Cardiac Arrhythmias Quiz
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Questions and Answers

Which of the following are NOT potential causes of Sinus Bradycardia?

  • Valsalva maneuver
  • Hypertension (correct)
  • Increased Intracranial Pressure
  • Hypothyroidism

    • In a patient with a rapid ventricular response and hemodynamic instability from Atrial Fibrillation, what is the initial intervention recommended in the provided text?

  • Perform a synchronized cardioversion (correct)
  • Administer amiodarone
  • Administer beta-blockers and calcium channel blockers
  • Seek expert consultation

    • What is the typical atrial firing rate in Atrial Fibrillation?

  • 60-100 beats per minute
  • 101-180 beats per minute
  • 300-600 beats per minute (correct)
  • 160-200 beats per minute

    • Which of the following medications is NOT mentioned as a treatment for Sinus Tachycardia?

    <p>Amiodarone (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common cause of Sinus Tachycardia?

    <p>Excitement (physical/psychological stressors) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of treatment for Atrial Fibrillation?

    <p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following treatments is MOST likely to be effective in treating symptomatic Sinus Bradycardia, if Atropine is ineffective?

    <p>Transcutaneous pacing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT specified as a potential trigger for Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)?

    <p>Hypoglycemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is experiencing ventricular tachycardia with a heart rate of 180 bpm. They are awake and responsive. What is the priority nursing intervention?

    <p>Prepare for elective cardioversion. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a vagal maneuver used to terminate SVT?

    <p>Leg raising (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is characterized by a rate of 101-180 bpm, with P waves present but potentially difficult to identify at higher rates?

    <p>Sinus Tachycardia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the expected finding in the suction control chamber of a chest tube drainage system?

    <p>Continuous bubbling. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with a chest tube has continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What is the most likely cause?

    <p>An air leak in the drainage system. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is considered a compensatory mechanism and does not typically require treatment?

    <p>Sinus Tachycardia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is experiencing atrial fibrillation. What is the priority assessment?

    <p>Heart rhythm and rate. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following are NOT typically used in the treatment of Atrial Fibrillation?

    <p>Atropine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is experiencing chest tube drainage that is excessive and continuous. What is the priority nursing action?

    <p>Notify the healthcare provider. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about Atrial Fibrillation is FALSE?

    <p>It is caused by the SA node firing at a rapid rate. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with a chest tube has a burning sensation in the chest. What is the priority nursing action?

    <p>Reposition the patient. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of Sinus Bradycardia?

    <p>Palpitations (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following medications is NOT typically used for long-term management of SVT?

    <p>Adenosine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following breathing patterns is most likely to be seen in a patient at the end of life?

    <p>Cheyne-Stokes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is most likely to be seen in athletes due to enhanced vagal tone?

    <p>Sinus Bradycardia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most likely cause of a patient experiencing ventricular fibrillation?

    <p>Hyperkalemia. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the priority nursing action for a patient experiencing pulseless ventricular tachycardia?

    <p>Perform CPR immediately. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following interventions should be implemented first for a patient experiencing asystolic?

    <p>Check the patient's pulse. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with a chest tube has tidaling in the water-seal chamber. What does this indicate?

    <p>The drainage system is functioning properly. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the priority intervention for a patient experiencing unstable ventricular tachycardia?

    <p>Prepare for immediate defibrillation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat polymorphic ventricular tachycardia?

    <p>Magnesium. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the priority nursing action if a chest tube becomes disconnected?

    <p>Re-establish the water-seal system. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following breathing patterns is characterized by periods of apnea and irregular breaths with varying depths?

    <p>Ataxic breathing. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the priority nursing action when preparing a client for extubation?

    <p>Suction the client above the cuff. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of medications used to treat Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)?

    <p>To decrease heart rate and improve electrical conduction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a common lifestyle modification recommended for managing SVT?

    <p>Increasing physical activity to improve cardiovascular health (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common dysrhythmia associated with high morbidity and mortality rates?

    <p>Atrial Fibrillation (Afib) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary concern with Atrial Fibrillation (Afib) related to blood clots?

    <p>Clots forming in the atria and potentially traveling to the lungs or brain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a potential risk factor for developing Atrial Fibrillation (Afib)?

    <p>Hypothyroidism (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of rate control strategies in managing Atrial Fibrillation (Afib)?

    <p>Slowing down the heart rate to reduce symptoms and complications (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following medications is NOT typically used for rate control in Atrial Fibrillation (Afib)?

    <p>Amiodarone (antiarrhythmic) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of electrical cardioversion in the treatment of Atrial Fibrillation (Afib)?

    <p>To restore and maintain normal heart rhythm through an electrical shock (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a commonly prescribed direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) for preventing stroke in Atrial Fibrillation (Afib)?

    <p>Digoxin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of catheter ablation in the treatment of Atrial Fibrillation (Afib)?

    <p>To eliminate or isolate the abnormal electrical signals causing Afib (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic electrical pattern seen on an EKG during Atrial Flutter?

    <p>A series of regular, sawtooth-shaped waves (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common cause of both Atrial Flutter and Atrial Fibrillation?

    <p>Hyperthyroidism (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a potential consequence of Atrial Flutter?

    <p>Pulmonary hypertension (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic feature of Ventricular Tachycardia (VTach) on an EKG?

    <p>A series of three or more premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a common treatment option for Ventricular Tachycardia (VTach)?

    <p>Surgery to implant a pacemaker to regulate heart rhythm (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of action of magnesium sulfate in the treatment of asthma?

    <p>It relaxes smooth muscles in the airways and has anti-inflammatory properties. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following medications is used as a first-line bronchodilator for an acute asthma attack?

    <p>Albuterol (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential complication of heparin therapy?

    <p>Thrombocytopenia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common clinical presentation of a pulmonary embolism (PE)?

    <p>Dyspnea (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following diagnostic tests is used to confirm the diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism?

    <p>Computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with status asthmaticus?

    <p>Administering short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is NOT a possible intervention for a patient with a pulmonary embolism?

    <p>Antibiotics (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the expected partial thromboplastin time (PTT) range in a patient receiving heparin therapy?

    <p>60-80 seconds (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is characterized by chronic leg swelling, pain, and skin changes after a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

    <p>Post-thrombotic syndrome (PTS) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of medication is commonly prescribed for venous thromboembolism (VTE) prevention?

    <p>Anticoagulants (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a risk factor for developing a pulmonary embolism (PE)?

    <p>Atrial fibrillation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an example of a systemic corticosteroid used in the treatment of asthma?

    <p>Prednisone (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the P wave represent in an EKG?

    <p>Depolarization of the atria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of action of anticholinergics in the treatment of asthma?

    <p>They block the parasympathetic nervous system, leading to bronchodilation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the normal duration of the PR interval in an EKG?

    <p>0.12 - 0.20 seconds (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main reason for inserting a chest tube into a patient?

    <p>To remove air or fluid from the pleural space. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is often indicated by the presence of U waves on an EKG?

    <p>Hypokalemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of hypoxia?

    <p>Bradycardia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following indicates a normal QRS complex duration?

    <p>Less than 0.12 seconds (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with a PE who develops respiratory distress?

    <p>Initiating oxygen therapy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Atrial flutter is characterized by which pattern on an EKG?

    <p>Sawtooth pattern of flutter waves (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a prolonged PR interval potentially indicate?

    <p>Normal variant bradycardia or heart block (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which interval on the EKG represents the time it takes for the ventricles to depolarize and repolarize?

    <p>QT interval (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential characteristic feature of Brady dysrhythmias regarding the EKG reading?

    <p>Altered repolarization sequence leading to U waves (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions may cause respiratory acidosis?

    <p>Asthma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common laboratory finding in respiratory acidosis?

    <p>Hyperkalemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of treatment for respiratory acidosis?

    <p>Improve gas exchange (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a sign or symptom of respiratory acidosis?

    <p>Confusion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical respiratory rate in a patient with respiratory acidosis?

    <p>Rapid and shallow (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What EKG change is most likely to be seen in a patient experiencing metabolic alkalosis?

    <p>Flattened T waves (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential cause of respiratory alkalosis?

    <p>Anxiety (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is characterized by a regular rhythm with a rate of 150-250 bpm and may have a P wave hidden or difficult to identify?

    <p>Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following laboratory findings is characteristic of respiratory alkalosis?

    <p>pH &gt; 7.45 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following EKG patterns is most likely to be seen in a patient with severe hyperkalemia?

    <p>Sine wave pattern (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is known as the hallmark sign of respiratory alkalosis?

    <p>Hyperventilation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient presents with a regular rhythm and a heart rate of 35 bpm. Which of the following conditions is most likely?

    <p>Third-degree heart block (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of respiratory alkalosis?

    <p>Tetany (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential complication of respiratory alkalosis?

    <p>Cardiac arrhythmias (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following EKG findings is typically seen in a patient with Atrial Flutter?

    <p>Sawtooth pattern (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is the most common cause of a prolonged QT interval?

    <p>Hypokalemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient with respiratory alkalosis?

    <p>Provide reassurance and anxiety management (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)?

    <p>Regular rhythm with wide, bizarre QRS complexes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following medications might be used to treat respiratory alkalosis?

    <p>Sedatives (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is known as a 'complete heart block'?

    <p>Third-degree heart block (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential risk factor for a patient with respiratory alkalosis?

    <p>Stroke (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a key nursing intervention for managing DVT?

    <p>Promoting early ambulation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What EKG change is most commonly seen in a patient with respiratory alkalosis?

    <p>Flattened T waves (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with a history of heart disease presents with a rapid, irregular rhythm and absent P waves on their EKG. Which of the following conditions is most likely?

    <p>Atrial fibrillation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a sign of post-thrombotic syndrome (PTS)?

    <p>Leg swelling and pain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of a nurse in managing anticoagulant therapy for a patient with DVT?

    <p>Monitoring for bleeding complications (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is often seen in athletes due to increased vagal tone?

    <p>Sinus bradycardia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient presents with a prolonged PR interval on their EKG. Which of the following conditions is most likely?

    <p>First-degree heart block (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is characterized by a sawtooth pattern on the EKG?

    <p>Atrial flutter (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with a regular rhythm and a heart rate of 120 bpm has a P wave for every QRS complex. Which of the following conditions is most likely?

    <p>Sinus tachycardia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is characterized by a completely irregular rhythm with absent P waves?

    <p>Atrial fibrillation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with a regular rhythm and a heart rate of 200 bpm has wide, bizarre QRS complexes on their EKG. Which of the following conditions is most likely?

    <p>Ventricular tachycardia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of compensation in respiratory alkalosis?

    <p>Decreased carbon dioxide levels (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a common cause of metabolic acidosis?

    <p>Excessive Bicarbonate Intake (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical presentation of Kussmaul respirations?

    <p>Deep and rapid breaths (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which conditions can lead to metabolic alkalosis due to loss of hydrochloric acid through the kidneys?

    <p>Diuretic Use and Excessive Mineralocorticoid Activity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT typically associated with metabolic alkalosis?

    <p>Deep and Rapid Breathing (Kussmaul respirations) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical blood pH in metabolic alkalosis?

    <p>Greater than 7.45 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions can cause lactic acidosis?

    <p>Severe tissue hypoxia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of treatment for metabolic acidosis?

    <p>Address the underlying cause (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most significant EKG finding associated with respiratory acidosis?

    <p>Inverted or peaked T-waves (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential treatment for metabolic alkalosis?

    <p>Correcting fluid and electrolyte imbalances (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical bicarbonate level in metabolic acidosis?

    <p>Less than 22 mmol/L (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding potassium imbalances and acid-base disorders?

    <p>Acidosis is associated with hyperkalemia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic EKG finding associated with hypokalemia?

    <p>Flattened T-waves and U waves (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical breathing pattern seen in respiratory acidosis?

    <p>Hypoventilation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How would you differentiate between metabolic alkalosis and respiratory alkalosis using blood gas analysis?

    <p>Metabolic alkalosis has a higher pH and a higher bicarbonate level, while respiratory alkalosis has a higher pH and a lower bicarbonate level (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following medications can lead to metabolic alkalosis?

    <p>Loop Diuretics (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    EKG Interpretation

    • P wave: Depolarization of atria (0.06-0.12 seconds).
    • PR interval: Time from P wave onset to QRS onset (0.12-0.20 seconds), atria depolarization and conduction to ventricles.
    • QRS complex: Ventricular depolarization (and atrial repolarization), less than 0.12 seconds.
    • ST segment: Ventricular repolarization early phase, from QRS end to T wave start.
    • T wave: Ventricular repolarization.
    • QT interval: Time from QRS start to T wave end (0.34-0.43 seconds), ventricular depolarization and repolarization.
    • U wave: Repolarization of Purkinje fibers; sometimes indicated by electrolyte imbalances (e.g., hypokalemia). Usually not a concern unless new, prominent, or associated with symptoms.

    EKG Assessment

    • P wave presence? Yes = sinus rhythm (SA node origin).
    • P wave upright? Yes, then QRS for every P wave? Yes = normal conduction.
    • Rhythm regularity? (P-P timing) Irregular may indicate A-fib or A-flutter.
    • PR interval normal (0.12-0.20 seconds)? Prolonged may indicate a heart block or bradycardia.
    • QRS timing (0.04-0.12 seconds)? Wide QRS suggests ventricular origin.
    • Rate (R-R intervals): Gives ventricular rate.

    Atrial Flutter

    • Not from SA node; usually right atrium origin.
    • No P waves; "sawtooth" flutter waves before QRS.
    • Atrial rate is fast (>100 bpm); check ventricular rate.
    • Associated with pulmonary disesases (COPD, hypertension), heart valve abnormalities, hyperthyroidism, and alcohol.
    • Treatment: Expert consultation unless rapid ventricular response and hemodynamic instability; then synchronized cardioversion.

    Atrial Fibrillation

    • Atria fire erratically from multiple ectopic sites.

    • No discernable P waves; irregularly irregular R-R intervals.

    • Ventricular rate varies; uncontrolled or rapid ventricular response (RVR) if >100 bpm.

    • Risk factors include cardiovascular disease, pulmonary disease, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, open heart surgery, alcohol, and sleep apnea.

    • Treatment:

      • Stabilize if unstable (symptomatic or hypotensive); synchronized cardioversion or medications to slow ventricular response.
      • Medications to slow ventricles: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers.
      • Medication to convert rhythm: Amiodarone.
      • Prevent clot formation (stroke, PE) with anticoagulation (Warfarin, DOACs).
      • Long-term treatment: Medications and ablations.

    Normal Sinus Rhythm (NSR)

    • Begins at the SA node (pacemaker).

    • Rate of 60-100 bpm.

    • Optimal cardiac output.

    • P wave for every QRS? Yes

    • PR interval < 0.20 seconds? Yes.

    • QRS < 0.12 seconds? Yes.

    • Causes for increased HR (>150 bpm): Anxiety, fever, hypovolemia, shock, requires treatment of the cause, not just the HR.

    • Symptoms: Dizziness, dyspnea, hypotension from reduced CO. Higher demand on heart.

    Sinus Bradycardia

    • Meets NSR criteria but with a rate < 60 bpm.
    • Lower cardiac output and hypotension possible.
    • Treatment:
      • Treat underlying cause.
      • Atropine (anticholinergic) every 3-5 minutes if symptomatic.
      • Transcutaneous or endovascular pacing if atropine ineffective.
      • Dopamine or epinephrine infusion.
      • Permanent pacemaker.

    Other Rhythms

    • Ventricular Tachycardia (VT): Run of 3+ PVCs; monomorphic or polymorphic.
      • Treatment: Treat underlying causes (electrolytes, MI); medications (lidocaine, procainamide, amiodarone); cardioversion. If unstable, defibrillate, CPR, epinephrine.
    • Ventricular Fibrillation (VF): No discernable P or QRS waves; quivering ventricles.
      • Treatment: Defibrillation, CPR, epinephrine, treat underlying cause.
    • Asystole: No pulse; CPR, and treat underlying cause.
    • First-degree Heart Block: Prolonged PR interval (>0.20 seconds).
    • Second-degree Heart Block:
    • Type I (Wenckebach): Gradual PR lengthening with dropped beat(s).
    • Type II (Mobitz): No PR lengthening; dropped beat with ratio evaluation (p to QRS).
    • Third-degree Heart Block ("Complete Heart Block"): Atrial and ventricular rhythms dissociated; paced with transcutaneous or permanent pacemaker.

    Respiratory & Perfusion

    • Ventilation and Intubation: Sedatives, analgesics, neuromuscular blockers.
    • Extubation: Semi-Fowler's position; suction prior; pre-oxygenate patient.
    • Suctioning: Pre-oxygenate patient.
    • Breathing Patterns: Observe retractions, use of accessory muscles, tripod position, hyperventilation, tachypnea, bradypnea, Cheyne-Stokes.
    • Chest Tube: Assess for continuous bubbling (suction), tidaling, excessive bubbling (air leak), subcutaneous emphysema.
    • Interventions: Monitor drainage, vital signs, notify HCP, sterile technique during dressing changes, encourage coughing and deep breathing, spirometer, ROM exercises.

    Asthma

    • Monitoring: Vital signs, oxygen saturation, respiratory status.
    • Medications:
    • SABAs (Short-acting Beta-agonists): First-line; albuterol. Nebulizer or MDI.
    • Systemic Corticosteroids: Reduce inflammation; prednisone, methylprednisolone, dexamethasone (IV preferred).
    • Anticholinergics: Ipratropium bromide; nebulizer or MDI, often with SABAs.
    • Magnesium Sulfate: Bronchodilator/anti-inflammatory; IV.
    • Heliox: Reduces airway resistance. Mask or ventilator.
    • Ketamine: Sedation and bronchodilation.
    • Epinephrine: Life-threatening cases.

    Pulmonary Embolism (PE)

    • Presentation: Sudden chest pain, shortness of breath, cough, hemoptysis, rapid heart rate.
    • Diagnosis: CTPA, V/Q scans, D-dimer.
    • Treatment: Anticoagulants (blood thinners) to prevent further clot formation; thrombolytics (severe cases).
    • Prevention: Early mobility, leg exercises, graduated compression stockings.
    • Symptoms: Dyspnea, hypoxia, cough, tachypnea, chest pain, hemoptysis, crackles, wheezing, fever, tachycardia, syncope.
    • Nursing care: Oxygen as needed; labs, diagnostic tests; clot-dissolving medications (monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia).

    Acid-Base Imbalance

    • Respiratory Acidosis: Impaired ventilation, increased CO2. Causes (obstructions, depression).
    • Respiratory Alkalosis: Hyperventilation, decreased CO2. Causes (anxiety, high altitudes).
    • Metabolic Acidosis: Excess acid production or bicarbonate loss. Causes (DKA, lactic acidosis, renal failure, diarrhea).
    • Metabolic Alkalosis: Loss of acid or excess bicarbonate. Causes (vomiting, diuretic use, antacid abuse).
    • EKG changes with imbalances: Assess for hyperkalemia (acidosis) and hypokalemia (alkalosis); evaluate for widening QRS, inverted or peaked T waves (hyperkalemia), flattened T waves, ST depression, and U waves (hypokalemia).

    Other Important Considerations

    • Patient Prioritization: ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
    • NG Tube Suctioning: Monitor for dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and aspiration.

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    Description

    Test your knowledge on various cardiac arrhythmias, including sinus bradycardia, sinus tachycardia, and atrial fibrillation. This quiz covers potential causes, treatment options, and critical nursing interventions for common arrhythmias. Understand the key concepts necessary for effective patient management in cardiology.

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