Podcast
Questions and Answers
Which of the following signs or symptoms is commonly associated with right-sided hear failure?
Which of the following signs or symptoms is commonly associated with right-sided hear failure?
- Wheezing and prolonged exhalation
- Severe chest pain radiating to the left arm
- Sudden, sharp pain during inhalation
- Ankle swelling (peripheral oedema) (correct)
A patient reports feeling faint. Which of the following cardiovascular issues could be the cause?
A patient reports feeling faint. Which of the following cardiovascular issues could be the cause?
- Hypertension
- Increased blood volume
- Bradycardia
- Arrhythmia (correct)
What causes the additional heart sound known as a murmur?
What causes the additional heart sound known as a murmur?
- Turbulent blood flow within the heart (correct)
- Laminar blood flow through arterial vessels
- Arterial vasoconstriction
- Normal closing of the heart valves
In a patient with suspected heart failure, which physical sign indicates elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP)?
In a patient with suspected heart failure, which physical sign indicates elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP)?
Besides atherosclerosis, what other pathological process contributes to ischaemic heart disease?
Besides atherosclerosis, what other pathological process contributes to ischaemic heart disease?
A patient experiencing acute coronary syndrome (ACS) typically does NOT respond to which medication?
A patient experiencing acute coronary syndrome (ACS) typically does NOT respond to which medication?
What is the physiological rationale for using beta-blockers in the long-term management of Angina Pectoris?
What is the physiological rationale for using beta-blockers in the long-term management of Angina Pectoris?
Which of the following is NOT typically used in the initial diagnosis of Atrial Fibrillation (AF)?
Which of the following is NOT typically used in the initial diagnosis of Atrial Fibrillation (AF)?
A patient with Atrial Fibrillation has a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 3. Which of the following factors could contribute to this score?
A patient with Atrial Fibrillation has a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 3. Which of the following factors could contribute to this score?
Which medication strategy primarily focuses on controlling the ventricular rate in a patient with Atrial Fibrillation?
Which medication strategy primarily focuses on controlling the ventricular rate in a patient with Atrial Fibrillation?
What is the primary reason Atrial Fibrillation significantly increases the risk of stroke?
What is the primary reason Atrial Fibrillation significantly increases the risk of stroke?
A patient with AF is deemed unsuitable for long-term anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following interventions would be MOST appropriate to reduce their risk of thromboembolic events?
A patient with AF is deemed unsuitable for long-term anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following interventions would be MOST appropriate to reduce their risk of thromboembolic events?
What is the primary underlying cause of a myocardial infarction (MI)?
What is the primary underlying cause of a myocardial infarction (MI)?
Which factor is least likely to predispose an individual to angina or atherosclerosis?
Which factor is least likely to predispose an individual to angina or atherosclerosis?
Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for angina?
Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for angina?
Why is general anesthesia (GA) typically avoided in patients with a history of myocardial infarction (MI)?
Why is general anesthesia (GA) typically avoided in patients with a history of myocardial infarction (MI)?
What immediate action should be taken if a patient experiences chest pain that is not relieved by two sublingual administrations of GTN (glyceryl trinitrate) within 3 minutes?
What immediate action should be taken if a patient experiences chest pain that is not relieved by two sublingual administrations of GTN (glyceryl trinitrate) within 3 minutes?
Following a myocardial infarction (MI), what is the significance of the residual deficit?
Following a myocardial infarction (MI), what is the significance of the residual deficit?
A patient who experienced a myocardial infarction (MI) 5 months ago requires elective dental treatment. According to established guidelines, what is the appropriate ASA (American Society of Anesthesiologists) classification for this patient?
A patient who experienced a myocardial infarction (MI) 5 months ago requires elective dental treatment. According to established guidelines, what is the appropriate ASA (American Society of Anesthesiologists) classification for this patient?
Macrolide antibiotics such as erythromycin and clarithromycin should be used with caution in patients taking statins because of what potential interaction?
Macrolide antibiotics such as erythromycin and clarithromycin should be used with caution in patients taking statins because of what potential interaction?
What is the primary reason ECG is such an important test and should be conducted within 10 minutes of a patient being admitted to the hospital with a suspected MI?
What is the primary reason ECG is such an important test and should be conducted within 10 minutes of a patient being admitted to the hospital with a suspected MI?
Which condition is characterized by a blockage of blood supply specifically to the brain?
Which condition is characterized by a blockage of blood supply specifically to the brain?
The acronym 'FAST' is used as a rapid assessment tool for which medical emergency?
The acronym 'FAST' is used as a rapid assessment tool for which medical emergency?
In the context of thromboembolism, which term describes a blockage occurring within an artery?
In the context of thromboembolism, which term describes a blockage occurring within an artery?
A pulmonary embolism directly compromises the function of which organ?
A pulmonary embolism directly compromises the function of which organ?
What is the primary anatomical location of a Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?
What is the primary anatomical location of a Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?
Which of the following best describes the relationship between Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) and Pulmonary Embolism (PE)?
Which of the following best describes the relationship between Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) and Pulmonary Embolism (PE)?
Which dental consideration is specifically mentioned for patients with a history of Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?
Which dental consideration is specifically mentioned for patients with a history of Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?
What is the underlying pathological process described as causing a stroke in the provided text?
What is the underlying pathological process described as causing a stroke in the provided text?
A patient presents with sudden onset breathlessness and chest pain. Considering thromboembolic conditions, which of the following is the most likely immediate concern?
A patient presents with sudden onset breathlessness and chest pain. Considering thromboembolic conditions, which of the following is the most likely immediate concern?
Why are Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) mentioned as a dental consideration for patients with DVT history?
Why are Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) mentioned as a dental consideration for patients with DVT history?
What is the primary action to take based on the 'TIME' component of the stroke recognition mnemonic?
What is the primary action to take based on the 'TIME' component of the stroke recognition mnemonic?
Which of the following is the most prevalent type of stroke?
Which of the following is the most prevalent type of stroke?
A patient experiencing slurred speech and unilateral arm weakness is suspected of having a stroke. Why is a CT scan preferred over an MRI scan as the initial diagnostic tool?
A patient experiencing slurred speech and unilateral arm weakness is suspected of having a stroke. Why is a CT scan preferred over an MRI scan as the initial diagnostic tool?
Which of the following best describes a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)?
Which of the following best describes a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)?
Which modifiable risk factor contributes to the highest attributable risk for stroke?
Which modifiable risk factor contributes to the highest attributable risk for stroke?
Why is oxygen administered at 15 liters per minute (L/min) in the initial management of a suspected stroke?
Why is oxygen administered at 15 liters per minute (L/min) in the initial management of a suspected stroke?
Which of the following cardiac arrhythmias is most closely associated with an increased risk of embolic stroke?
Which of the following cardiac arrhythmias is most closely associated with an increased risk of embolic stroke?
A patient with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation presents with sudden onset of right-sided hemiparesis and aphasia. After initial stabilization, which diagnostic imaging modality should be prioritized and why?
A patient with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation presents with sudden onset of right-sided hemiparesis and aphasia. After initial stabilization, which diagnostic imaging modality should be prioritized and why?
Which of the following statements best describes the interplay between stroke risk factors and the underlying pathophysiology of stroke?
Which of the following statements best describes the interplay between stroke risk factors and the underlying pathophysiology of stroke?
Consider a patient presenting with acute stroke symptoms who is also taking an anticoagulant medication for a pre-existing condition. Which of the following represents the MOST critical and immediate consideration when interpreting the initial CT scan results?
Consider a patient presenting with acute stroke symptoms who is also taking an anticoagulant medication for a pre-existing condition. Which of the following represents the MOST critical and immediate consideration when interpreting the initial CT scan results?
Which condition involves inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart?
Which condition involves inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart?
What is the underlying cause of angina?
What is the underlying cause of angina?
Complete blockage of a coronary artery directly results in which of the following conditions?
Complete blockage of a coronary artery directly results in which of the following conditions?
Which heart rhythm abnormality is characterized by completely disorganized electrical activity in the ventricles, leading to cardiac arrest?
Which heart rhythm abnormality is characterized by completely disorganized electrical activity in the ventricles, leading to cardiac arrest?
Besides disturbances in heart rhythm, which condition is also a type of arrhythmia?
Besides disturbances in heart rhythm, which condition is also a type of arrhythmia?
A patient presents with a heart rate of 160 bpm originating from the lower heart chambers. What condition is most likely indicated?
A patient presents with a heart rate of 160 bpm originating from the lower heart chambers. What condition is most likely indicated?
Which of the following conditions is most likely to arise as a sequelae to untreated streptococcal infection?
Which of the following conditions is most likely to arise as a sequelae to untreated streptococcal infection?
Consider a patient with a history of rheumatic fever and progressive shortness of breath. Echocardiography reveals thickening and impaired function of the mitral valve. Which of the following cardiac conditions is the most likely underlying cause of the patient’s current presentation?
Consider a patient with a history of rheumatic fever and progressive shortness of breath. Echocardiography reveals thickening and impaired function of the mitral valve. Which of the following cardiac conditions is the most likely underlying cause of the patient’s current presentation?
Which of the following best describes the underlying cause of angina?
Which of the following best describes the underlying cause of angina?
What is the most immediate danger associated with ventricular fibrillation?
What is the most immediate danger associated with ventricular fibrillation?
Which of the following mechanisms is most closely associated with valvular heart disease?
Which of the following mechanisms is most closely associated with valvular heart disease?
What is the primary pathological mechanism behind myocardial infarction (MI)?
What is the primary pathological mechanism behind myocardial infarction (MI)?
Which condition is an umbrella term encompassing both unstable angina and myocardial infarction?
Which condition is an umbrella term encompassing both unstable angina and myocardial infarction?
What is the primary characteristic of Atrial Fibrillation (AF)?
What is the primary characteristic of Atrial Fibrillation (AF)?
Which of the following best describes the sequence of events in rheumatic fever that leads to cardiac complications?
Which of the following best describes the sequence of events in rheumatic fever that leads to cardiac complications?
In the context of cardiac electrophysiology, what distinguishes Ventricular Tachycardia (VT) from Ventricular Fibrillation (VF)?
In the context of cardiac electrophysiology, what distinguishes Ventricular Tachycardia (VT) from Ventricular Fibrillation (VF)?
Which of the following is an example of an abnormality that falls under the category of 'Arrhythmias'?
Which of the following is an example of an abnormality that falls under the category of 'Arrhythmias'?
If a patient presents with a heart rate exceeding 100 bpm due to anxiety before a dental procedure, and the ECG shows a regular rhythm originating from the sinoatrial node, how should this condition be classified?
If a patient presents with a heart rate exceeding 100 bpm due to anxiety before a dental procedure, and the ECG shows a regular rhythm originating from the sinoatrial node, how should this condition be classified?
A patient with known Ischaemic Heart Disease (IHD) presents with worsening chest pain. What is the most important IMMEDIATE next step in their management?
A patient with known Ischaemic Heart Disease (IHD) presents with worsening chest pain. What is the most important IMMEDIATE next step in their management?
Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which statins reduce the risk of cardiovascular events in patients with Ischaemic Heart Disease (IHD)?
Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which statins reduce the risk of cardiovascular events in patients with Ischaemic Heart Disease (IHD)?
Which of the following findings on an ECG would be MOST indicative of sinus tachycardia?
Which of the following findings on an ECG would be MOST indicative of sinus tachycardia?
A patient experiences chest pain radiating to the left arm during exercise, relieved by rest. An ECG is normal. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A patient experiences chest pain radiating to the left arm during exercise, relieved by rest. An ECG is normal. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
What is the primary reason that aspirin is commonly prescribed for individuals diagnosed with Ischaemic Heart Disease (IHD)?
What is the primary reason that aspirin is commonly prescribed for individuals diagnosed with Ischaemic Heart Disease (IHD)?
A patient with a history of anxiety presents with sinus tachycardia. What is the MOST appropriate initial step in managing this patient?
A patient with a history of anxiety presents with sinus tachycardia. What is the MOST appropriate initial step in managing this patient?
A patient is diagnosed with Atrial Fibrillation. What is the MOST critical long-term management strategy to mitigate a significant risk associated with this arrhythmia?
A patient is diagnosed with Atrial Fibrillation. What is the MOST critical long-term management strategy to mitigate a significant risk associated with this arrhythmia?
Which statement offers the most accurate comparison between stable and unstable angina?
Which statement offers the most accurate comparison between stable and unstable angina?
While examining a patient, you note an irregularly irregular pulse. Which of the following arrhythmias is MOST likely?
While examining a patient, you note an irregularly irregular pulse. Which of the following arrhythmias is MOST likely?
A patient with a history of angina is about to undergo a dental procedure. Which modification to their dental management is MOST appropriate?
A patient with a history of angina is about to undergo a dental procedure. Which modification to their dental management is MOST appropriate?
A patient being treated for angina reports experiencing headaches after taking sublingual glyceryl trinitrate (GTN). What is the likely cause of this side effect?
A patient being treated for angina reports experiencing headaches after taking sublingual glyceryl trinitrate (GTN). What is the likely cause of this side effect?
A patient with known heart disease develops sustained ventricular tachycardia. Which of the following is the MOST concerning potential consequence of this arrhythmia?
A patient with known heart disease develops sustained ventricular tachycardia. Which of the following is the MOST concerning potential consequence of this arrhythmia?
A patient in the intensive care unit develops ventricular tachycardia. Initial measures to stabilize the patient have been taken. Which medication is MOST likely to be administered intravenously as the first-line treatment for stable VT?
A patient in the intensive care unit develops ventricular tachycardia. Initial measures to stabilize the patient have been taken. Which medication is MOST likely to be administered intravenously as the first-line treatment for stable VT?
What is the primary mechanism of action of beta-blockers in the long-term management of angina?
What is the primary mechanism of action of beta-blockers in the long-term management of angina?
A patient is found unresponsive and pulseless. The ECG shows a chaotic rhythm with no discernible QRS complexes. Which arrhythmia is MOST likely present?
A patient is found unresponsive and pulseless. The ECG shows a chaotic rhythm with no discernible QRS complexes. Which arrhythmia is MOST likely present?
During resuscitation of a patient in ventricular fibrillation, defibrillation is performed without success. What is the NEXT MOST appropriate step in advanced cardiac life support?
During resuscitation of a patient in ventricular fibrillation, defibrillation is performed without success. What is the NEXT MOST appropriate step in advanced cardiac life support?
A patient experiences sudden cardiac arrest and is found to be in ventricular fibrillation. Which electrolyte imbalance is MOST likely to contribute to this arrhythmia?
A patient experiences sudden cardiac arrest and is found to be in ventricular fibrillation. Which electrolyte imbalance is MOST likely to contribute to this arrhythmia?
Which factor is MOST important to consider when choosing a treatment plan for ventricular tachycardia?
Which factor is MOST important to consider when choosing a treatment plan for ventricular tachycardia?
In older patients, valvular calcification is commonly caused by what?
In older patients, valvular calcification is commonly caused by what?
A systolic murmur heard loudest at the apex and radiating to the axilla suggests:
A systolic murmur heard loudest at the apex and radiating to the axilla suggests:
In which of the following conditions is balloon valvuloplasty often utilized?
In which of the following conditions is balloon valvuloplasty often utilized?
A newly detected diastolic murmur in a patient could indicate:
A newly detected diastolic murmur in a patient could indicate:
Why is good dental/oral hygiene important for patients with valvular heart disease?
Why is good dental/oral hygiene important for patients with valvular heart disease?
How long after a streptococcal throat infection does rheumatic fever typically develop?
How long after a streptococcal throat infection does rheumatic fever typically develop?
Which of the following areas does rheumatic fever commonly affect?
Which of the following areas does rheumatic fever commonly affect?
What is a significant immunological finding in rheumatic fever?
What is a significant immunological finding in rheumatic fever?
The cardiac manifestation of rheumatic fever can lead to:
The cardiac manifestation of rheumatic fever can lead to:
What histological feature is associated with myocarditis in rheumatic fever?
What histological feature is associated with myocarditis in rheumatic fever?
What is the most effective approach for preventing rheumatic fever?
What is the most effective approach for preventing rheumatic fever?
In the context of rheumatic fever, what does 'flitting' polyarthritis refer to?
In the context of rheumatic fever, what does 'flitting' polyarthritis refer to?
What is a common long-term complication of rheumatic fever affecting the heart?
What is a common long-term complication of rheumatic fever affecting the heart?
Which of the following conditions is NOT typically caused by Rheumatic fever?
Which of the following conditions is NOT typically caused by Rheumatic fever?
Rheumatic fever is an example of:
Rheumatic fever is an example of:
Which of the following activities is least likely to trigger angina pain?
Which of the following activities is least likely to trigger angina pain?
In addition to GTN spray, what non-pharmacological measure is most appropriate for immediate relief of angina pain?
In addition to GTN spray, what non-pharmacological measure is most appropriate for immediate relief of angina pain?
Which medication acts as a potassium channel activator and is sometimes prescribed for angina management?
Which medication acts as a potassium channel activator and is sometimes prescribed for angina management?
When angina symptoms change in their frequency, intensity, or duration, and no longer respond to typical treatments, how is this condition classified?
When angina symptoms change in their frequency, intensity, or duration, and no longer respond to typical treatments, how is this condition classified?
Which lifestyle modification provides the most significant benefit for managing and improving outcomes in patients with angina?
Which lifestyle modification provides the most significant benefit for managing and improving outcomes in patients with angina?
How do nitrates alleviate angina symptoms?
How do nitrates alleviate angina symptoms?
During a dental procedure, if a patient experiences angina, what is the most appropriate initial action?
During a dental procedure, if a patient experiences angina, what is the most appropriate initial action?
A myocardial infarction is most directly caused by what condition?
A myocardial infarction is most directly caused by what condition?
What is the most crucial immediate action to undertake when a patient is suspected of having a myocardial infarction?
What is the most crucial immediate action to undertake when a patient is suspected of having a myocardial infarction?
In the context of myocardial infarction, what does 'STEMI' stand for?
In the context of myocardial infarction, what does 'STEMI' stand for?
Which of the following interventions is a primary component of reperfusion therapy in the management of STEMI?
Which of the following interventions is a primary component of reperfusion therapy in the management of STEMI?
Which blood test is most commonly used to confirm myocardial damage, indicating a myocardial infarction?
Which blood test is most commonly used to confirm myocardial damage, indicating a myocardial infarction?
Following a myocardial infarction (MI), what combination of medications is typically prescribed for long-term management to prevent future cardiovascular events?
Following a myocardial infarction (MI), what combination of medications is typically prescribed for long-term management to prevent future cardiovascular events?
A patient is diagnosed with Non-ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (NSTEMI). Which treatment approach is typically included in the initial management?
A patient is diagnosed with Non-ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (NSTEMI). Which treatment approach is typically included in the initial management?
What is the fundamental pathological process that leads to most myocardial infarctions?
What is the fundamental pathological process that leads to most myocardial infarctions?
Which of the following best describes the pain associated with acute pericarditis?
Which of the following best describes the pain associated with acute pericarditis?
A patient diagnosed with constrictive pericarditis is likely to exhibit which of the following physiological changes?
A patient diagnosed with constrictive pericarditis is likely to exhibit which of the following physiological changes?
Which condition is a potential complication of pericarditis, requiring close monitoring and potential intervention?
Which condition is a potential complication of pericarditis, requiring close monitoring and potential intervention?
What cardiovascular structure is primarily affected in infective endocarditis?
What cardiovascular structure is primarily affected in infective endocarditis?
Which of the following bacterial groups is most frequently implicated in subacute infective endocarditis affecting previously damaged heart valves?
Which of the following bacterial groups is most frequently implicated in subacute infective endocarditis affecting previously damaged heart valves?
The presence of Janeway lesions suggests which condition?
The presence of Janeway lesions suggests which condition?
What is the significance of echocardiography in diagnosing Infective Endocarditis (IE) according to the modified Duke criteria?
What is the significance of echocardiography in diagnosing Infective Endocarditis (IE) according to the modified Duke criteria?
What is the most likely location of infective endocarditis in an intravenous drug user?
What is the most likely location of infective endocarditis in an intravenous drug user?
According to current NICE guidelines, when is antibiotic prophylaxis recommended for dental procedures to prevent infective endocarditis?
According to current NICE guidelines, when is antibiotic prophylaxis recommended for dental procedures to prevent infective endocarditis?
Which statement accurately describes the pathophysiology of heart failure?
Which statement accurately describes the pathophysiology of heart failure?
In a patient with left-sided heart failure, which clinical manifestation is MOST likely to be observed?
In a patient with left-sided heart failure, which clinical manifestation is MOST likely to be observed?
Which of the following medication classes have demonstrated improved mortality in patients with heart failure?
Which of the following medication classes have demonstrated improved mortality in patients with heart failure?
What is the MOST likely effect of chronic fluid retention in a patient with heart failure?
What is the MOST likely effect of chronic fluid retention in a patient with heart failure?
What is the primary purpose of an echocardiogram in the evaluation of a patient with heart failure?
What is the primary purpose of an echocardiogram in the evaluation of a patient with heart failure?
What is the most typical initial response to an electrolyte imbalance?
What is the most typical initial response to an electrolyte imbalance?
Flashcards
Chest Pain (Cardiac)
Chest Pain (Cardiac)
Chest pain, often due to ischaemia (reduced blood flow) in the heart; may radiate to both arms.
Breathlessness (Cardiac)
Breathlessness (Cardiac)
Difficulty breathing, often a sign of heart failure, but can also be respiratory in origin.
Ankle Swelling (Cardiac)
Ankle Swelling (Cardiac)
Swelling in the ankles, often indicative of right-sided heart failure.
Palpitations (Cardiac)
Palpitations (Cardiac)
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Raised JVP
Raised JVP
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Ischaemic Heart Disease
Ischaemic Heart Disease
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Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)
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Myocardial Infarction (MI)
Myocardial Infarction (MI)
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Myocardial Ischemia
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Angina/Atherosclerosis Risk Factors
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Modifiable Angina Risk Factors
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MI Symptoms
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MI Management Steps
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MI/Stroke Prevention
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Thromboembolism
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Dental Considerations for MI Patients
Dental Considerations for MI Patients
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What is thromboembolism?
What is thromboembolism?
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Venous thromboembolism
Venous thromboembolism
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Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)
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Pulmonary Embolism (PE)
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Arterial thromboembolism
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Stroke
Stroke
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What is FAST?
What is FAST?
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DVT's Relationship to PE
DVT's Relationship to PE
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DVT symptoms
DVT symptoms
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Stroke Definition
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Atrial Fibrillation (AF)
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AF Risk Factors
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Ischaemic Stroke
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CT Scan for Stroke
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MRI Scan for Stroke
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Stroke Management - ABCDE
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Arrhythmia
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Ischaemic Heart Disease (IHD)
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Angina
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Valvular Heart Disease
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Rheumatic Fever
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Pericarditis
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Heart Failure
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Hypertension
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Sinus Tachycardia
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Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)
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Ventricular Fibrillation (VF)
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Bradycardia
Bradycardia
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IHD Pathology
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Modifiable IHD Risk Factors
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Smoking Cessation & IHD
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Statins in IHD treatment
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Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI)
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Stable Angina
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Angina Pectoris Cause
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VT Rate
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VT Cause
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Angina relief
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Nicorandil
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Angina Lifestyle Modification
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How Nitrates Reduce Angina
How Nitrates Reduce Angina
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Dental Angina First Step
Dental Angina First Step
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Myocardial Infarction Cause
Myocardial Infarction Cause
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Earliest MI Measure
Earliest MI Measure
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STEMI
STEMI
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STEMI Reperfusion
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MI Blood Marker
MI Blood Marker
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Post-MI Management
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Unstable Angina Characterized
Unstable Angina Characterized
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ACS Management Includes
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Mechanical valve replacement
Mechanical valve replacement
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Common cause of valvular calcification
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Systolic murmur at apex
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Balloon valvuloplasty use
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New diastolic murmur
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Good oral hygiene
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Rheumatic fever onset time
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Rheumatic fever affected areas
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Immunological finding in rheumatic fever
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Cardiac manifestation of rheumatic fever
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Myocarditis cause
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Prevent Rheumatic Fever
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Flitting polyarthritis
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Long-term complication of rheumatic fever
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What is myocarditis?
What is myocarditis?
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Pericarditis First-line treatment
Pericarditis First-line treatment
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Constrictive Pericarditis effect
Constrictive Pericarditis effect
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Pericarditis complication
Pericarditis complication
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Rheumatic Fever Pericarditis treatment
Rheumatic Fever Pericarditis treatment
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Pericarditis Pain
Pericarditis Pain
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Infective Endocarditis Target
Infective Endocarditis Target
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Subacute IE organisms
Subacute IE organisms
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HACEK and Endocarditis
HACEK and Endocarditis
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IE risk factor
IE risk factor
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Osler's Nodes
Osler's Nodes
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Janeway Lesions
Janeway Lesions
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Duke Criteria Major Finding
Duke Criteria Major Finding
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IV Drug Use and IE
IV Drug Use and IE
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IE treatment
IE treatment
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IE prophylaxis
IE prophylaxis
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Study Notes
Symptoms of a Heart Attack
- Chest Pain as a sign, can feel Tight, Dull or Heavy
- Chest pain can spread to a patient's Arms, Neck, Jaw or Back
- Pain is Triggered by Physical Exertion or Stress
- Chest pain Stops within a Few Minutes of Resting
- May experience Pain in the Lower Belly, resembling Indigestion
- Can leave a patient Feeling very tired
Types of Angina
- Stable Angina presents Angina upon Exertion
- Can use a Minor LA Treatment if under control
- Ensure GTN is accessible
- More common, less serious
- May need Prophylactic GTN if the pain occurs >1 week and lasts no longer than 10 minutes
Management of Angina
- Consider if the risk of Angina is prophylactic, if the pain occurs >1 week
- Unstable Angina presents Angina without Exertion, more serious and less common
- Treatment is needed in 2nd Care and cardiologist reviewed
- Requires Pre-operative GTN
Significant Risks
- There is a Significant Risk of MI, 2nd review it and be approavedl by a cardiologist
- Do not be given at General Surgery
- Pre-Operative GTN needed and Avoid Epinephrine in LA
Angina & Exertions
- Severity is gauged by Exertion required to provoke an Attack and medication
- Efficacy of Medication to induce relief and can is a diagnosis
Coronary Interventions
- Diagnosis of ANGINA is Primarily Clinical with GORD that mimics It.
- Occasionally GORD mimics Angina
- If ECG is normal, perform Coronary Angiography that can Exercise
Blood Tests:
- Cardiac Troponin & C-Reactive Protein show no signs of being affected
Managing & Treating Angina
- Treatment is in Attack and to treat use spray, on floor of mouth
- Gives rise to Nitric, increases to muscle, rest a moment
- Oxide causes blood to increase muscle
- Regular medication is useful
- Beta and calcium blockers
- Can use Nicorandil: K channel activator
- Oral Ulceration
- Intervention stents by heart to arteries
Treating Attack
- Treatment prevents Attack:
- Lifestyle Changes
- Beta-Blockers and Calcium Channel blockers
- Vasodilatory Medication for Angina with possible ulceration
- Cautions with induced oral ulcers
- Treat patient with Analgesia and oxygen
- Always consider their heart
Angina Medical Emergency
- Symptoms consist of Shortness of Breath which is Fast and Slow Rate, has low bpp and altered state
- Call 999 for quickly management by ABCDE
- Have a GTN medication which may be under the tongue
- Give Aspirin orally with oxygen
Myocardial Infraction or Coronary
- Heart Attack or Coronary Thrombosis:
- When that Damage is done it then trigger to a Thrombosis blockage
- It can be similar but can be better with Radiating and breathing
- It is described with a marker of events
Treatment of Coronary
- The factor is to have had a heart Attack is the factor need treatment.
- Take 6 antibiotics, but only when applicable
Heart Attacks:
- A ruptue cases a clot- trigger Symptoms the same, however, if symptoms is not releif, must monitor A factor Leading causes factor Ihd factors
Procedure
- Ideal time for an Elective Treatment is to wait 12 months, reduce rate
- Avoid performing GA, or inducing Ml if can be avoided
- Follow MI or dont cause it after
Symptoms after Procedure
- Symptoms are: Prolonged & Severe, High heart rates, poor peripheral perfusion & altered state of mind
Medical Emergency
- If history known, use treatment procedure , should can call and perform action
Treatment Procedure
- To stop stroke or prevent
If have had stroke, can call and perform action
Agonal Procedure
- Speech garbled. Can call 999 What causes blood?
- Stroke what is to what
The risks of Stroke
- There can be many factors: Diagnosis: Scan the brain
- Diagnose types The symptoms
- Facial
- Arm
- Time
Main types, stroke is what causes blood,
- The symptoms
- Facial
- Arm
- Time
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Description
Overview of cardiology focusing on the signs and symptoms of heart disease. Includes chest pain causes, breathlessness, ankle swelling, and palpitations. Also covers signs in a clothed patient, pulse characteristics and blood pressure.
