Intervertebral foramina
At which vertebral level does the spinal cord commonly terminate in adults?
L1-L2
Which part of the brain invests the spinal cord closely and continues as a thread-like structure called filum terminale below the spinal cord?
Pia mater
What is the collection of nerve cell bodies called within the central nervous system (CNS)?
Nucleus
Where does the spinal cord commonly terminate in adults?
At the vertebral level of L1-L2
Which part of the brain separates the frontal lobe from the parietal and temporal lobes?
Central sulcus
What are the three layers of meninges that cover the spinal cord called?
Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
What are the two nerve roots that initially arise from the spinal cord?
Anterior and posterior nerve roots
Test your knowledge on drug absorption routes with this informative quiz. Explore different routes of drug administration, from enteral to parenteral, and learn about their differences and uses. Whether you're studying pharmacology or simply curious about drug absorption, this quiz will help you understand the various routes and their significance in both animal studies and human applications.
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