Cardiology and Hypertension Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What is the primary cause of untreated hypertension?

  • Stress
  • Kidney disease
  • End organ damage
  • Lifestyle factors (correct)

    • Which criterion is used for the diagnosis of conditions like infective endocarditis?

  • NIH criteria
  • Duke's criteria (correct)
  • McKenzie criteria
  • Revised Uniform Guidelines

    • What is the primary target for managing hypertensive emergencies?

  • Gradually decrease to 120/80 mm Hg
  • Normalize BP immediately
  • Decrease BP to 160/100 mm Hg over 2 hours (correct)
  • Maintain BP at 150/90 mm Hg

    • Which is considered the first marker to increase following a myocardial infarction (MI)?

    <p>Myoglobin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is characteristic of angina pain?

    <p>Relieved by rest or nitroglycerin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of ventricular tachycardia is characterized by a single QRS morphology on the ECG?

    <p>Monomorphic VT</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the serum potassium level range associated with hyperkalemia?

    <p>5.5 – 6.5 mEq/L</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which valve is most commonly affected by infective endocarditis in adults?

    <p>Mitral valve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which group of organisms is associated with the HACEK group in infective endocarditis?

    <p>Haemophilus species</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common immunological manifestation observed in infective endocarditis?

    <p>Immune complex deposition</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following risk factors is not classified under thrombophilia?

    <p>Immobilization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most specific test for identifying right heart strain in a patient?

    <p>ECG with S1Q3T3 pattern</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a hemodynamically unstable patient, which scenario would contraindicate anticoagulation treatment?

    <p>History of intracranial bleeding</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A chronic smoker develops blood-tinged sputum with a normal evaluation. What is the most appropriate next step to take?

    <p>Perform a bronchoscopy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical feature is most indicative of a pulmonary thromboembolism according to Wells' Criteria?

    <p>Unilateral leg swelling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the best investigation for detecting minimal pleural effusion?

    <p>Chest X-ray</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of pleural effusion usually indicates underlying pneumonia?

    <p>Parapneumonic effusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What management should be considered for a CURB-65 score of 3 or more?

    <p>Hospital admission for IV antibiotics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following findings suggest a diagnosis of empyema in a pneumonia patient?

    <p>Pleural fluid glucose level below normal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the normal volume of pleural fluid present in healthy adults?

    <p>10-20 mL</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about the types of pleural fluid is true?

    <p>Transudate is usually bilateral</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should be taken if fever persists for five days despite appropriate antibiotic treatment in a pneumonia patient?

    <p>Suspect empyema</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of aphasia is characterized by impaired speech production but relatively preserved comprehension?

    <p>Broca's aphasia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following criteria is used to differentiate between transudate and exudate?

    <p>Pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of motor neuron lesion is characterized by muscle atrophy and fasciculations?

    <p>Lower motor neuron lesion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which syndrome is associated with occlusion of the lateral medullary area?

    <p>Lateral medullary syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is a post-infectious neuropathy characterized by acute inflammatory demyelination?

    <p>Guillain Barre syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In motor neuron disease, which symptom is most likely associated with the disease progression?

    <p>Respiratory failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is indicated by the difference between MAP and ICT in severe cases?

    <p>Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common complication of uncontrolled raised intracranial pressure?

    <p>Uncal herniations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic feature of Huntington’s disease?

    <p>Anticipation phenomenon</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following treatments is appropriate for Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH)?

    <p>CSF pressure monitoring</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature is typically associated with the recognition of a stroke?

    <p>Weakness on one side of the body</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes reversible causes of dementia from irreversible ones?

    <p>Their treatment options</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug class is used as a treatment for Parkinson's disease?

    <p>Dopamine agonists</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the '4 P's' commonly associated with pinpoint pupils in stroke diagnosis?

    <p>Pupil reaction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Acute Rheumatic Fever

    • Etiology: Post-Streptococcal; Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci (Streptococcus pyogenes)
    • Age group: 5-15 years
    • Pathogenesis: Molecular mimicry
    • Areas affected: Heart, Joints, Skin, CNS
    • Manifestations: Modified Jones criteria (2018)
      • Major criteria:
        • Joints (large joints, e.g., knees)
        • Arthritis (classical)
        • Polyarthralgia or Monoarthritis
      • Minor criteria:
        • Arthralgia
        • Fever (≥38°C)
        • Prolonged PR interval
        • Persistent ESR/CRP elevation (≥30 mm/hr)
        • Excellent response to aspirin
    • Heart manifestations (m/c): Pancarditis (m/c manifestation in childhood), Myocarditis, Endocarditis

    Rheumatic Heart Disease (Adult)

    • Sequelae: Rheumatic heart disease (RHD)
    • Major target: Valves (Mitral > Aortic)
    • Valve lesions: Fibrosis, Stenosis, Defective opening, Regurgiation

    Prophylaxis

    • Duration: Children without carditis: 5 years; Children with carditis: 10 years; Adult without RHD/surgery: Lifelong
    • Duration: Adults with RHD/ surgery: Lifelong
    • Antibiotics: Benzathine penicillin (i/m), Oral penicillin, Erythromycin

    Nodules

    • Subcutaneous Nodules

    Modified Jones Criteria

    • Major Criteria:
      • Joints (large joints, e.g., knee)
    • Minor Criteria:
      • Arthralgia
      • Fever (≥38°C)
      • Prolonged PR interval
      • Persistent High ESR/CRP (≥30 mm/hr)

    Cardiovascular Disorders Screening Test

    • ACUTE RHEUMATIC FEVER
      • Age group 5-15 Years
      • Pathogenesis: Molecular Mimicry
      • Classification:
        • Low Risk
        • Moderate to High Risk
      • Clinical criteria: Modified Jones Criteria (2018)
    • Major Criteria: Involvement of Multiple Joints, Arthritis/Arthralia, Evidence of Pancarditis, Subacute or Acute Rheumatic Fever, Non-Erosive Arthritis
    • Minor Criteria: Involvement of a single joint, Arthralgia, Temperature ≥38°C, Prolonged PR interval, Increased ESR/CRP

    ECG (Electrocardiogram)

    • Leads: Limb (Einthoven leads), Augmented (Goldberger leads)
    • Rhythm/Rate abnormalities: Bradycardia (<60/min), other arrhythmias.
    • Locations of arteries
      • Right Coronary Artery (RCA) (Inferior)
      • Left Anterior Descending Artery (LAD) (Anteroseptal)
      • Left Circumflex Artery (LCA) (Lateral)

    ECG Findings in Electrolyte Imbalances

    • Hyperkalemia (K+ > 5.5 mEq/L): Tall T waves, Prolonged PR interval
    • Hypokalemia (K+ < 3.5 mEq/L): Flat or inverted T waves, ST depression, Prominent U wave

    Myocarditis

    • Symptoms—chest pain, palpation, murmur
    • Associated conditions—pregnancy, exertion, anemia, hyperthyroidism

    Square Duration

    • Small Square: 1 mm = 0.04 second
    • Large Square: 5 mm = 0.2 second

    Mitral Valve Prolapse

    • Cause: Myxomatous degeneration

    Aortic Stenosis

    • Cause: Myxomatous degeneration

    Aortic Regurgitation

    • Types: Fibrosis, Stenosis, Defective opening, Regurgitation

    Cardiovascular Disorders - Hypertension

    • Mainstay Management: DASH diet, restrict salt to <5g/day, reduce fat and dairy Intake
    • Types: Essential/Primary, Secondary (due to renal dysfunction/coarctation of aorta)
    • Symptoms: Asymptomatic initially, followed by possible complications (e.g., headache, retinal damage)

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    Description

    Test your knowledge on key concepts related to cardiology and hypertension. This quiz covers topics such as the causes of hypertension, diagnostic criteria for infective endocarditis, and characteristics of angina pain. Ideal for students and professionals in the medical field.

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