Cardiac Arrhythmias Quiz

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following are NOT potential causes of Sinus Bradycardia?

  • Valsalva maneuver
  • Hypertension (correct)
  • Increased Intracranial Pressure
  • Hypothyroidism

In a patient with a rapid ventricular response and hemodynamic instability from Atrial Fibrillation, what is the initial intervention recommended in the provided text?

  • Perform a synchronized cardioversion (correct)
  • Administer amiodarone
  • Administer beta-blockers and calcium channel blockers
  • Seek expert consultation

What is the typical atrial firing rate in Atrial Fibrillation?

  • 60-100 beats per minute
  • 101-180 beats per minute
  • 300-600 beats per minute (correct)
  • 160-200 beats per minute

Which of the following medications is NOT mentioned as a treatment for Sinus Tachycardia?

<p>Amiodarone (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of Sinus Tachycardia?

<p>Excitement (physical/psychological stressors) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of treatment for Atrial Fibrillation?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following treatments is MOST likely to be effective in treating symptomatic Sinus Bradycardia, if Atropine is ineffective?

<p>Transcutaneous pacing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT specified as a potential trigger for Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)?

<p>Hypoglycemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is experiencing ventricular tachycardia with a heart rate of 180 bpm. They are awake and responsive. What is the priority nursing intervention?

<p>Prepare for elective cardioversion. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a vagal maneuver used to terminate SVT?

<p>Leg raising (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is characterized by a rate of 101-180 bpm, with P waves present but potentially difficult to identify at higher rates?

<p>Sinus Tachycardia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the initial expected finding in the suction control chamber of a chest tube drainage system?

<p>Continuous bubbling. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a chest tube has continuous vigerous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What is the most likely cause?

<p>An air leak in the drainage system. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is considered a compensatory mechanism and does not typically require treatment?

<p>Sinus Tachycardia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is experiencing atrial fibrillation. What is the priority assessment?

<p>Heart rhythm and rate. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following are NOT typically used in the treatment of Atrial Fibrillation?

<p>Atropine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is experiencing chest tube drainage that is excessive and continuous. What is the priority nursing action?

<p>Notify the healthcare provider. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of Sinus Bradycardia?

<p>Palpitations (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following breathing patterns is most likely to be seen in a patient at the end of life?

<p>Cheyne-Stokes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications is NOT typically used for long-term management of SVT?

<p>Adenosine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is most likely to be seen in athletes due to enhanced vagal tone?

<p>Sinus Bradycardia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely cause of a patient experiencing ventricular fibrillation?

<p>Hyperkalemia. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the priority nursing action for a patient experiencing pulseless ventricular tachycardia?

<p>Perform CPR immediately. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following interventions should be implemented first for a patient experiencing asystole?

<p>Check the patient's pulse. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a chest tube has tidaling in the water-seal chamber. What does this indicate?

<p>The drainage system is functioning properly. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the priority intervention for a patient experiencing unstable ventricular tachycardia?

<p>Prepare for immediate defibrillation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat polymorphic ventricular tachycardia?

<p>Magnesium. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the priority nursing action if a chest tube becomes disconnected?

<p>Re-establish the water-seal system. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following breathing patterns is characterized by periods of apnea and irregular breaths with varying depths?

<p>Ataxic breathing. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the priority nursing action when preparing a client for extubation?

<p>Suction the client above the cuff. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of medications used to treat Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)?

<p>To decrease heart rate and improve electrical conduction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common lifestyle modification recommended for managing SVT?

<p>Increasing physical activity to improve cardiovascular health (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common dysrhythmia associated with high morbidity and mortality rates?

<p>Atrial Fibrillation (Afib) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary concern with Atrial Fibrillation (Afib) related to blood clots?

<p>Clots forming in the atria and potentially traveling to the lungs or brain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a potential risk factor for developing Atrial Fibrillation (Afib)?

<p>Hypothyroidism (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications is NOT typically used for rate control in Atrial Fibrillation (Afib)?

<p>Amiodarone (antiarrhythmic) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of electrical cardioversion in the treatment of Atrial Fibrillation (Afib)?

<p>To restore and maintain normal heart rhythm through an electrical shock (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a commonly prescribed direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) for preventing stroke in Atrial Fibrillation (Afib)?

<p>Digoxin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of catheter ablation in the treatment of Atrial Fibrillation (Afib)?

<p>To eliminate or isolate the abnormal electrical signals causing Afib (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic electrical pattern seen on an EKG during Atrial Flutter?

<p>A series of multiple regular P waves followed by sawtooth-shaped QRS waves (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common cause of both Atrial Flutter and Atrial Fibrillation?

<p>Hyperthyroidism (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a potential consequence of Atrial Flutter?

<p>Pulmonary hypertension (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic feature of Ventricular Tachycardia (VTach) on an EKG?

<p>A series of three or more premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common treatment option for Ventricular Tachycardia (VTach)?

<p>Surgery to implant a pacemaker to regulate heart rhythm (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of magnesium sulfate in the treatment of asthma?

<p>It relaxes smooth muscles in the airways and has anti-inflammatory properties. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications is used as a first-line bronchodilator for an acute asthma attack?

<p>Albuterol (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential complication of heparin therapy?

<p>Thrombocytopenia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common clinical presentation of a pulmonary embolism (PE)?

<p>Dyspnea (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following diagnostic tests is used to confirm the diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism?

<p>Computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with status asthmaticus?

<p>Administering short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is NOT a possible intervention for a patient with a pulmonary embolism?

<p>Antibiotics (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected partial thromboplastin time (PTT) range in a patient receiving heparin therapy?

<p>60-80 seconds (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is characterized by chronic leg swelling, pain, and skin changes after a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

<p>Post-thrombotic syndrome (PTS) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of medication is commonly prescribed for venous thromboembolism (VTE) prevention?

<p>Anticoagulants (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a risk factor for developing a pulmonary embolism (PE)?

<p>Atrial fibrillation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the P wave represent in an EKG?

<p>Depolarization of the atria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an example of a systemic corticosteroid used in the treatment of asthma?

<p>Prednisone (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the normal duration of the PR interval in an EKG?

<p>0.12 - 0.20 seconds (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of anticholinergics in the treatment of asthma?

<p>They block the parasympathetic nervous system, leading to bronchodilation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main reason for inserting a chest tube into a patient?

<p>To remove air or fluid from the pleural space. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is often indicated by the presence of U waves on an EKG?

<p>Hypokalemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of hypoxia?

<p>Bradycardia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following indicates a normal QRS complex duration?

<p>Less than 0.12 seconds (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Atrial flutter is characterized by which pattern on an EKG?

<p>Sawtooth pattern of flutter waves (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with a PE who develops respiratory distress?

<p>Initiating oxygen therapy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a prolonged PR interval potentially indicate?

<p>Normal variant bradycardia or heart block (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which interval on the EKG represents the time it takes for the ventricles to depolarize and repolarize?

<p>QT interval (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential characteristic feature of Brady dysrhythmias regarding the EKG reading?

<p>Altered repolarization sequence leading to U waves (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions may cause respiratory acidosis?

<p>Asthma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common laboratory finding in respiratory acidosis?

<p>Hyperkalemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of treatment for respiratory acidosis?

<p>Improve gas exchange (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of respiratory acidosis?

<p>Confusion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical respiratory rate in a patient with respiratory acidosis?

<p>Rapid and shallow (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential cause of respiratory alkalosis?

<p>Anxiety (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What EKG change is most likely to be seen in a patient experiencing metabolic alkalosis?

<p>Flattened T waves (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following laboratory findings is characteristic of respiratory alkalosis?

<p>pH &gt; 7.45 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is characterized by a regular rhythm with a rate of 150-250 bpm and may have a P wave hidden or difficult to identify?

<p>Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following EKG patterns is most likely to be seen in a patient with severe hyperkalemia?

<p>Sine wave pattern (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of respiratory alkalosis?

<p>Tetany (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following EKG findings is typically seen in a patient with Atrial Flutter?

<p>Sawtooth pattern (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential complication of respiratory alkalosis?

<p>Cardiac arrhythmias (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is the most common cause of a prolonged QT interval?

<p>Hypokalemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient with respiratory alkalosis?

<p>Provide reassurance and anxiety management (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)?

<p>Regular rhythm with wide, bizarre QRS complexes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications might be used to treat respiratory alkalosis?

<p>Sedatives (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential risk factor for a patient with respiratory alkalosis?

<p>Stroke (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is known as a 'complete heart block'?

<p>Third-degree heart block (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What EKG change is most commonly seen in a patient with respiratory alkalosis?

<p>Flattened T waves (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key nursing intervention for managing DVT?

<p>Promoting early ambulation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a sign of post-thrombotic syndrome (PTS)?

<p>Leg swelling and pain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of heart disease presents with a rapid, irregular rhythm and absent P waves on their EKG. Which of the following conditions is most likely?

<p>Atrial fibrillation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is often seen in athletes due to increased vagal tone?

<p>Sinus bradycardia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of a nurse in managing anticoagulant therapy for a patient with DVT?

<p>Monitoring for bleeding complications (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a prolonged PR interval on their EKG. Which of the following conditions is most likely?

<p>First-degree heart block (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is characterized by a sawtooth pattern on the EKG?

<p>Atrial flutter (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a regular rhythm and a heart rate of 120 bpm has a P wave for every QRS complex. Which of the following conditions is most likely?

<p>Sinus tachycardia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is characterized by a completely irregular rhythm with absent P waves?

<p>Atrial fibrillation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a regular rhythm and a heart rate of 200 bpm has wide, bizarre QRS complexes on their EKG. Which of the following conditions is most likely?

<p>Ventricular tachycardia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of compensation in respiratory alkalosis?

<p>Decreased carbon dioxide levels (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of metabolic acidosis?

<p>Excessive Bicarbonate Intake (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical presentation of Kussmaul respirations?

<p>Deep and rapid breaths (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which conditions can lead to metabolic alkalosis due to loss of hydrochloric acid through the kidneys?

<p>Diuretic Use and Excessive Mineralocorticoid Activity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT typically associated with metabolic alkalosis?

<p>Deep and Rapid Breathing (Kussmaul respirations) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical blood pH in metabolic alkalosis?

<p>Greater than 7.45 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions can cause lactic acidosis?

<p>Severe tissue hypoxia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of treatment for metabolic acidosis?

<p>Address the underlying cause (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most significant EKG finding associated with respiratory acidosis?

<p>Inverted or peaked T-waves (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential treatment for metabolic alkalosis?

<p>Correcting fluid and electrolyte imbalances (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical bicarbonate level in metabolic acidosis?

<p>Less than 22 mmol/L (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding potassium imbalances and acid-base disorders?

<p>Acidosis is associated with hyperkalemia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic EKG finding associated with hypokalemia?

<p>Flattened T-waves and U waves (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical breathing pattern seen in respiratory acidosis?

<p>Hypoventilation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications can lead to metabolic alkalosis?

<p>Loop Diuretics (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

P wave

Represents depolarization of the atria, lasting 0.06-0.12 seconds.

PR interval

Duration from the start of the P wave to the QRS complex, lasting 0.12-0.20 seconds.

QRS complex

Indicates depolarization of ventricles, lasting less than 0.12 seconds, with atrial repolarization hidden.

T wave

Represents the repolarization of the ventricles after contraction.

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QT interval

Duration from the start of the QRS to the end of the T wave, lasting 0.34-0.43 seconds.

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U wave

Reflects repolarization of Purkinje fibers or electrolyte imbalance, often seen in hypokalemia.

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Atrial flutter

A rapid heart rhythm not originating from the SA node, featuring sawtooth waves instead of P waves.

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Assessing EKG

Evaluate presence and morphology of waves, intervals, rate, and rhythm for diagnosis.

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Synchronized Cardioversion

A medical procedure to convert an abnormal heart rhythm back to normal using electrical shocks.

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Atrial Fibrillation

An irregular heart rhythm caused by multiple ectopic foci in the atria, leading to rapid quivering.

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Rapid Ventricular Response (RVR)

Aventricular rate connected to uncontrolled Atrial Fibrillation, exceeding 100 BPM.

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Sinus Bradycardia

A heart rate less than 60 BPM originating from the SA node; may be asymptomatic.

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Sinus Tachycardia

A heart rate between 101-180 BPM originating from the SA node; often reacts to various stressors.

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Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)

A rapid heart rate (160-200 BPM) that originates above the ventricles, often triggered by specific stimuli.

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Normal Sinus Rhythm

A heart rhythm originating from the SA node, 60-100 BPM with a regular PR interval.

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Atrial Rate in A-Fib

Typically 300-600 BPM; reflects rapid firing of foci in atria during fibrillation.

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PR Interval in A-Fib

Irregular and often absent; reflects unorganized atrial activity.

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Risks of A-Fib

Increased risk of blood clots leading to stroke or pulmonary embolism.

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Vagal Maneuvers

Techniques to stimulate the vagus nerve, potentially terminating SVT episodes.

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Medications for RVR

Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers are used to slow down heart rate during episodes.

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Amiodarone Usage

A primary medication used to convert abnormal heart rhythms back to normal systematic rhythms.

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Causes of Sinus Bradycardia

Includes hypothermia, increased ICP, drugs, and the Valsalva maneuver.

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Complications of Bradycardia

Symptoms include dizziness, hypotension, and potential angina requiring urgent treatment.

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Asthma monitoring

Close tracking of vital signs, oxygen saturation, and respiratory status is critical during asthma exacerbations.

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SABA

Short-Acting Beta-Agonists like Albuterol that provide quick relief in asthma attacks by relaxing airway muscles.

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Systemic corticosteroids

Medications like Prednisone and Dexamethasone that reduce inflammation in the airways.

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Anticholinergics

Medications like Ipratropium that block parasympathetic signals and promote bronchodilation.

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Magnesium sulfate

A bronchodilator that relaxes smooth muscles and has anti-inflammatory effects in asthma.

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Heliox

A gas mixture of helium and oxygen that helps reduce airway resistance and improve gas exchange.

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Epinephrine

A potent bronchodilator and vasoconstrictor used in life-threatening asthma attacks.

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Pulmonary embolism (PE)

A blockage in the pulmonary arteries usually caused by blood clots from the legs.

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PE symptoms

Signs include sudden chest pain, shortness of breath, and cough with blood (hemoptysis).

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Diagnosing PE

CT pulmonary angiography and V/Q scans are essential tools for confirming PE diagnosis.

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Heparin administration

Used to prevent clot formation in PE; monitoring PTT is essential to avoid complications.

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Post-Thrombotic Syndrome (PTS)

Chronic condition from vein damage due to DVT, causing swelling, pain, and skin changes.

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Chronic Venous Insufficiency (CVI)

A condition resulting from damaged vein valves, leading to impaired blood flow and possible ulcers.

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Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

A severe condition involving widespread clotting, causing abnormal bleeding and organ dysfunction.

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SVT

Supraventricular Tachycardia, a rapid heartbeat originating above the ventricles.

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Pulse Deficit

The difference in the apical and radial pulse rates, indicating possible AFib.

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A-Fib RVR

Atrial Fibrillation with a Rapid Ventricular Rate over 100 bpm.

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Stroke Risk in A-Fib

Increased risk of an embolic stroke due to blood pooling.

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Rate Control

Management strategy using medications to slow heart rate in AFib.

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Rhythm Control

Strategies to restore normal heart rhythm in AFib patients.

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Anticoagulants

Medications used to prevent blood clot formation in AFib.

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Left Atrial Appendage Closure

A procedure to reduce stroke risk in patients unsuitable for anticoagulation.

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Catheter Ablation

A procedure to modify electrical pathways in the heart to treat arrhythmias.

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Ventricular Tachycardia

A fast heart rate originating from the ventricles, defined by three or more PVCs.

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PVC

Premature Ventricular Contraction, an extra heartbeat from the ventricles.

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Lifestyle Modifications

Changes like diet, sleep, and stress management to help with heart rhythm issues.

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Triggers of SVT

Factors such as caffeine, stress, or lack of sleep that can provoke SVT episodes.

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Respiratory Alkalosis

A condition characterized by decreased CO2 levels due to hyperventilation.

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Compensatory Mechanism

The body's response to normalize pH levels in acidosis or alkalosis.

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Ketoacidosis

A type of metabolic acidosis caused by excessive ketone production due to impaired glucose utilization.

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Uremia

Buildup of metabolic waste in the body due to kidney failure, leading to metabolic acidosis.

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Salicylate Poisoning

Metabolic acidosis resulting from high doses of salicylates, producing toxic acids.

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Lactic Acidosis

Acidosis due to increased lactic acid from anaerobic metabolism during hypoxia.

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Kussmaul Respirations

Deep and rapid breathing pattern seen in metabolic acidosis to expel CO2.

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Metabolic Alkalosis

Condition characterized by elevated blood pH and bicarbonate levels.

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Hypokalemia

Low potassium levels in the blood, often associated with metabolic alkalosis.

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Hyperkalemia

Elevated potassium levels in the blood, often linked with acidosis.

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T-Wave Changes

EKG changes (inverted or peaked T waves) indicating hyperkalemia in acidosis.

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Diuretic Use

Can lead to the loss of hydrochloric acid and contribute to metabolic alkalosis.

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Electrolyte Imbalance

Abnormal levels of electrolytes, such as potassium, affecting acid-base balance.

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Intravenous Fluids

Administered to restore volume and improve tissue perfusion in acidosis.

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Metabolic Acidosis

Condition with pH < 7.35 due to causes like DKA and renal failure.

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Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)

A serious complication of diabetes leading to metabolic acidosis.

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EKG Changes in Acidosis

Includes peaked T-waves and wide QRS complexes due to hyperkalemia.

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Hypokalemia in Alkalosis

Low potassium levels lead to flattened T-waves and U waves.

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Atrial Fibrillation (AFib)

Irregular heart rhythm with absent P waves and rapid ventricular response.

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Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)

Rapid heart rate 100-250 bpm with wide, bizarre QRS complexes.

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Ventricular Fibrillation (VFib)

Chaotic heart rhythm, no distinct waves, seen in cardiac arrest.

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First Degree Heart Block

Prolonged PR interval (>0.20 seconds) with otherwise normal rhythm.

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Second Degree Heart Block (Wenckebach)

Gradual lengthening of PR interval until a beat drops.

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Third Degree Heart Block

Complete dissociation between atria and ventricles.

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Bigeminy

A cardiac rhythm where every other beat is a PVC.

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Trigeminy

A cardiac rhythm where every third beat is a PVC.

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Ventricular Tachycardia (VTach)

A fast heart rhythm originating from the ventricles, typically 150-250 BPM.

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Asystole

A state of no cardiac electrical activity, resulting in no contractions and no pulse.

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Defibrillation

Electrical shock applied to restore a normal heart rhythm in case of arrhythmia.

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Cardioversion

Delivery of a shock to restore normal rhythm in stable patients.

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Hypotension

Abnormally low blood pressure, can occur in arrhythmias.

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Pulmonary Edema

Fluid accumulation in the lungs, often a result of heart failure.

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Suctioning

Clearing secretions from the airway to maintain patency.

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Tidaling

Movement of fluid in a chest tube indicating normal function.

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Subcutaneous Emphysema

Air trapped under the skin, often from a chest tube leak.

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Respiratory Distress

Increased effort or difficulty in breathing.

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Cheyne-Stokes Breathing

A rhythmic pattern of breathing characterized by oscillation between hyperpnea and apnea.

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DVT Assessment

Evaluate for pain, swelling, warmth, redness, and tenderness in the leg.

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DVT Risk Factors

Conditions like immobility, surgery, trauma, and obesity increase DVT risk.

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DVT Prevention

Encourage ambulation and use compression stockings to reduce DVT risk.

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Signs of PE

Detect shortness of breath, chest pain, rapid heart rate as signs of PE.

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Respiratory Acidosis

Increase in CO2 causing a decrease in pH, leading to acidemia.

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Causes of Respiratory Acidosis

Obstructions in breathing, CNS depression, and diseases can cause this condition.

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Symptoms of Respiratory Acidosis

Restlessness, confusion, and tachypnea indicate respiratory acidosis.

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Causes of Respiratory Alkalosis

Hyperventilation, anxiety, and CNS disturbances can cause low CO2 levels.

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Symptoms of Respiratory Alkalosis

Tingling in hands, restlessness, and potential seizures indicate this condition.

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Assessment for PE

Monitor for vital signs and observe for signs like hypotension and tachycardia.

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Laboratory Findings in Respiratory Acidosis

pH < 7.35, pCO2 > 45 mmHg, and hyperkalemia are expected results.

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Laboratory Findings in Respiratory Alkalosis

pH > 7.45, pCO2 < 35 mmHg, and hypokalemia indicate respiratory alkalosis.

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Psychosocial Support

Provide patients with information and support regarding DVT and PE.

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Study Notes

EKG Interpretation

  • P wave: Depolarization of atria (0.06-0.12 seconds).
  • PR interval: Time from P wave onset to QRS onset (0.12-0.20 seconds), atria depolarization and conduction to ventricles.
  • QRS complex: Ventricular depolarization (and atrial repolarization), less than 0.12 seconds.
  • ST segment: Ventricular repolarization early phase, from QRS end to T wave start.
  • T wave: Ventricular repolarization.
  • QT interval: Time from QRS start to T wave end (0.34-0.43 seconds), ventricular depolarization and repolarization.
  • U wave: Repolarization of Purkinje fibers; sometimes indicated by electrolyte imbalances (e.g., hypokalemia). Usually not a concern unless new, prominent, or associated with symptoms.

EKG Assessment

  • P wave presence? Yes = sinus rhythm (SA node origin).
  • P wave upright? Yes, then QRS for every P wave? Yes = normal conduction.
  • Rhythm regularity? (P-P timing) Irregular may indicate A-fib or A-flutter.
  • PR interval normal (0.12-0.20 seconds)? Prolonged may indicate a heart block or bradycardia.
  • QRS timing (0.04-0.12 seconds)? Wide QRS suggests ventricular origin.
  • Rate (R-R intervals): Gives ventricular rate.

Atrial Flutter

  • Not from SA node; usually right atrium origin.
  • No P waves; "sawtooth" flutter waves before QRS.
  • Atrial rate is fast (>100 bpm); check ventricular rate.
  • Associated with pulmonary disesases (COPD, hypertension), heart valve abnormalities, hyperthyroidism, and alcohol.
  • Treatment: Expert consultation unless rapid ventricular response and hemodynamic instability; then synchronized cardioversion.

Atrial Fibrillation

  • Atria fire erratically from multiple ectopic sites.

  • No discernable P waves; irregularly irregular R-R intervals.

  • Ventricular rate varies; uncontrolled or rapid ventricular response (RVR) if >100 bpm.

  • Risk factors include cardiovascular disease, pulmonary disease, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, open heart surgery, alcohol, and sleep apnea.

  • Treatment:

    • Stabilize if unstable (symptomatic or hypotensive); synchronized cardioversion or medications to slow ventricular response.
    • Medications to slow ventricles: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers.
    • Medication to convert rhythm: Amiodarone.
    • Prevent clot formation (stroke, PE) with anticoagulation (Warfarin, DOACs).
    • Long-term treatment: Medications and ablations.

Normal Sinus Rhythm (NSR)

  • Begins at the SA node (pacemaker).

  • Rate of 60-100 bpm.

  • Optimal cardiac output.

  • P wave for every QRS? Yes

  • PR interval < 0.20 seconds? Yes.

  • QRS < 0.12 seconds? Yes.

  • Causes for increased HR (>150 bpm): Anxiety, fever, hypovolemia, shock, requires treatment of the cause, not just the HR.

  • Symptoms: Dizziness, dyspnea, hypotension from reduced CO. Higher demand on heart.

Sinus Bradycardia

  • Meets NSR criteria but with a rate < 60 bpm.
  • Lower cardiac output and hypotension possible.
  • Treatment:
    • Treat underlying cause.
    • Atropine (anticholinergic) every 3-5 minutes if symptomatic.
    • Transcutaneous or endovascular pacing if atropine ineffective.
    • Dopamine or epinephrine infusion.
    • Permanent pacemaker.

Other Rhythms

  • Ventricular Tachycardia (VT): Run of 3+ PVCs; monomorphic or polymorphic.
    • Treatment: Treat underlying causes (electrolytes, MI); medications (lidocaine, procainamide, amiodarone); cardioversion. If unstable, defibrillate, CPR, epinephrine.
  • Ventricular Fibrillation (VF): No discernable P or QRS waves; quivering ventricles.
    • Treatment: Defibrillation, CPR, epinephrine, treat underlying cause.
  • Asystole: No pulse; CPR, and treat underlying cause.
  • First-degree Heart Block: Prolonged PR interval (>0.20 seconds).
  • Second-degree Heart Block:
  • Type I (Wenckebach): Gradual PR lengthening with dropped beat(s).
  • Type II (Mobitz): No PR lengthening; dropped beat with ratio evaluation (p to QRS).
  • Third-degree Heart Block ("Complete Heart Block"): Atrial and ventricular rhythms dissociated; paced with transcutaneous or permanent pacemaker.

Respiratory & Perfusion

  • Ventilation and Intubation: Sedatives, analgesics, neuromuscular blockers.
  • Extubation: Semi-Fowler's position; suction prior; pre-oxygenate patient.
  • Suctioning: Pre-oxygenate patient.
  • Breathing Patterns: Observe retractions, use of accessory muscles, tripod position, hyperventilation, tachypnea, bradypnea, Cheyne-Stokes.
  • Chest Tube: Assess for continuous bubbling (suction), tidaling, excessive bubbling (air leak), subcutaneous emphysema.
  • Interventions: Monitor drainage, vital signs, notify HCP, sterile technique during dressing changes, encourage coughing and deep breathing, spirometer, ROM exercises.

Asthma

  • Monitoring: Vital signs, oxygen saturation, respiratory status.
  • Medications:
  • SABAs (Short-acting Beta-agonists): First-line; albuterol. Nebulizer or MDI.
  • Systemic Corticosteroids: Reduce inflammation; prednisone, methylprednisolone, dexamethasone (IV preferred).
  • Anticholinergics: Ipratropium bromide; nebulizer or MDI, often with SABAs.
  • Magnesium Sulfate: Bronchodilator/anti-inflammatory; IV.
  • Heliox: Reduces airway resistance. Mask or ventilator.
  • Ketamine: Sedation and bronchodilation.
  • Epinephrine: Life-threatening cases.

Pulmonary Embolism (PE)

  • Presentation: Sudden chest pain, shortness of breath, cough, hemoptysis, rapid heart rate.
  • Diagnosis: CTPA, V/Q scans, D-dimer.
  • Treatment: Anticoagulants (blood thinners) to prevent further clot formation; thrombolytics (severe cases).
  • Prevention: Early mobility, leg exercises, graduated compression stockings.
  • Symptoms: Dyspnea, hypoxia, cough, tachypnea, chest pain, hemoptysis, crackles, wheezing, fever, tachycardia, syncope.
  • Nursing care: Oxygen as needed; labs, diagnostic tests; clot-dissolving medications (monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia).

Acid-Base Imbalance

  • Respiratory Acidosis: Impaired ventilation, increased CO2. Causes (obstructions, depression).
  • Respiratory Alkalosis: Hyperventilation, decreased CO2. Causes (anxiety, high altitudes).
  • Metabolic Acidosis: Excess acid production or bicarbonate loss. Causes (DKA, lactic acidosis, renal failure, diarrhea).
  • Metabolic Alkalosis: Loss of acid or excess bicarbonate. Causes (vomiting, diuretic use, antacid abuse).
  • EKG changes with imbalances: Assess for hyperkalemia (acidosis) and hypokalemia (alkalosis); evaluate for widening QRS, inverted or peaked T waves (hyperkalemia), flattened T waves, ST depression, and U waves (hypokalemia).

Other Important Considerations

  • Patient Prioritization: ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
  • NG Tube Suctioning: Monitor for dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and aspiration.

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