Chemotaxis and Quorum Sensing in Bacteria
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What is the primary role of methyl-accepting chemotaxis proteins (MCPs) in chemotaxis?

  • To phosphorylate CheY, initiating the tumbling response.
  • To regulate the gene transcription of attractants and repellents.
  • To directly control flagellar rotation.
  • To monitor the concentration of various substances over time. (correct)

When an attractant binds to MCPs, the rate of CheA autophosphorylation increases, leading to increased CheY phosphorylation and clockwise flagellar rotation.

False (B)

How does the concentration of a repellent affect CheA activity and subsequent flagellar rotation?

increased rate of CheA autophosphorylation, clockwise rotation

During adaptation, CheB becomes ______ and demethylates the MCPs.

<p>phosphorylated</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the molecule with resultant action:

<p>Attractant = inhibit CheA phosphorylation Repellent = increase CheA autophosphorylation Phosphorylated CheY = clockwise rotation Phosphorylated CheB = demethylates MCPs</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the two molecules to which CheA-P donates a phosphate group?

<p>CheY and CheB (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

CheZ phosphorylates CheY, leading to tumbles in bacterial movement.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of quorum sensing in bacteria?

<p>monitor population density and control gene expression based on density</p> Signup and view all the answers

Quorum sensing is active only when bacterial cell ______ is high.

<p>density</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of molecule do Gram-positive bacteria and archaea commonly use as autoinducer molecules?

<p>Peptides (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Autoinducers function at low concentrations to initiate quorum sensing.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Quorum sensing was initially discovered through studying what mechanism in Aliivibrio fischeri?

<p>Light emission (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Aliivibrio fischeri, what enzyme is responsible for synthesizing AHL (Acyl-homoserine lactones)?

<p>AHL synthase</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a two-component regulatory system, what enzymatic activity is associated with the sensor kinase?

<p>Autophosphorylation, adding a phosphate group to itself. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Feedback loops in two-component regulatory systems always involve a kinase that rapidly adds phosphate groups to the response regulator.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the EnvZ/OmpR system in E. coli, how does the system respond to low osmotic pressure?

<p>activates transcription of the ompF gene</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the E. coli Ntr system, NRII can switch between kinase and __________ activity depending on the nitrogen status of the cell.

<p>phosphatase</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the phosphorylated response regulator (NRI-P) activate transcription of nitrogen assimilation genes in E. coli?

<p>By oligomerizing and looping the DNA to interact with RNA polymerase and sigma factor. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of a phosphatase in the context of two-component regulatory systems?

<p>To remove phosphate from the response regulator, effectively turning off the response. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Bacterial chemotaxis utilizes a completely separate signaling system from two-component systems.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the component of the Two-Component Regulatory System with its function:

<p>Sensor Kinase = Detects environmental changes and initiates the signaling cascade through autophosphorylation. Response Regulator = Receives the phosphate group from the sensor kinase and, upon phosphorylation, regulates gene expression. Phosphatase = Removes the phosphate group from the phosphorylated response regulator.</p> Signup and view all the answers

During transformation, what is the role of competence proteins?

<p>Protecting single-stranded DNA from degradation until RecA binds (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In transformation, any DNA that enters the recipient cell will always be successfully integrated into the chromosome.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Briefly describe the first key step in the general mechanism of transformation.

<p>DNA-binding protein binds to free DNA; nucleases degrade one strand.</p> Signup and view all the answers

In transformation, single-stranded DNA is protected by competence proteins until the protein _____ binds to the complex.

<p>RecA</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following genetic transfer processes involves a bacteriophage?

<p>Transduction (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Transformation involves direct cell-to-cell contact for DNA transfer.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During generalized transduction, what is the source of DNA that gets mistakenly packaged into a viral particle?

<p>Virtually any portion of the host genome. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following steps with their descriptions in the process of transformation:

<p>DNA Binding = Free DNA attaches to a DNA-binding protein on the cell surface. DNA Degradation = Nucleases degrade one strand of the bound DNA, allowing the other to enter the cell. Protection of ssDNA = Competence proteins protect the single-stranded DNA from degradation. Integration = RecA facilitates the integration of the single-stranded DNA into the recipient genome.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the likely fate of single-stranded DNA that enters a recipient cell during transformation if it lacks homology to the host chromosome?

<p>It is degraded by cellular nucleases. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Specialized transduction involves the transfer of any random portion of the host genome.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In lysogeny, the phage genome integrates into the bacterial chromosome at a ______ site.

<p>specific</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary requirement for horizontal gene transfer via conjugation?

<p>Direct cell-to-cell contact. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What region on a conjugative plasmid contains the genes necessary for the transfer process, such as pilus formation?

<p>tra region</p> Signup and view all the answers

During conjugation, both strands of the plasmid DNA are transferred simultaneously to the recipient cell.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mechanism is employed by some plasmids and viruses to replicate their genome during conjugation?

<p>Rolling circle replication. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match each term with its correct description regarding horizontal gene transfer:

<p>Generalized Transduction = Transfer of DNA from any part of the host genome. Specialized Transduction = Transfer of specific DNA regions adjacent to a viral integration site. Conjugation = DNA transfer requiring cell-to-cell contact. Lysogeny = Integration of phage genome into the bacterial chromosome.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the function of alarmones like ppGpp and pppGpp in bacteria?

<p>They trigger the stringent response to help bacteria survive nutrient deprivation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Catabolite repression ensures that bacteria preferentially utilize alternative carbon sources even when glucose is abundant.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of the RpoS regulon in bacteria under stress?

<p>It controls the expression of genes associated with stress resistance and adaptation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

In E. coli, the presence of both glucose and lactose leads to a phenomenon known as _______ growth, where glucose is utilized first.

<p>diauxic</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match each molecule with its role in bacterial regulation:

<p>AI-3 = A signal molecule produced by E. coli O157 Epinephrine = A stress hormone produced by host intestinal cells cAMP = A regulatory nucleotide involved in catabolite repression ppGpp = An alarmone produced during nutrient depravation</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the direct consequence of epinephrine and norepinephrine production by host intestinal cells during bacterial infection with E. coli O157?

<p>Phosphorylation and activation of bacterial transcriptional activator proteins. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The RelA protein is primarily responsible for degrading ppGpp during the stringent response.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does cyclic AMP (cAMP) participate in catabolite repression?

<p>It binds to and activates the cyclic AMP receptor protein (CRP), which then affects gene expression. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Two-Component Regulatory Systems

A system with a sensor kinase and a response regulator for signaling.

Sensor Kinase

A protein that detects environmental changes and autophosphorylates.

Response Regulator

A protein that receives the phosphate from the sensor and regulates gene expression.

Feedback Loop

A mechanism that resets the system using phosphatase to remove phosphate.

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Osmotic Sensing in E. coli

System in E. coli that adjusts gene expression based on osmotic pressure.

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Ntr System

A nitrogen regulation system in E. coli that adjusts from kinase to phosphatase based on ammonia levels.

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Chemotaxis

The movement of bacteria in response to chemical stimuli.

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Transcription Activation

The process by which a regulator protein binds DNA to promote gene expression.

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AI-3

A signal molecule produced by E. coli that interacts with host cells.

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Epinephrine and Norepinephrine

Stress hormones produced by host intestinal cells that affect E. coli behavior.

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Catabolite Repression

Suppression of alternative pathways by a preferred carbon source in bacteria.

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Diauxic Growth

Growth pattern of bacteria with two phases depending on sugar availability.

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Cyclic AMP (cAMP)

A regulatory nucleotide involved in catabolite repression processes.

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Stringent Response

A mechanism allowing bacteria to survive under nutrient stress by regulating gene expression.

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Alarmones (ppGpp & pppGpp)

Molecules triggering stringent response and synthesis of uncharged tRNAs in bacteria.

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Viral Infection Types

Specialized and generalized transduction involving viral DNA integration with host DNA.

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Generalized Transduction

Accidental packaging of host DNA into a bacteriophage during lytic infection.

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Lysogeny

Integration of phage genome into bacterial chromosome at a specific site.

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Specialized Transduction

A rare event where specific host DNA is integrated into the virus genome.

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Conjugation

A horizontal gene transfer method requiring direct cell-to-cell contact.

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Conjugative Plasmids

Plasmids that contain genes allowing for conjugation between bacteria.

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Rolling Circle Replication

A mechanism used by certain plasmids and viruses to replicate their genome.

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Tra Region

Contains genes necessary for conjugative transfer in plasmids.

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Transformation

A genetic transfer process where free DNA is incorporated into a recipient cell, causing genetic change.

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Competence Proteins

Proteins that protect single-stranded DNA during transformation until they bind with RecA.

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General Mechanism of Transformation

Involves binding DNA, degrading one strand, and protecting the remaining strand with proteins.

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Integration

Process where transformed DNA incorporates into the recipient's genome.

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Transduction

A process where a bacteriophage transfers DNA from one bacterium to another.

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Bacteriophage

A virus that infects bacteria and can transfer genetic material.

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DNA Uptake Proteins

Proteins that aid the incorporation of free DNA into a recipient cell.

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Nucleases

Enzymes that degrade DNA strands during transformation to facilitate genetic transfer.

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CheA-P

A phosphotransferase that donates phosphate to CheY and CheB in bacterial signaling.

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CheY

A response regulator in bacteria that, when phosphorylated by CheA-P, induces tumbles in movement.

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CheB

A response regulator that is also phosphorylated by CheA-P, involved in adaptation during chemotaxis.

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CheZ

An enzyme that dephosphorylates CheY, converting it back to a form that allows runs instead of tumbles.

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Quorum Sensing

A regulatory system that bacteria use to monitor population density and control gene expression accordingly.

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Autoinducer Molecules

Small signal molecules used in quorum sensing to facilitate cell-to-cell communication in bacteria.

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AHL (N-acyl homoserine lactone)

A family of autoinducers used by many Gram-negative bacteria for quorum sensing.

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Bioluminescence Regulation

The mechanism by which light emission in certain bacteria, such as Aliivibrio fischeri, is controlled through quorum sensing.

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Methyl-accepting chemotaxis proteins (MCPs)

Sensory proteins that help cells monitor attractants and repellents over time.

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Counterclockwise (CCW) rotation

Flagellar movement that occurs towards an attractant when CheA is inactive.

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CheB phosphorylation

A process that demethylates MCPs to adapt to changes in attractants or repellents.

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Study Notes

Microbial Genetics II

  • Topic 1: Sensing and Signal Transduction
    • Two-Component Regulatory Systems are a type of regulatory system composed of two proteins, a sensor kinase and a response regulator.
    • Regulation of Chemotaxis is a process that bacteria use to move in response to chemical gradients.
    • Cell-to-Cell Signaling involves communication between bacteria using small signaling molecules.

Topic 2: Global Control

  • Stringent and General Stress Responses are bacterial responses to environmental stress.
  • The lac Operon involves the regulation of genes involved in lactose metabolism.
  • The Phosphate (Pho) Regulon is a regulatory system involved in phosphate uptake and metabolism in bacteria.

Topic 3: Gene Transfer in Bacteria

  • Genetic Recombination is a process that results in the rearrangement of genetic material in a cell.

  • Transformation describes the uptake of free DNA from the environment by a cell.

  • Transduction is when a virus transfers DNA from one bacterial cell to another.

  • Conjugation is a form of horizontal gene transfer that involves cell-to-cell contact and the transfer of genetic material.

  • Preserving Genomic Integrity and CRISPR - A system used by bacteria to defend against viruses.

  • Osmotic sensing by the EnvZ/OmpR in E. coli are bacterial sensing processes that involves the adjustment of cell membranes in relation to osmotic pressure.

  • Nitrogen metabolism by the Ntr system in E. coli is a process in which bacteria sense and metabolize nitrogen.

  • Regulation of chemotaxis is a process in which bacteria move in response to attractants or repellents.

  • Regulation of the Shiga toxin by E. coli - Regulation of bacterial toxins.

  • Regulation of virulence Staphylococcus aureus - How bacteria cause disease.

  • Global control - Overview of systems that regulate gene expression in response to different signals.

  • Catabolite repression - Suppression of alternative metabolic pathways by a preferred carbon source, like glucose preferentially over lactose.

  • Cyclic AMP - A regulatory nucleotide that participates in catabolite repression. The lac Operon involves regulation of genes involved in lactose metabolism.

  • Stringent response - Mechanism used by bacteria to survive nutrient deprivation conditions. This response involves specialized sensing and regulatory molecules.

  • The General Stress Response: The RpoS Regulon is a regulon (a group of genes whose expression is regulated together) in response to general stress, including cold shock, oxidative stress, and high cell density.

  • The Phosphate (Pho) Regulon - Regulation of phosphate uptake and use in bacteria.

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Description

Explore chemotaxis in bacteria with a focus on MCPs, CheA, CheY, and flagellar rotation. Learn about adaptation mechanisms involving CheB and the role of attractants and repellents. Understand quorum sensing, autoinducers, and their impact on bacterial behavior.

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