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Questions and Answers
Which of the following is a key characteristic of a robust argument?
Which of the following is a key characteristic of a robust argument?
In effective communication, what role does audience analysis play?
In effective communication, what role does audience analysis play?
Which of the following describes a fallacy in reasoning?
Which of the following describes a fallacy in reasoning?
What is the significance of providing evidence in a claim?
What is the significance of providing evidence in a claim?
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Which of the following best describes the purpose of a counterargument?
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a counterargument?
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Study Notes
Question 1
- A customer reviewed a project plan with high uncertainty, expressing concern about numerous iterations potentially delaying mandatory delivery. The correct approach for the project manager in this scenario is a hybrid approach.
Question 2
- A project team's software license expired, preventing project tasks. The project manager should first contact the IT team to assess the software license renewal timeline.
Question 3
- A project manager identified a delayed task with external dependencies but unknown impact in a risk management meeting. To prepare, they should gather additional information and estimate the impact. They should also update the risk log and discuss the matter with the client in the meeting.
Question 4
- A regulatory stakeholder requested a change (adding a branch) to a bridge construction project, approved by the change control board (CCB). The project manager must include the new branch in the design and communicate the decision to the stakeholder.
Question 5
- A team developed software for airplane control, needing to meet regulatory requirements. The project manager should determine potential threats regarding compliance with the regulations. This involves identifying risks related to regulatory compliance.
Question 6
- A petroleum crisis disrupted material delivery for a construction project, delaying progress. A project manager should perform a risk assessment and define a risk response action plan. It's critical to proactively address the issue.
Question 7
- A project manager noticed an improved performance from a team member, evidenced by positive CPI and SPI for assigned work packages. The project manager should hold a project team meeting to formally document the team member's valuable contributions.
Question 8
- Project team members were conflicted about some design features during the project's launch stage. The project manager should call a stakeholder meeting with team members to seek consensus.
Question 9
- A project manager received a request to add features to an established project scope. The proper response is to follow the change management process, ensuring the request is reviewed and approved by the change control board (CCB).
Question 10
- During a kick-off meeting, a stakeholder showed low participation and a lack of belief in the project's value. The project manager should conduct a qualitative risk analysis using a probability and impact matrix to assess the risk to the project.
Question 11
- A project team using various international locations had a key issue with delayed email responses. The project manager should review the communication management plan to improve and update their communication protocols.
Question 12
- The project team is experiencing schedule delays due to issues with external suppliers, and some tasks impact the critical path. The project manager should review the critical path with stakeholders to define next steps.
Question 13
- A project member's reports showed incomplete tasks with no impediments. A colleague indicated a personal issue. The project manager's first action should be to understand the issue and offer support, fostering a supportive environment.
Question 14
- A project manager newly assigned to a project faced low morale due to team disagreements about tasks. The project team is behind schedule. The first action is a meeting with the project team to address the source of disagreement.
Question 15
- A project manager overseeing multiple building projects wants to implement agile methodologies. Their first step should be to assess the organization's cultural readiness for this transformation.
Question 16
- An external SME provides a project-saving suggestion, but the SME wasn't part of the current agile iteration. The project manager should have the existing team members collaborate with the SME to complete the activity.
Question 17
- A government client prefers traditional communication methods (e.g., email, phone calls). The project manager should align and agree with the stakeholder on the appropriate communication approach.
Question 18
- A new operation director who is not familiar with agile demanded a weekly project status report from an agile project manager in the middle of the project's third iteration. The project manager should introduce the agile aspect to the director and agree on a suitable solution.
Question 19
- A local company uses a remote team for programming tasks. The product owner has concerns about the project output, and the remote team lacks clarity about requirements conveyed in daily stand-up meetings.. The project manager should determine the communication needs, environment and tools to allow for clear communication.
Question 20
- A project manager notices inconsistent deliverables from a global team. The project manager should discuss the process used to create those non-compliant deliverables with the team to identify possible misunderstandings.
Question 21
- The change control board (CCB) is reviewing a change request with conflicting stakeholder opinions. The project manager should consult the project management plan to understand the relevant decision-making procedures.
Question 22
- A customer requests additional equipment for an existing contract, prompting a change proposal that includes a cost increase and delivery extension. The project manager should request a further meeting with the customer to discuss the delivery extension.
Question 23
- During a sprint planning meeting, the amount of work requested surpasses the development team's capacity. The team and product owner should collaborate to remove or modify unnecessary items to align with capacity.
Question 25
- A project manager is conducting agile release planning with a newly assembled team. The client has limited technical knowledge and requests a product with specific minimum requirements. The project manager should engage the client in every iteration.
Question 26
- Contract disagreements regarding device specifications arose from a buyer who preferred an agile development approach for their new device. The buyer was dissatisfied with the deliverable since the vendor committed to following the agreed-upon contract. The customer collaboration over contract negotiations methodology is what the vendor failed to implement
Question 27
- A project team with a waterfall background began anew agile project. An issue where team members duplicated efforts occurred during the sprint review. The project manager should bring up the issue during an iteration retrospective.
Question 28
- A project is managing a complex web development project. Team performance was average, and the amount of work was approximately 500 story points. To determine expected completion, the project manager should divide the backlog's remaining points by the average pace of the team, which is 50 points per iteration. The estimated duration is roughly 20 weeks (10 iterations).
Question 29
- A project team finished the initial sprint in developing an automated payroll system and is scheduled to meet with the product owner and team members to define the next features to be developed. The project manager needs the Product Backlog and the Sprint Goal.
Question 30
- A team went from independent to collaborative behavior during the early stages of project execution. This represents the norming stage of team development.
Question 31
- High emotional tension and discord within the project team is detrimental, causing trouble completing project goals. The project manager needs to focus on emotional intelligence training/coaching.
Question 32
- A scrum master new to an organization without agile experience should train the entire project team about the agile mindset and principles as well as training the product owner in grooming the backlog. The scrum master should also help the development team overcome obstacles. This training is critical to the success of the project.
Question 33
- Stakeholder satisfaction is a critical success criterion in project management. Because satisfying the stakeholders is essential to project success analysis is needed to categorize stakeholders' influence, interest and power on a project.
Question 34
- The project manager identified new stakeholders after a first round of stakeholder identification. They should add these new stakeholders to the Stakeholder Register and gather their requirements.
Question 35
- A project manager is conducting a meeting with a newly-hired team. The team's purpose is to assign roles and responsibilities and participate in team-building exercises, signifying the Forming stage of team development.
Question 36
- Team members engaged in conflicts about design features; the project manager should convene a stakeholder meeting involving team members to collaborate and achieve consensus
Question 37
- The project manager should identify the project's risks and necessary success criteria to assure project delivery.
Question 38
- After a phase gate in a multiphase project, stakeholders need to determine if the phase met success criteria and whether the project should progress further. The project manager should review the business documents, project charter, in addition to the project management plan.
Question 39
- A project manager is asked to document the intended project accomplishments and measures. The benefits management plan is the document that accurately describes project benefits and how they are measured.
Question 40
- Stakeholders need to be engaged throughout the project phases via stage-gate meetings. Stakeholder engagement is critical to project success. Stage-gate meetings provide the opportunity to align and obtain ongoing commitment from stakeholders.
Question 41
- Project management peers believe leadership, project management software usage are important project manager skills. The PMI Talent Triangle identifies these competences as "Ways of Working," "Power Skills," and "Business Acumen."
Question 42
- Project management, people management, business and strategy skills are all relevant competencies for a project manager as outlined in the PMI Talent Triangle. The correct answer encompasses all major Project Management skills.
Question 43
- A project management information system (PMIS) updating a monthly performance dashboard is using a pull communication method.
Question 45
- The project team learned that some deliverables were approved without their knowledge. The project manager should verify the communication management plan to ensure all relevant communications were properly documented, approved and communicated.
Question 46
- The vendor failed to meet expectations for a new device, despite a detailed contract. The project manager should have insisted on collaborative methods instead of a contract-centric approach for product requirements due to the lack of detailed specifications from the buyer upfront. Collaboration was the best approach.
Question 47
- A project stakeholder (specifically, using predictive approaches) not comfortable with virtual tools like chats or task trackers should have their preference for email, telephone calls, and face-to-face meetings. The project manager should align and agree on the communications approach.
Question 48
- A new project operations director expects weekly project status reports from an agile project. The project manager should introduce agile to the director and agree on a solution, adjusting reporting expectations.
Question 49
- The project sponsor visiting functional managers to discuss the project status suggests a communication problem; the appropriate response is for the project manager to meet with the sponsor individually to establish clear communication protocols and expectations.
Question 50
- A project manager is unfamiliar with a project and wants to ensure the ongoing communication does not stall the project. The project manager should review the project management plan which contains many details including communication plans.
Question 51
- To find variance in the implementation phase, variance analysis is the appropriate technique.
Question 52
- The project manager needs the project scope statement to find information about the product acceptance criteria to verify with the client.
Question 53
- The project manager needs to reference the scope management plan for details pertaining to processes involved in defining the project scope statement and formal acceptance of deliverables.
Question 54
- When stakeholders have trouble clarifying their requirements, the project manager should use observation techniques such as job shadowing to understand their work environment better to define requirements.
Question 55
- The scope management plan is part of the project management plan. It includes procedures and processes for managing the scope, including formal acceptance of project deliverables.
Question 56
- A stakeholder requested an addition to the project scope (pilot technology). The project manager should review the scope baseline with the stakeholder.
Question 57
- A project manager finds a specific work package is delayed 3 weeks. Calculate the free float for the work package to determine how much time the task can be delayed without delaying the final project deadline.
Question 58
- For a project with evolving requirements (e.g., a learning management system), rolling wave planning is a helpful technique to define the project activities since detailed scope will be established as the project progresses.
Question 59
- When a key stakeholder identifies predefined delivery dates, the project manager should recognize and understand those as mandatory dependencies to assure all necessary prerequisites are met.
Question 60
- Project CPI = 1, TCPI = 1.2 for project B are good; however, a CPI of 1.2 for project B indicates the spending rate is greater than expected. That is a potential warning sign.
Question 61
- A low SPI (0.8) and CPI (0.7) indicate the project is behind schedule and over budget. If the project manager asks the team to work overtime, this would further increase the actual cost of the project, resulting in a further decrease in the CPI.
Question 62
- With an EAC of $120,000 and BAC of $100,000, and SPI = 1.00, the CPI is less than 1.00, meaning the project is over budget.
Question 63
- A project with SPI of 0.93 and CPI of 1.05 is behind schedule but under budget. The project manager needs to focus on corrective actions relating to the schedule.
Question 64
- A project has a planned expenditure problem for certain time-periods. The most important action is to reconcile spending with the available funds (funding limit reconciliation).
Question 65
- Project stakeholders rejecting marketing materials due to inaccurate standards implies a problem of quality control. The project manager should validate scope before re-sending the materials for review.
Question 66
- A repeated similar issue in a mobile application project suggests a root cause analysis is necessary, and its results should be documented in the lessons learned repository.
Question 67
- Team members on a project with experienced subject matter experts believe quality control procedures are unnecessary, thus indicating a risk to product quality, reliability and project management efficiency. The project manager should create team commitment to quality.
Question 68
- A project scheduler producing defective reports in two consecutive cycles alerts to a potential organizational or process policy problem and therefore necessitates utilizing the technique "Perform Quality Audit".
Question 69
- A request to add features and functions to an already established project scope indicates a change that must follow change management processes, including review and approval from the change control board (CCB).
Question 70
- A recurring issue in a development project, impacting the project, warrants performing a root cause analysis to identify the problem and implement preventative measures.
Question 71
- A project with a high number of experienced SMEs but facing quality issues and therefore perceived quality checks are unnecessary calls for the creation of a team culture that emphasizes quality to prevent future issues.
Question 72
- A project where defective reports were seen for 2 accounting cycles calls for a "Perform Quality Audit" of organizational procedures to identify potential areas of improvement.
Question 73
- Project team members resisting quality control tests needs prompt intervention from the project manager to directly address concerns ensuring adherence to expected quality standards.
Question 74
- To determine if procedures are being followed correctly, a quality audit is appropriate since the team members in this project are new and fresh to the project methodology and need to be checked for compliance and proper adherence to established policies, processes and procedures..
Question 75
- A project with good CPI (1.15) and SPI (1.12) but unhappy stakeholders needs an urgent meeting to understand the stakeholder's concerns to proactively resolve any issues.
Question 76
- When trying to find the root cause for a high number of defects and causing customer concerns, the Pareto chart displays the defect frequencies and their causes, showing the greatest defect volume, prioritizes corrective actions by impact, which is useful for quality issues.
Question 77
- The project manager should use a fishbone diagram, which visually represents the root causes of a problem.
Question 78
- When a high-performing member leaves and quality standards are not met, the project manager should use root cause analysis and a cause and effect diagram to identify the root cause and implement appropriate solutions to avoid similar problems.
Question 79
- A major deliverable failing its acceptance test necessitates a root cause analysis to determine the cause of the project's decline and inform necessary corrective actions.
Question 80
- A construction project lost a crane, affecting the critical path. Resource leveling is the process the project manager used.
Question 81
- Compressing a project schedule without adding more resources or cost implies "fast tracking", a scheduling method that reduces project duration by executing project activities in parallel.
Question 82
- An unavoidable short staffing problem warrants negotiating a revised project end date or exploring faster alternatives like fast-tracking the project to avoid additional delays.
Question 83
- Quality defects are categorized as a technical risk in the risk breakdown structure, helping to categorize risks by their type and source.
Question 84
- To mitigate risk of server failure (due to constant electrical outages), the project manager should mitigate the situation by renting a generator, reducing exposure to this threat.
Question 85
- Regulatory and legislation risks are part of the External Risk category in a risk breakdown structure for a project.
Question 86
- A supplier experiencing high capacity should be added as a risk to the risk register so that the team can then conduct a more detailed analysis about the potential delay it could cause and the corresponding mitigation strategies.
Question 87
- Team members complaining of a waste of time for risk management in daily meetings requires a discussion about the importance of risk management within the project environment and the potential of risks occurring.
Question 88
- A project manager should research the lessons learned repository to determine if a previous risk response implemented on a similar project avoided failure due to unforeseen circumstances.
Question 89
- A project has unproductive brainstorming sessions. A prompt list, using the Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS) categories, can help attendees identify relevant risks and clarify the task.
Question 90
- Unforeseen region-specific prohibitions stopping a project for four months should be recorded as a risk in the risk register so that an analysis and planned risk response can be implemented.
Question 91
- A contract with a vendor who has a history of non-delivery should invoke periodic inspections of the vendor's work in order to ensure contract compliance.
Question 92
- To verify that outsourced deliverables meet acceptance criteria, the project reference should be the Statement of Work.
Question 93
- Project managers should use evaluation criteria to assess different suppliers' proposals with their respective rates.
Question 94
- When project disputes arise that cannot be solved via negotiation, alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is the recommended path for resolution.
Question 95
- After identifying several potential sellers, the project team should create a shortlist of qualified sellers to further reduce the field.
Question 96
- The next step for the project manager is to complete all closed procurements as part of the project's process control procurements for the phase closure.
Question 97
- A bad vendor relationship and unsuccessful negotiations to resolve the issue suggest seeking alternative dispute resolution (ADR) or mediation.
Question 98
- A project without a project charter requires the project manager to generate and submit a draft project charter to their supervisor. Then the PM must inform the sponsors and the project team about the project charter.
Question 99
- A project benefit analysis being conducted revealed an overlooked impact on another system. The project manager should review the benefit analysis to include the impact on the affected systems.
Question 100
- A request for additional features must first undergo the change management process (including steps to control, evaluate, and document changes, for example, updating the scope/budget/schedule) before adding the features.
Question 101
- When a project goes over budget, the project manager needs to update the cost baseline with the newly defined budget after obtaining necessary approvals.
Question 102
- All stakeholders should receive a copy of the project closure report, following the defined communication management plan of the project.
Question 103
- A project cancellation has low team morale. An appropriate response would be to reward the deserving team members with recognition for their contributions. Then the team will have proper closure procedures. A general meeting with all stakeholders to end the project in a positive way would also be beneficial.
Question 104
- Stakeholders expressed dissatisfaction with product deliverables after all project objectives have been met in the final meeting; the project manager should demonstrate that the project deliverables were verified.
Question 106
- Costs from the contractor to replace materials are disputed: The project manager should review the contract, suggest the contractor look at their proposal pricing and negotiate the proper price.
Question 107
- If the team has updated their work location to home, the stakeholder engagement plan should be updated to include new home-office contact information.
Question 108
- A project behind schedule but under budget should report this to stakeholders by providing a detailed presentation of the earned value, including the calculation to help stakeholders understand the project's current state.
Question 109
- A project manager taking over a project in an unfamiliar country should identify and monitor risks due to a lack of prior lessons learned in that location. Evaluate the environmental and regulatory factors and identify potential high-level risks.
Question 110
- A company planning a transition from predictive to agile methodologies should first define how to make this transformation in an agile style by working with sponsors and stakeholders.
Question 111
- The first step in gathering customer requirements when managing an international project is conducting a stakeholder analysis to determine how regional policies impact requirements.
Question 112
- A project team member expressing task problems warrants a confidential conversation to identify the root causes.
Question 113
- Stakeholder pressure for a two-month accelerated project timeline likely necessitates a stakeholder meeting to adjust expectations and reallocate resources, possibly triggering a change request for project schedule approval to the change control board (CCB).
Question 114
- In order to assure the quality of an agile project, teams must collaboratively define a clear and comprehensive definition of "done" that clarifies the acceptance criteria in that iteration.
Question 115
- Losing key team members when a project approaches is near its completion phase needs to be addressed by the project manager to keep it on track with a team-building event, to set goals with clear performance indicators that the project participants need to support their work, and to bring members back into alignment for the next project cycle
Question 116
- A more complex activity requires a discussion with the team, to consider and/or invite specialists to assist in completing the activity in a timely manner without impacting the schedule.
Question 117
- A subject matter expert's input that is learned during the project should be included in the relevant lessons learned register. The project manager should assign the task of documenting this information to the team.
Question 118
- A 30-day planned module that increases to 40 days requires checking the project scope to verify if scope creep is the problem and taking actions to compress the schedule accordingly without changing the baseline (e.g., fast-tracking or other schedule compression techniques).
Question 119
- A team member disrupting the daily stand-up meetings by approaching team members directly suggest a review of the communication management plan's communication approach to clarify how stand-up meetings are scheduled and how members are expected to communicate project updates.
Question 120
- A project manager needs to gain the marketing director's support for implementing hybrid methodologies by thoroughly discussing and clarifying the hybrid approaches with the director.
Question 121
- Stakeholder complaints about team performance require a project manager's prompt actions via a retrospective session for feedback, daily team meetings to address the issue, and defining new team ground rules.
Question 122
- For an organization transitioning from predictive to agile, organizational readiness by actively addressing impediments to the agile approach is the key strategy.
Question 123
- "Product Backlog", is a well-defined artifact that contains client requirements and tasks to be performed.
Question 124
- Discovering an opportunity outside the scope leads to sharing the opportunity with another project if this opportunity is relevant and can further the goal of the organization.
Question 125
- Unexpected, extreme changes to the enterprise environment, like increased costs, require communicating those changes properly to stakeholders using the communications management plan and project escalation policies.
Question 126
- Mandatory regulations unexpectedly impacting an agile project MVP necessitate a discussion with the stakeholders to evaluate options for inclusion in the MVP, even if it requires more time.
Question 127
- When a project member leaves, the project manager should initiate a knowledge transfer process with the remaining team members and provide appropriate training for the new resources, who are expected to fit into the pre-existing workflow, to guarantee proper functionality within the team.
Question 128
- If a project requirement changes during scope management, the project manager's initial responses are to understand the impact on the project schedule and cost, ideally through a cost benefit analysis or other appropriate techniques. Meetings with the stakeholder involved are crucial.
Question 129
- A new team member confusing project methodologies needs a proper explanation of the proper collaborative work methodology, including a review of the project's communication management plan.
Question 130
- A team member complaining about the project's difficulty in a newly formed team needs the project manager to provide active listening and support. Further collaboration, and identifying ways to make the tasks more manageable should be considered and resolved; team-building activities may contribute to team cohesion as well.
Question 131
- Key components of a successful team charter are shared values and project objectives.
Question 132
- "Lessons learned and opportunities for improvement" and "Plan ways to increase quality and effectiveness" are primary goals for a retrospective meeting.
Question 133
- Acceptance criteria and scope description are important components of a project scope statement.
Question 134
- The project team must complete the product backlog early in the project iteration.
Question 135
- Scrum of Scrums is a good technique to coordinate the work of multiple agile teams within a larger program.
Question 136
- The project velocity multiplied by the number of iterations provides the proper estimate of the project duration.
Question 137
- When the CPI (cost performance index)= 0.8 is not as planned, we calculate the actual cost from the earned value, which divided by 0.8, gives the actual cost, which is $125,000.
Question 138
- A project with stakeholder disagreement over objectives should involve breaking down the situation to find the root causes, and communicating/clarifying roles and responsibilities.
Question 139
- The project lead should invite the executive to the next sprint review, which is the best time to show project deliverables and progress feedback from the stakeholders.
Question 140
- The project manager should start with an appropriate pilot project with agile training.
Question 141
- Reviewing historical information and lessons learned from the similar project, from last year is helpful in justifying the budget estimate to the sponsor. A bottom-up, detailed cost analysis could be used as a tool but generally takes longer.
Question 142
- A team member having a problem in a project meeting needs to have a meeting with the project manager to resolve the issue. The project manager must properly communicate and intervene promptly.
Question 143
- If a team member states a critical problem in a meeting, the project manager should schedule a meeting with that team's member to review and update the issue log, to facilitate effective communication and problem-solving, avoiding project delays.
Question 144
- If the stakeholders want to change a deadline, and this could impact cost or schedule of a project; discuss and align the scope and timelines with the stakeholders to ensure the request and decision have appropriate approval. The changes should be approved by appropriate members and the change control board.
Question 145
- The project manager should conduct a meeting/discussion with the project team to identify and address disagreements.
Question 146
- The project manager should use a hybrid approach as it effectively manages both the need for a quick win, while meeting the concerns of stakeholders who prefer a more traditional planning approach.
Question 147
- To address stakeholders' satisfaction, the project manager should involve the users in feedback requests via questionnaires, and collect their comments about the project delivery.
Question 148
- To identify the impact of a delayed component, the project manager will first review and update the issue log to determine possible alternatives.
Question 149
- The project manager should listen actively, determine the support needed and identify ways to help so the problem can be resolved. Team-building activities are usually a longer-term fix, so shouldn't be a primary solution.
Question 150
- When the team feels quality checks are not necessary, the project manager should develop the quality management plan, to show that quality control, management and processes are as vital, as cost and schedule management, to project successful delivery.
Question 151
- The project manager, to verify satisfaction from users should involve the users via questionnaires or feedback discussions following the communication management plan.
Question 152
- Disagreement over objectives and approach on a project that the project manager has been assigned to should first address the root causes of the disagreement, and then work with each stakeholder, and each entity involved to ensure project objectives and approaches are aligned for success.
Question 153
- Confirming team capabilities and skillsets regarding the adaptive tools that are identified as beneficial in a project gives the project manager the best understanding of whether training is or is not needed.
Question 154
- When the project team believes quality checks are unnecessary, the project manager should still develop the quality management plan, demonstrating that quality is as important as schedule and cost management, in order to mitigate the risks and have successful project outcomes.
Question 155
- The Project Manager should review the project management plan to see if there's a communication management plan included, which would outline the necessary processes and procedures to track and manage project information.
Question 156
- The scope of the project must be reviewed, changes must be tracked, and any impact on schedule, budget or resources, must be discussed formally with the stakeholder.
Question 157
- The project manager should immediately escalate the issue to the product owner to discuss the impact on the project schedule.
Question 158
- The project manager should invite the board member to the next sprint review to understand the project scope's progress, thus ensuring team alignment and showing what's complete, while receiving feedback and updates.
Question 159
- Since only one team member is experiencing an issue, and the rest of the team doesn't appear to be impacted the project manager needs to actively listen, discuss the issues and support that team member to complete their tasks efficiently. So Option to listen to the team member and find better ways to support them is the best solution.
Question 160
- A logical approach would be to start with a pilot project, and train those who are impacted by the change in the organization.
Question 161
- Forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning are stages of team development in the Tuckman model.
Question 162
- A project manager dealing with complaints and perceived micromanagement from senior team members should adjust their management style, for example be more collaborative, flexible; seek advice on better mentoring and team-building events.
Question 163
- An over-emphasis on budgetary information from a product owner may require the project manager's intervention to refocus the product owner on the value delivery aspect of the project.
Question 164
- When the product owner raises concerns about cost throughout project ceremonies, the project manager should clarify the product owner's role, and the scope of the agile ceremonies, including a different cost estimation process.
Question 165
- A crucial first step when a key supplier is in financial distress is to update the issue log.
Question 166
- If an issue is identified with budget, and project schedule is under risk, in a project; the project manager should update the schedule to include the potential delay.
Question 167
- When adding new requirements into a project or project software, the project manager must update the product backlog item with the new requirement, to reflect accurately in the project, and then discuss the potential impact to stakeholders, which is important since the project may have future implications.
Question 168
- The departure of a high-performing team member warrants using a cause-and-effect diagram (also known as an Ishikawa diagram) to identify potential root causes of the drop in quality standards.
Question 169
- When a major deliverable fails acceptance testing, a root cause analysis will expose the root problem or underlying issues.
Question 170
- Customer concerns during the production deployment of a product demand reevaluation of the quality of the deliverable; the project manager should evaluate the quality checklist to ensure alignment with the requirements and expectations.
Question 171
- The project manager should first ensure the communications management plan is being followed correctly, to clarify communication protocols.
Question 172
- The project manager should immediately update the risk tolerance of the company because of the surprise tax-policy change. A risk of a potential budget overrun may have been under-estimated, or not included previously in the risk register.
Question 173
- The project manager should ensure the communications management plan is updated and clearly documented to ensure all stakeholders are kept aware of any significant project implications or potential risks.
Question 174
- The project manager should review the risk management plan to identify and mitigate any risks to the project's outsourced resources during a remote work transition.
Question 175
- The project manager should engage in direct communication with the new representative to understand the concerns over participation in status meetings, address the concerns and resolve any conflict.
Question 176
- When a customer requests a change to an ongoing project during the daily meeting, the project manager should validate the change with the product owner and the development team before accepting it.
Question 177
- A mandatory compliance requirement introduced during the execution phase demands that the project manager escalate this issue to the relevant stakeholders, primarily the product owner in this instance, and determine the project impact to implement appropriate mitigation strategies.
Question 178
- The project manager should invite the board member to the next sprint review to address project scope progress.
Question 179
- If experienced team members lack experience to complete a project, the project manager should provide team members with necessary coaching and mentoring.
Question 180
- Conflicts between team members and the construction manager need the project manager's intervention to address concerns and find solutions, typically beginning with discussions with all stakeholders and team members.
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Description
Test your understanding of key concepts in critical thinking and argumentation. This quiz covers essential characteristics of strong arguments, the importance of audience analysis, and common fallacies in reasoning. Enhance your communication skills and learn how to effectively support claims.