Dermatology Quiz on Dermatitis and Infections

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Questions and Answers

What is the most likely cause of dermatitis venenata?

Exposure to certain insects

Exposure to certain chemicals

Exposure to certain plants (correct)

Exposure to certain medications

What are the common symptoms of dermatitis venenata?

Redness, itching, and blisters (correct)

Fever, chills, and muscle aches

Swelling, pain, and numbness

Headache, nausea, and vomiting

What is the primary treatment for dermatitis venenata?

Corticosteroids (correct)

Antihistamines

Antibiotics

Antivirals

What is the most likely cause of dermatitis medicamentosa?

Exposure to certain medications (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential complication of dermatitis medicamentosa?

Respiratory arrest (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary treatment for urticaria?

Antihistamines (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of urticaria?

Medications (B) Signup and view all the answers

What are the characteristic features of urticaria?

Red, raised welts with a white center (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is a common symptom of shingles?

Severe, burning pain on one side of the body (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of shingles?

Easily spreads from person to person through contact (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary method of preventing shingles in adults over 60 years of age?

Getting the Shingrix vaccine (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a recommended treatment for shingles?

Antiviral medications like acyclovir (B) Signup and view all the answers

How is cellulitis typically spread?

Contact with an open area on an infected person (E) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is TRUE about impetigo contagiosa?

It is commonly seen in children (E) Signup and view all the answers

What type of infection is cellulitis?

Bacterial (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the usual duration of recovery from shingles?

2-3 weeks (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions exhibits erythema and scaling as a characteristic feature?

Eczema (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following interventions is commonly employed for managing angioedema?

Antihistamines (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary medical goal in the management of eczema?

Reducing inflammation (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is NOT considered a risk factor for acne vulgaris?

Excessive sun exposure (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic feature that distinguishes eczema from other skin conditions?

Dryness and scaling of the involved area (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications is commonly used for managing acute episodes of angioedema?

Epinephrine (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the initial action recommended for hydrating the skin in eczema management?

Soaking the skin in warm water for 15-20 minutes (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of an anaphylactic reaction?

Fever (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications is NOT commonly used to manage systemic lupus erythematosus?

Antibiotics (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of transmission for pediculosis capitis?

Contact with infected individuals or their personal items (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic finding of pediculosis corporis?

Severe pruritus and pinpoint hemorrhages (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most appropriate initial treatment for pediculosis?

Topical insecticides like Kwell or RID (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of monitoring a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus for the presence of a positive ANA?

A positive ANA is a marker for autoimmune activity and potential disease flare-ups (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common early symptom of systemic lupus erythematosus exacerbation?

Loss of appetite (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of patient education regarding systemic lupus erythematosus?

All of the above (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common reason for using corticosteroids in the management of systemic lupus erythematosus?

To control pain and inflammation (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of monitoring a patient with pediculosis capitis for the presence of nits?

Nits indicate that the patient is still contagious and requires further treatment (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a recommended environmental intervention for managing pediculosis?

Bagging non-washable items for at least 2 weeks (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary goal of medical management for skin infections caused by streptococcus?

Prevention of glomerulonephritis (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms indicates a highly contagious inflammatory disorder?

Honey-colored crust (C) Signup and view all the answers

What should be included in nursing teaching for patients with tinea pedis?

Regularly apply topical antifungal drugs (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is often prescribed for systemic treatment of bacterial skin infections?

Erythromycin (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is a common characteristic of contact dermatitis?

Formation of vesicles that rupture (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a recommended treatment for tinea infections?

Topical antifungal soaps and shampoos (A) Signup and view all the answers

How are fungal infections of the skin typically treated?

Topical or oral antifungal drugs (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following findings is indicative of an advanced skin infection?

Leukocytosis (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of melanoma is most commonly found on the head and neck of older adults?

Lentigo malignant melanoma (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is a distinguishing characteristic of basal cell carcinoma?

May recur in 40-50% of patients after removal (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a risk factor for developing malignant melanoma?

Having a family history of unusual moles (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary location of acral lentiginous melanomas?

Areas with no hair follicles, such as hands, soles, and mucous membranes (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of melanoma is characterized by lesions with varying colors, including tan, brown, black, blue, gray, and pink?

Superficial spreading melanoma (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic of nodular melanoma?

They grow and metastasize faster than other types of melanoma (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is TRUE regarding malignant melanoma?

Heredity plays a role in its development. (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of squamous cell carcinoma?

It is commonly found in areas with chronic irritation or injury. (C) Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Integumentary System

The integumentary system is comprised of the skin, hair, and nails.
Inspection and palpation of skin require assessment of recent rashes or lesions, location of onset, duration, pain or discomfort, pruritus or tingling, burning, recent color changes, sun exposure, family history of skin cancer, and visual inspection for skin lesions.
Assessment of dark skin must consider that skin color is genetically determined and that melanin increases sun protection and decreases the incidence of skin cancer. Assessment is easier in areas of lighter skin. Assess for pallor in lips and mucous membranes, nailbeds, and conjunctiva. Rashes may require palpation.
Documentation of chief complaints of skin conditions includes exact location, length, width, general appearance, and type of lesion. Use of the mnemonic PQRST is recommended (Provocative and Palliative factors, Quality and quantity, Region, Severity, Time). Specific assessment of moles uses the mnemonic ABCDE (Asymmetry, Borders, Color, Diameter, Evolving).
Pressure injuries (stages 1-4) utilize descriptions of the damage to the skin. Non-blanchable erythema is stage 1. Partial thickness skin loss of dermis is stage 2, including abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Full thickness loss is stage 3, manifesting as a deep crater with/without undermining or tunneling. Stage 4 involves loss of full thickness tissue, with exposed cartilage, bone, tendon, or muscle, and slough/eschar, often with undermining and tunneling; Risk for osteomyelitis. Unstageable includes a wound base covered by slough and/or eschar of the wound bed. Descriptions of deep tissue injury include descriptions of color, pain, and texture compared to surrounding skin.
Types of Herpes Simplex, including Type 1 (cold sores) and Type 2 (genital herpes) have characteristic symptoms including lesions at the corner of the mouth, on the lips, or nose or genitals. Subjective and objective data is used in diagnosis; subjective data can include fatigue and/or pruritus, and objective data can include edematous and erythematous areas that appear first. Vesicles ulcerate and encrust with dried exudate, resulting in burning pain when rupturing.
Herpes Zoster is caused by the same virus that causes chickenpox; the virus lies dormant until resistance to infection has lowered. Lesions are found along nerve fibers, and the virus multiplies, producing an erythematous rash of small vesicles along a spinal nerve pathway.
Cellulitis is an infection of the skin, not contagious but spread by direct contact with an open area; it develops as an edematous and erythematous area of skin that feels hot and tender. Usually caused by strep and staph bacteria.
Impetigo Contagiosa is caused by staphylococcus aureus or strep, commonly in children. It presents with honey-colored exudate that easily removes; this is spread by touching or close contact.
Fungal infections, such as tinea capitis, tinea corporis, tinea cruris, and tinea pedis, require diagnosis with antifungal medications. Topical or oral antifungal medications are used.
Contact dermatitis is caused by a direct reaction to environmental agents. The condition presents with erythema and edema that may lead to vesicles and crusts and secondary excoriation.
Urticaria (hives) is an allergic reaction that includes wheals that are elevated with white centers and pale red periphery. It manifests quickly and is caused by histamine release and antigen-antibody reactions.
Angioedema is a form of urticaria that presents with swelling of subcutaneous tissue; it can affect several areas, including eyelids, hands, feet, tongue, larynx, GI tract, genitalia, or lips. Antihistamines, epinephrine, and corticosteroids are used in treatment. Cold packs or compresses can help reduce symptoms.
Eczema is a chronic inflammatory skin disorder primarily beginning in infancy that may have allergies to specific foods like chocolate, eggs, wheat, and OJ. The disorder is treated by reducing exposure to allergens.
Acne vulgaris involves papulopustular skin eruptions of the sebaceous glands commonly occurring during adolescence. Diet, stress, heredity, hormones, grease/oil containing cosmetics, and perspiration are contributing factors. Acne develops when oil glands become occluded and presents with edema followed by blackheads; treatments include topical, systemic, or intralesional medications.
Psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory skin disorder that is hereditary. Skin cells divide too quickly. The disorder presents with red skin patches with silver scales, usually on the scalp, elbows, and trunk. Treatment decreases inflammation and shedding of the outer layer using topical steroids, keratolytic agents, photochemotherapy, methotrexate, vitamin D, and biologics.
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder with inflammation of almost any body part. The body produces antibodies against its own cells, presenting with various symptoms such as oral ulcers, arthralgias, arthritis, vasculitis, rash, nephritis, pericarditis, synovitis, and butterfly rash. Diagnoses use anti-nuclear antibody, DNA antibody, Anti-Sm antibody, complement, CBC, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, coagulation profile, rheumatoid factor, rapid plasma reagin, skin and renal biopsy, C-reactive protein, and Coomb's test. Medications used include NSAIDs, corticosteroids, antimalarial drugs, and antineoplastic agents.
Disorders of appendages include alopecia (hair loss), hypertrichosis (excessive hair growth), hypotrichosis (decreased hair growth), and paronychia (nail disorder).
Burns present with tissue damage from heat, electricity, chemicals, and radiation, evaluated by extent and depth of injury. Classification categorizes these burns into areas. Treatment includes airway management, fluid therapy, urinary output monitoring, pain management, and tetanus immunization.
Smoke inhalation manifests with damage to respiratory cilia and mucosa. Signs include singed nasal/facial hairs, soot in throat, hoarseness, stridor, sooty sputum, productive cough, and agitation with flaring nostrils.
Carbon monoxide poisoning results from exposure to CO and will present with headache, nausea, and unsteady gait. Treatment includes 100% oxygen therapy.
Skin cancers include Basal cell, Squamous cell, and Malignant Melanoma. The latter is the most significant, arising from melanocytes and having more complex presentations with the potential for deeper invasion and metastasis.
Grafts include autografts, homografts, and heterografts.

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Description

Test your knowledge on skin disorders such as dermatitis venenata, dermatitis medicamentosa, urticaria, and shingles. This quiz covers common symptoms, causes, treatments, and prevention strategies for these conditions. Perfect for students and professionals in dermatology or healthcare fields.