CRISPR-Cas Mechanism

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Questions and Answers

In the context of bacterial defense against viral infections using CRISPR-Cas systems, what is the most critical implication of error-prone DNA repair mechanisms following a Cas9-mediated cleavage event?

  • Introduction of frameshift mutations leading to the synthesis of truncated, non-functional viral proteins. (correct)
  • Enhancement of viral infectivity due to precise insertion of nucleotides that stabilize viral mRNA.
  • Promotion of site-specific methylation patterns on the viral DNA, facilitating epigenetic silencing without altering viral protein products.
  • Stimulation of homologous recombination, enabling precise viral genome repair and immune system evasion.

The sole purpose of a protospacer adjacent motif (PAM) sequence in CRISPR-Cas systems is to provide a binding site for the Cas9 enzyme to initiate DNA unwinding and cleavage, irrespective of the guide RNA (gRNA) sequence.

False (B)

In a gene editing experiment utilizing CRISPR-Cas9, describe a scenario where the intended on-target cleavage occurs efficiently, but the desired gene knockout or knock-in is unsuccessful. Explain the most probable molecular mechanism underlying this outcome.

Efficient on-target cleavage followed by precise non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) repair that restores the original DNA sequence prevents successful gene knockout or knock-in.

During PCR, the annealing temperature is determined by the ______ and length of the primers.

<p>GC content</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following elements/processes in CRISPR-Cas bacterial immunity with their respective functions:

<p>Cas1/Cas2 complex = Integration of protospacers into the CRISPR array pre-CRISPR RNA = Transcript precursor processed into individual crRNAs Tracer RNA = Binds to repeat regions of pre-CRISPR RNA which leads to gRNA sgRNA = Guides Cas9 to the target DNA sequence</p> Signup and view all the answers

Assume a scenario where you are designing a CRISPR-Cas9 system to target a gene essential for bacterial virulence. Post-editing, you observe that while the targeted gene has undergone significant indels, bacterial virulence remains largely unaffected. What is the MOST likely explanation for this phenomenon?

<p>The targeted gene possesses a redundant paralog that compensates for the loss of function resulting from the CRISPR-Cas9 induced mutations. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of gene editing using CRISPR-Cas9, which of the following scenarios would MOST likely lead to mosaicism (i.e., some cells are edited, others are not) in a multicellular organism?

<p>Delayed administration of the CRISPR-Cas9 system during early embryonic development, after the initial cell divisions have occurred. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The efficiency of homology-directed repair (HDR) following CRISPR-Cas9 mediated DNA cleavage is solely dependent on the concentration of the donor DNA template provided, irrespective of the cell cycle stage.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a PCR protocol targeting a specific 25-base pair sequence, suboptimal primer annealing temperatures can lead to various outcomes. Which of the following scenarios is the MOST probable consequence of setting the annealing temperature significantly below the calculated Tm of the primers?

<p>Formation of stable primer dimers due to enhanced non-specific binding. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During gel electrophoresis, the electrophoretic mobility of linear DNA fragments is solely determined by their molecular weight, with conformation and buffer composition having negligible impact.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the implications of employing a restriction endonuclease that recognizes a rare (e.g., 8-base pair) cutting site versus one that recognizes a common (e.g., 4-base pair) cutting site when constructing recombinant plasmids for complex genomic DNA libraries. What considerations must be taken into account?

<p>A rare cutter produces fewer, larger fragments optimal for cloning large genomic regions, but may not cut within desired regions and requires high-quality DNA to ensure complete digestion. A common cutter generates numerous, smaller fragments, ensuring comprehensive coverage but complicating assembly and potentially disrupting genes of interest. Considerations include desired insert size, genome complexity, and the need to maintain integrity of specific genomic elements.</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of recombinant DNA technology, the process of introducing a plasmid into bacterial cells to induce a phenotypic change is termed ______.

<p>transformation</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following enzymatic activities with their primary function in molecular cloning:

<p>Reverse Transcriptase = Synthesizes DNA from an RNA template DNA Ligase = Catalyzes the formation of phosphodiester bonds to join DNA fragments Restriction Endonuclease = Recognizes and cleaves DNA at specific sequences Taq Polymerase = Synthesizes DNA during PCR, thermostable</p> Signup and view all the answers

Consider a scenario where you are tasked with creating a recombinant plasmid to express a eukaryotic protein in E. coli. Despite successful transformation and selection, protein expression is consistently absent. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation, assuming the correct reading frame and promoter are present?

<p>The eukaryotic protein requires post-translational modifications that <em>E. coli</em> cannot provide. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

CRISPR-Cas9-mediated gene editing invariably results in precise gene correction, eliminating the possibility of off-target effects or unintended mutations.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain how the principles of synthetic lethality can be exploited using CRISPR-Cas9 technology to selectively eliminate cancer cells harboring specific oncogenic mutations, while sparing normal cells. Discuss the challenges and potential therapeutic benefits of this approach and what controls would need to be in place.

<p>Synthetic lethality arises when the simultaneous disruption of two genes results in cell death, while disruption of either gene alone is viable. In cancer, an oncogenic mutation can create a dependency on a specific gene for survival. CRISPR-Cas9 can then be used to target this compensatory gene. Selectively eliminating cancer cells with specific oncogenic mutations while sparing normal cells. Challenges include identifying suitable synthetic lethal partners, ensuring specificity to avoid off-target effects, and overcoming resistance mechanisms. Therapeutic benefits include highly targeted cancer therapy with reduced systemic toxicity. Controls would need to be precise delivery, comprehensive off-target analysis, and monitoring of resistance development.</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a CRISPR-Cas9 system targeting a specific gene in E. coli, which of the following scenarios would MOST definitively indicate successful homologous recombination-mediated insertion of a modified gene sequence, assuming a dual-selection strategy using antibiotic resistance markers flanking the target gene?

<p>Growth on media containing both antibiotics, indicating retention of both flanking markers, combined with Sanger sequencing confirmation of the correctly inserted modified gene sequence without off-target mutations. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A virtue-based ethical approach in gene editing necessitates strict adherence to pre-defined rules and regulations, irrespective of potential consequences, to ensure moral action.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define and differentiate between beneficence and non-maleficence in the context of bioethics, specifically concerning CRISPR-based therapeutic interventions.

<p>Beneficence involves maximizing benefits and promoting well-being, while non-maleficence focuses on minimizing harm. In CRISPR therapy, beneficence might involve curing a genetic disease, while non-maleficence includes minimizing off-target effects and potential unintended consequences.</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of recombinant plasmid selection, the absence of an observable trait associated with a gene containing a restriction site indicates the presence of the ______ plasmid.

<p>recombinant</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following ethical concepts with their corresponding definitions within the context of scientific research:

<p>Integrity = Commitment to truthfulness, honesty, and transparency in conducting and reporting research. Justice = Ensuring fairness and equitable distribution of benefits and burdens across all stakeholders. Beneficence = Maximizing benefits to individuals and society while upholding the well-being of others. Respect = Acknowledging and considering the values, beliefs, and autonomy of others.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Consider a scenario where a researcher aims to use CRISPR-Cas9 to correct a specific point mutation in the dystrophin gene (responsible for Duchenne muscular dystrophy) in human induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs). Following successful gene editing, which assay would provide the MOST comprehensive assessment of the iPSCs' therapeutic potential for subsequent differentiation into functional muscle cells?

<p>Western blot analysis demonstrating the presence of full-length dystrophin protein, coupled with immunohistochemistry confirming its proper localization at the sarcolemma in differentiated myotubes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Given the inherent limitations of current CRISPR-Cas systems, which strategy would be MOST effective in minimizing off-target editing events while maintaining high on-target activity in a therapeutic gene editing application?

<p>Designing sgRNAs with low GC content and minimal homology to other regions of the genome, coupled with the use of a high-fidelity Cas9 variant and optimized delivery methods to limit exposure time. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is investigating a novel bacterial strain exhibiting unusually high resistance to multiple antibiotics. Whole-genome sequencing reveals the presence of a novel plasmid carrying several resistance genes, including a previously unknown gene, rezA. Further analysis suggests that rezA encodes a protein that directly modifies the bacterial ribosome. Which biochemical assay would MOST definitively elucidate the mechanism by which RezA confers antibiotic resistance?

<p>Conducting an in vitro translation assay using purified ribosomes from both wild-type and <em>rezA</em>-expressing strains, in the presence and absence of different antibiotics, to assess the direct impact of RezA on antibiotic binding and translation rates. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

PAM (Protospacer Adjacent Motif)

A DNA sequence (NGG) recognized by Cas1 & Cas2, essential for CRISPR function.

Protospacer

A 20-base DNA sequence upstream of the PAM, targeted by Cas proteins for cutting.

Pre-CRISPR RNA

RNA transcribed from the CRISPR array, processed into gRNA.

Tracer RNA

Combines with pre-CRISPR RNA, and is then processed into gRNA, guiding Cas9.

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gRNA (guide RNA)

Guide RNA; a complex of crRNA and tracrRNA, directs Cas9 to target DNA.

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Cas9

An enzyme that uses gRNA to cut DNA at a specific location.

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sgRNA (synthetic guide RNA)

A lab-made RNA that guides Cas9 to a specific DNA sequence for gene editing.

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Purpose of PCR

To create many copies of a specific DNA segment.

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Transformation (in bacteria)

The process where bacteria take up plasmids from their environment, becoming 'transformed'.

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Identifying Transformed Bacteria

A method to identify bacteria that have taken up recombinant plasmids (plasmids with a new gene).

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Consequence-Based Ethics

An ethical approach focused on achieving the greatest good for the greatest number of people.

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Duty/Rule-Based Ethics

An ethical approach focused on adhering to a set of rules, regardless of the consequences.

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Virtues-Based Ethics

An ethical approach focused on the moral character of the individual.

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Integrity (Ethical Concept)

Acting truthfully and honestly when conducting research and presenting findings.

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mRNA (messenger RNA)

Carries genetic information from DNA to ribosomes for protein synthesis.

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rRNA (ribosomal RNA)

Forms part of the ribosome structure, the site of protein synthesis.

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DNA Primers

Short, single-stranded DNA sequences, complementary to a target region, used to initiate DNA synthesis during PCR.

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DNA Denaturation

Heating DNA to 95°C to break hydrogen bonds, separating it into single strands for PCR.

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Primer Annealing

Cooling the reaction to around 50°C, allowing primers to bind to their complementary sequences on the single-stranded DNA.

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Taq Polymerase

An enzyme that adds complementary base pairs to a DNA strand in PCR. Optimal temperature is 72°C.

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Gel Electrophoresis

A technique using electricity to separate DNA fragments by size through a gel matrix.

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Endonucleases (Restriction Enzymes)

Enzymes that cut DNA at specific recognition sequences called restriction sites.

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Sticky Ends

Short, overhanging single-stranded DNA sequences created by restriction enzyme digestion, facilitating the joining of DNA fragments.

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DNA Ligase

Joins DNA fragments together by forming phosphodiester bonds.

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Study Notes

  • Cas1 and Cas2 search DNA for the sequence NGG, known as a PAM.
  • Cas1 and Cas2 cut a 20 base pair piece of DNA upstream of the PAM, this piece is called a protospacer.
  • Cas1 and Cas2 insert the protospacer into the CRISPR array at the 5' end.
  • RNA polymerase transcribes the CRISPR array into pre-CRISPR RNA.
  • Tracer RNA binds to the repeat regions of the pre-CRISPR RNA.
  • RNAase cuts the repeat region and the tracer RNA, forming gRNA.
  • Cas9 picks up the gRNA, forming a CRISPR-Cas complex.
  • gRNA guides Cas9 to the correct location on the DNA.

Defense Mechanism

  • If a cell is reinfected, Cas9 searches for a PAM.
  • Upon finding a PAM sequence, Cas9 unwinds the DNA and compares it to the bases upstream of the PAM with its gRNA.
  • If the sequences are complementary, it cuts the viral DNA 4 bases upstream of the PAM within the protospacer region.
  • Enzymes within the bacterium repair the cut viral DNA.
  • Repair mechanisms can introduce errors like nucleotide additions, deletions, or insertions in the middle of the viral gene.
  • These mutations often render viral genes non-functional, which is beneficial in bacteriophage infiltration.
  • If no mutation occurs after the cut, the gRNA repeats the process until DNA repair mechanisms induce a mutation, inactivating the virus.

Gene Editing Process

  • Synthetic sgRNA with a complementary spacer is created in a lab to target DNA.
  • A Cas9 enzyme with an appropriate target PAM sequence is obtained.
  • Cas9 and sgRNA are mixed, creating the CRISPR-Cas9 complex.
  • The sgRNA-Cas9 mixture is injected into a specific cell, such as a zygote.
  • Cas9 identifies the target PAM sequence and verifies the alignment of sgRNA with the DNA.
  • Cas9 cuts the selected DNA sequence, creating a blunt end cut.
  • The cell attempts to repair the blunt end cut; new nucleotides may be introduced at this site.
  • Scientists may inject specific nucleotide sequences into the cell to ligate into the gap.

PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)

  • The purpose of PCR is to amplify DNA.
  • Step 1: Identify the DNA region of interest to be amplified.
  • Step 2: Identify a 25 base sequence at the 3' end of each strand that flanks the region of interest.
  • DNA primers, complementary to the 25 base sequences, are synthesized.

PCR Machine Temperature Steps

  • 95 Degrees Celsius: DNA is denatured, breaking hydrogen bonds between complementary nucleobases and creating single strands.
  • 50 Degrees Celsius: Short primers quickly anneal to the region of interest before the two DNA strands can re-anneal.
  • 72 Degrees Celsius: Taq polymerase attaches to both primers, adding complementary base pairs to create a complementary DNA strand, Taq polymerase optimal temperature, extends from 5' to 3' direction.
  • This amplification process is repeated 25-30 times to produce many copies of the DNA region of interest.

Gel Electrophoresis

  • Agarose is melted and poured onto a tray to create wells at one end of the gel.
  • As the gel sets, it forms a porous structure that allows DNA to move through it.
  • The gel tray is placed in an electrophoresis chamber with a buffer solution.
  • The buffer allows for the conduction of electricity.
  • The gel is placed in an electrophoresis chamber and covered with buffer.
  • Connect a negative electrode to the side with the DNA samples (wells) and a positive electrode on the opposite side.
  • The gel needs to be stained to make the DNA visible.
  • Smaller DNA fragments migrate faster and further away from the negative electrode.
  • Larger DNA fragments migrate slower and remain closer to the wells.

Recombination

  • Recombination joins DNA from different sources.

Transformation

  • Transformation changes bacteria by introducing a plasmid.

How to Make Recombinant Plasmids

  • Endonuclease enzymes cut DNA at specific restriction sites.
  • Every restriction enzyme recognizes a specific restriction site and typically involves a 6 base palindrome sequence that requires sticky ends.
  • Step 1: Choose an endonuclease to cut both upstream and downstream of the gene, resulting in sticky ends.
  • Step 2: The plasmid should have two genes that encode for easily observable traits and must contain the same restriction site that the endonuclease uses.
  • Step 3: Using Restriction Endonuclease: Create cDNA to remove introns from DNA using reverse transcriptase to convert mRNA into DNA.
  • Both the plasmid and the human gene (from cDNA) are cut, creating complementary sticky ends that are likely to join.
  • DNA ligase creates a sugar-phosphate bond along the DNA backbone if joined.
  • Only some plasmids incorporate the human gene.
  • Step 4: Mix both recombinant and normal plasmids with bacteria; bacteria naturally uptake plasmids.
  • Bacteria that uptake a plasmid are now transformed bacteria.
  • Step 5: Culture bacteria on an agar plate that expresses the observable trait without the restriction site.
  • Bacteria that don't express the trait do not contain a plasmid.
  • Transfer the remaining bacteria to another agar plate with an environment that encodes for the second observable gene with a restriction site.
  • Bacteria that don't express this second trait have the recombinant plasmid.
  • These bacteria now have the recombinant plasmid.
  • Culture the selected bacteria in a fresh agar plate.

Bioethics Approaches

  • Consequence-Based: Aims to maximize positive outcomes and minimize negative effects by considering the consequences. Focus is on achieving the greatest good for the greatest number of shareholders.
  • Duty/Rule-Based: Focuses on acting in accordance with a set of rules and responsibilities, with less regard for the consequences. Driven by a fundamental duty to act in a certain way.
  • Virtues-Based: Driven by the character of the person instead of rules and consequences; emphasizes the moral nature of the individual. Provides guidance to behave in the the way a morally good person would hope to.

Ethical Concepts

  • Integrity: Commitment to knowledge by encouraging individuals to act truthfully and honestly when finding and presenting results.
  • Justice: Commitment to fairness, involving consideration of different people's opinions and positions, especially those directly affected or marginalized.
  • Beneficence: Commitment to maximizing benefits, acting in a way that benefits others, promotes personal well-being, and the good of other persons."
  • Minimizing harm as much as possible, acting in a way to remove as much harm as possible.
  • Respect: Commitment to consideration and considering the values of others, including personal welfare, beliefs, and freedom by prioritizing the the freedom of others to make their own decisions.

RNA Types

  • mRNA (messenger RNA): Carries genetic information from DNA in the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm and acts as the blueprint for protein synthesis.
  • rRNA (ribosomal RNA): Makes up the structure of ribosomes, where proteins are synthesized, helps bind mRNA and tRNA together during protein synthesis, and catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids.
  • tRNA (transfer RNA): Brings amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis. Also has an anticodon that matches to the codons on mRNA, helping match the correct amino acids to the growing protein chain.

Universal Triplet Code

  • Universal triplet code is the genetic code is consists of sequences of three nucleotides, called codons, on the mRNA that specifies a particular amino acid or a stop signal during protein synthesis.
  • The genetic code is the same in almost all living organisms.
  • The code is degenerate because multiple codons can code for the same amino acid and helps protect against mutations.

Protein Structure

  • Primary Structure: the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.
  • The order of amino acids is determined by the gene encoding the protein
  • Peptide bonds hold the structure together
  • Secondary Structure: chain folds into alpha-helices and beta-pleated sheets by hydrogen bonds of backbone structures
  • Tertiary Structure: 3D shape of a protein through interactions between the side chains, including hydrophobic interactions, ionic bonds, hydrogen bonds, and disulphide bridges and determines the protein's specific function.
  • Quaternary Structure: some proteins made up of more than one polypeptide chain, and the structure refers to the arrangement of these chains to create a functional protein complex.

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