Cardiac Arrhythmias and Pacemaker Potential
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Questions and Answers

What type of channel is responsible for the slow depolarization of the pacemaker cell membrane towards the action potential threshold?

  • Potassium channels
  • Sodium channels
  • HCN-gated channels (correct)
  • Calcium channels
  • The influx of sodium ions is responsible for the upstroke of the slow pacemaker action potential.

    False (B)

    Early After Depolarizations (EADs) occur at increased heart rates.

    False (B)

    The intrinsic rate of firing of SAN cells is approximately ______ APs per minute.

    <p>100-110</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the specific name for the slow depolarization phase of the pacemaker potential, often referred to as the 'funny current'?

    <p>Phase 4</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The threshold potential for the action potential formation in a sinoatrial node pacemaker cell is approximately ______ mV.

    <p>-55</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a drug used to treat bradycardias?

    <p>Atropine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following drug with its primary action or effect:

    <p>Atropine = Blocks vagal inhibition of SA and AV nodes Adenosine = Hyperpolarizes cardiac conducting tissue and slows the rate of rise of pacemaker potential Isoproterenol = Activates beta receptors, increasing heart rate Digoxin = Inhibits the sodium-potassium pump, increasing intracellular calcium levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the phases of the sinoatrial node pacemaker potential with their corresponding events:

    <p>Phase 0 = Delayed K+ efflux, Ca2+ channels inactivate Phase 3 = Upstroke, influx of Ca2+ Phase 4 = Slow depolarization, HCN channels activated, influx of Na+, efflux of K+</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Increased K+ efflux hyperpolarizes the membrane.

    <p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ion channels are responsible for the rapid depolarization of the ventricular myocyte?

    <p>Na+ (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Sympathetic nerve activation leads to the release of ______, which binds to ______ receptors on the cardiac pacemaker cells.

    Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary indication for using Lidocaine?

    <p>Ventricular arrhythmias (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Amiodarone is used to treat asystole.

    <p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Class 1a antiarrhythmic drugs, such as Quinidine, Procainamide, and Disopyramide, ______ the action potential duration and refractory period.

    <p>lengthen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of action of Class 1 antiarrhythmic drugs?

    <p>They block sodium channels.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following drug classes to their corresponding effects on the action potential:

    <p>Class 1a = Lengthen action potential duration and refractory period Class 1b = Shorten action potential duration and refractory period Class 1c = No effect on action potential duration and refractory period Class 2 = Block beta receptors Class 3 = Block potassium channels Class 4 = Block calcium channels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a non-selective beta blocker?

    <p>Propranolol (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Lidocaine's effect on the heart is dependent on the rate of depolarization, meaning it has a use-dependent effect.

    <p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary adverse effect of Lidocaine?

    <p>Neurotoxicity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following are potential adverse effects of Class 2 drugs?

    <p>Bradycardia (A), Exacerbation of asthma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Amiodarone, a Class 3 drug, can prolong the QT interval on an ECG.

    <p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of drug is Verapamil classified as?

    <p>Class 4 drug</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Dihydropyridines, such as Nifedipine and Amlodipine, predominantly exert their effects on the ______.

    <p>vascular system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following drugs with their respective drug classes:

    <p>Amiodarone = Class 3 Nifedipine = Class 4 Verapamil = Class 4 Propranolol = Class 2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of acetylcholine on HCN channels in pacemaker cells?

    <p>Decreases opening of HCN channels (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Increased potassium efflux from the cell leads to hyperpolarization of the membrane.

    <p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the name of the phase in a ventricular myocyte action potential where the sodium current is inactivated and fast potassium channels open?

    <p>Phase 1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following phases of the SA node pacemaker potential with their corresponding events:

    <p>Phase 4 = Slow depolarization due to Na+ influx through If channels and Ca2+ channel recovery Phase 0 = Rapid depolarization due to Ca2+ influx Phase 3 = Repolarization due to K+ efflux Phase 1 = Not present in SA node action potential</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Cardiac Arrhythmias

    • Cardiac arrhythmias are irregular heartbeats

    Sinoatrial Node Pacemaker Potential

    • Pacemaker cells contain HCN-gated channels
    • Hyperpolarization activates the channels
    • This causes slow depolarization toward the AP threshold
    • Phase 4: Prepotential enables automaticity
    • HCN channels trigger a "funny current"
    • Simultaneously, potassium efflux and sodium influx occur
    • Reaches the threshold, upstroke, then inactivates HCN channels
    • Phase 0: Upstroke of slow pacemaker action potential initiated at the threshold potential (-55 mV)
    • Ca2+ movement increases into the cell
    • Phase 3: Ca2+ channels inactivate, delayed K+ efflux leads to membrane hyperpolarization
    • Phase 4: Pacemaker Na+ influx (If), Ca2+ channels recover, ion gradients restored
    • The SA node firing rate establishes the heart rate, initiating the cardiac cycle

    Sympathetic Nerves and Heart Rate

    • Activation releases norepinephrine (NE) onto B1 adrenoreceptors on cardiac cells
    • Opening of HCN channels increases
    • Increased Na+ influx
    • Opens Ca2+ channels; increased Ca2+ influx
    • Increases slope of prepotential (phase 4)
    • Heart rate increases

    Parasympathetic Nerves and Heart Rate

    • Activation releases acetylcholine (ACh) onto muscarinic receptors
    • Decreases opening of HCN channels; decreased Na+ influx
    • Slows opening of Ca2+ channels, decreased Ca2+ influx
    • Opens additional K+ channels; increased K+ efflux
    • Hyperpolarization reduces prepotential slope and heart rate

    Ventricular Myocyte Action Potentials

    • Phase 0: Rapid depolarization, membrane potential reaches the critical firing threshold (-60 mV) due to inward Na+ current
    • Phase 1: Partial repolarization (Na+ channels inactivate; fast K+ channels open)
    • Phase 2: Calcium channels open; fast K+ channels close
    • Phase 3: Ca2+ channels inactivate; slow K+ channels activated
    • Phase 4: Resting potential

    Vagal Tone

    • Intrinsic rate of firing of SAN cells is ~100–110 APs per minute
    • Constant tonic activation of some parasympathetic nerves on the SA node

    Early After Depolarizations (EADs)

    • Occurs when heart rate is low, suppressed by high HR
    • AP is prolonged; some Ca channels inactivated during an earlier part of the AP
    • Reactivate to give EAD
    • Ca L channels – end phase 2
    • Ca T channels – mid phase 3
    • Need different drugs to treat

    Delayed After Depolarizations (DADs)

    • Seen at increased HRs
    • Associated with elevated Ca2+
    • Ca2+ activation of Na/K channels (depolarizing)
    • Na/Ca exchange 3:1 = electrogenic
    • Toxic doses of cardiac glycosides

    Drugs to Treat Bradycardias

    • Atropine: Switches to vagus nerve
    • Isoproterenol (Isoprenaline): Activates beta receptors
    • Pacing

    Atropine

    • Naturally occurring antimuscarinic alkaloid (from deadly nightshade)
    • Blocks vagal inhibition of sinus and AV nodes
    • Given intravenously (IV)
    • Predominantly metabolized by the liver
    • Short half-life (~3 hours)
    • Anticholinergic effects (e.g., dry mouth, mydriasis, postural hypotension)

    Adenosine

    • Used to treat, primarily re-entry supraventricular tachycardia
    • Action on AV node, slows rate of pacemaker potential rise
    • Usually administered intravenously (IV) to terminate paroxysmal SVTs
    • Action lasts 20-30 seconds; patient returns to sinus rhythm
    • Side effects: chest pain, shortness of breath, dizziness, nausea

    Drug Treatment for Cardiac Arrest

    • Asystole: No cardiac stimulation; give adrenaline
    • Ventricular fibrillation: Electric activity, but ventricles don't contract together; give amiodarone and lignocaine

    Drugs to Treat Tachycardia

    • Class 1 Na channel blockers (blocks phase 0)
    • Class 2 Beta blockers (affecting SA node)
    • Class 3 K channel blockers (block phase 3)
    • Class 4 Ca channel blockers (block phase 2)

    Class 1 Antiarrhythmic Drugs

    • Divided into 3 groups based on action potential duration effects
    • Class 1a: Lengthen action potential duration and refractory period (e.g., Quinidine, Procainamide, Disopyramide.)
    • Class 1b: Shortens action potential duration and refractory period (e.g., Lignocaine/Lidocaine)
    • Class 1c: No effect on action potential duration and refractory period; delays conduction velocity in Purkinje fibers (e.g., Flecainide)

    Lidocaine

    • Blocks fast sodium channels, slows phase 0 depolarization, shortens action potential duration
    • Used for ventricular arrhythmias
    • Indications: Treating specific diseases or conditions
    • Short half-life; given intravenously (IV)
    • Adverse effects: Hypotension, heart block, neurotoxicity, seizures

    Class 2 Drugs (Beta Blockers)

    • Beta blockers, either non-selective (affects both B1 and B2) or cardio selective (affects only B1)
    • Reduces intrinsic rate of sinus and AV nodes; reduces HR and BP, cardiac work, renin secretion
    • Examples: Propranolol. Atenolol, Metoprolol
    • Useful in treating supraventricular and atrial fibrillation

    Adverse Effects of Class 2 Drugs

    • B1 effects: Bradycardia and heart failure
    • B2 effects: Exacerbation of asthma, peripheral cooling, muscle aches, intermittent claudication
    • Other severe effects: Fatigue, nightmares, sleep disturbances, angina, MI, unawareness of hypoglycemia
    • Beta blockers can cross the blood-brain barrier

    Class 3 Drugs

    • Amiodarone prolongs AP duration & refractory period, lengthening QT interval
    • Indicated for ventricular and supraventricular tachycardia, first-line therapy for ventricular fibrillation
    • Long half-life; hepatic metabolism
    • Adverse effects: Thyroid disturbances, pulmonary fibrosis , pro-arrhythmia, torsades de pointes

    Class 4 Drugs

    • Dihydropyridines (e.g., Nifedipine, Amlodipine): Primarily arterial vasodilation
    • Benzothiazepines (e.g., Diltiazem): Mixed vascular and cardiac effects
    • Phenylalkylamines (e.g., Verapamil): Primarily cardiac effects (negative inotrope and chronotrope, antiarrhythmic)

    Verapamil

    • A Ca2+ channel blocker that slows phase 4 Ca2+ entry
    • Reduces rate and contraction velocity in sinus and AV node
    • Indications: Supraventricular arrhythmias
    • Pharmacology: Acts on the heart, oral and IV use; first pass hepatic metabolism
    • Adverse effects: Heart failure, hypotension, constipation, vasodilation, edema, flushing

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    Description

    Explore the intricacies of cardiac arrhythmias and the pacemaker potential of the sinoatrial node. This quiz focuses on the mechanisms of heart rate regulation, including the effects of HCN channels and sympathetic nerve activation. Understand how these processes contribute to the cardiac cycle and overall heart function.

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