Canadian CPL Regulations

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Taxi rules takeoff and landings requirements

5 take offs and landings within the preceding 90 days

PIC requirements for two crew aircraft

An ATPL with a type rating for the aircraft.

Commercial Pilot medical expiry

Last day of February 2006

Night VFR air taxi PIC requirements

A competency check

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Air taxi multi-engine IMC PIC

The PPC, ground and flight training initially within the preceding 12 months

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Night VFR air taxi passengers

Not be carried unless authorized in the Air Operator Certificate (AOC)

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VFR entry into class D airspace

Establish two way radio communications prior to entering, and the aircraft be equipped with a mode C transponder only if designated

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Night VFR class G weather minimums

3 miles visibility while maintaining 2000 feet horizontally and 500 feet vertically below clouds

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Forest fire minimum altitude and distance

3000 feet AGL within 5 nautical miles or otherwise, by NOTAM

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Maximum airspeed below 3000 AGL near controlled airport

200 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS)

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Altimeter setting change

Entering the standard pressure region

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Reportable aviation incident aircraft definition

An aircraft having a maximum takeoff weight greater than 2250 kg (5000 lbs)

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Chevron markings on runway

Not suitable for landing takeoff or taxi

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Max flight duty

The reporting time, and the number of flights scheduled during the flight duty period

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ADIZ operating procedures

The ETA and route must be revised if not within plus or -5 minutes and plus or -20 nautical miles

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SVFR procedures

Only be obtained in a control zone and requires a clearance

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Carb fuel to air ratio

Weight

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Best power ratio

One part fuel to 14 parts air

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Angle of attack and centre of pressure

Moves forward until the point of stall then moves rapidly rearward

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Blocked pitot tube

Over read in a climb and under read in a descent

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Decreased shear

The aircraft will sink below the glide path and more power will be needed to get back on the glide path then once reestablished on the glide path, less power than originally used will be used

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Ice or frost

Increase in the speed and takeoff distance, and the ice or frost must be removed before Flight

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Minimum time between drinking and flying

12 hours, and until no longer affected by the alcohol

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Troposphere heated by

The incoming tangent rays from the sun that are absorbed by the earths surface, and the ground in turn, heats the atmosphere from below

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Which layer does all the weather occur

Troposphere

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Trough definition

An elongated area of low pressure

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Dewpoint definition

The temperature to which air must be cooled at a constant pressure to become saturated.

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Stable air characteristics

Poor low level visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus type clouds

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Stratus / Stratocumulus precipitation

Drizzle, freezing drizzle or snow grains

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Winds above 3000 AGL

Veer and increase

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Winter air masses

cA, mA, and mP

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How unstable air become stable

Cooled from below

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VNC straight line represents

A great circle

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Triangle of Velocities

Winds speed and direction, heading and true airspeed, aircraft track and ground speed.

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CBSA notification when flying into Canada

At least two hours prior to arrival via phone

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LF/MF airway width

4.34 NM wide on each side of center line until 49.66 NM, then increases by a 5° splay.

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When is acceleration error affect the compass?

East and west headings

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Pressure altitude definition

The altitude that is indicated when the altimeter barometric scale is set to 29.92. It is used to determine things like true altitude density, altitude, true airspeed.

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True altitude

Our exact height above mean, sea level. Height on aeronautical charts are given in terms of true altitudes.

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Absolute altitude definition

The actual height above the earth surface with the altar, setting correctly set, and non-standard variations and temperature taken into consideration (AGL)

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Density altitude definition

Pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature

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Compass accuracy during turns

Positioned over the equator

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Audiogram?

At the first Category 1 medical and at first exam after turning 55.

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Transponder with Altitude Reporting

Class A B and C airspace

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Tower closes the airspace becomes....

Class E uncontrolled

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Class D airspace limit

12500 feet ASL

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Class E radio contact

Five minutes prior to entering

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Force fire becomes....

Class F from the surface to 3000 feet AGL with a five nautical mile radius around the fire, unless a notam is issued stating otherwise

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aircraft over built up area

1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 2000 feet

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Solid line means to

Not cross without ATC clearance

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What do those arrows on a runway signify

The threshold has been displaced

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Distance from structures?

500 feet

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When are life preservers required?

At more than 50 nautical miles from shore

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Aerobatic height?

2000 feet AGL

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Speed below 10,000 ft?

250KTS maximum

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Filing requirement?

When travelling greater than 25 NM from the point of departure

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Not flown in 3 years

Complete a training program or PPC

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Not flown in 6 years

Complete a Flight test review and PSTAR within 12 months preceding the flight

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Closed runway marking

White crosses

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Minimum equipment for SVFR

Two-way radiocommunication

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Single pilot air taxi IFR

A minimum of 1000 hours of flight time

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Subsidence definition

Air sinks, and temperature increases

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Purpose of Flyweights

Regulate the flow of engine oil to, and from the propeller

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Inclinometer

Centrifugal force, and gravity

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EDF error most significant when?

On higher frequencies

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Magnetic deviation

The angle, through which the compass needle is deflected from the magnetic meridian

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VORTAC

A VOR and TACAN combined

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Cloud Base Formula

Temperature - dew point / divided by 3(Lapse rate in dry air) = (answer)x1000 (convert to feet) = cloud base

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Weight shift formula

w= weight to be moved W= Gross Weight d= distance CG moves or must be moved D= Distance between stations

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Stable air means...?

Poor low level visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus type cloud

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GFA Charts are issued...?

4 times a day, 6 charts, the present 6 hours later, and 12 hours later

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IFR Altitude mountainous regions?

2000 ft and 5 NM of the aircraft

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MRA Altitude definition

Lowest altitude in aircraft can be assured of receiving navigation aids

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MEA

Both adequate signal coverage and obstacle clearance

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Montainous regions 2,3,4 IFR aircraft should be....?

1500 ft within 5NM

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True Track

meridians of longitude

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Wind degrees?

Degrees true (if you read it, it's true)

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True Airspeed

CAS corrected for non-standard temperature and pressure

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Coriolis Force Northern Hemisphere?

To the right

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Force relationships?

Working against each other in the opposite directions

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Geostrophic Wind Direction

Parallel to the isobars

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Does wind move at isobars?

at an angle to the isobars

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Position of Doldrums?

Equator

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what is a seabreeze?

Day, and blows towards shore

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Katabatic winds night?

Down valleys at night

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Buys Ballot Law?

With your back to the wind, your right hand points at the high pressure system

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Velocity of Jetstream

60 kt at every point along its axis

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Temperature rising, turbulence?

Climb

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Jetstream Altitude

10,000 to 30,000 feet

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Location of Jetstream

Just below the tropopause

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Frontal System Jet?

Subtropical jetstream

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Jetstream Speed?

Winter, due to sharper horizontal temperature contrasts

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Defining Air Masses

Their source regions

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Air Mass continental

Dry

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How is moist damp weather?

Maritime Polar

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Sharp rise in cold front? - Passing over

The cold front is passing over

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Dewpoint Cold Front - Sharp drop

Experiences a sharp drop

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Warm Stage Precipitation

Before the frontal passage.

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Sign of approaching warmth

Cirrus clouds

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Weather

A cold air mass advances on a warm air mass, forcing it up

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Study Notes

  • These are flashcards to help study for the Canadian Commercial Pilot License (CPL) Transport Canada (TC) written exam.

Regulations

  • Commercial pilots operating under air taxi rules must have completed 5 takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days.
  • To be pilot in command of a two-crew aircraft, an ATPL with a type rating for that aircraft is required.
  • A 30-year-old commercial pilot with a Category 1 medical exam on February 13, 2001, issued March 21, 2001, can rent an aircraft and take a friend on a local flight until the last day of February 2006.
  • To act as pilot in command of a single-engine aircraft for night VFR air taxi service without passengers, a commercial pilot needs a competency check.
  • Pilot in command of a multi-engine airplane under IMC for air taxi service requires a PPC and ground/flight training within the preceding 12 months.
  • Passengers are prohibited during night VFR commercial air taxi service in a single-engine airplane unless authorized by the Air Operator Certificate (AOC).
  • VFR aircraft entering Class D airspace must establish two-way radio communication prior to entry. Mode C transponder is required, only if designated.
  • Minimum night VFR weather for Class G airspace above 1000 feet AGL: 3 miles visibility; 2000 feet horizontal and 500 feet vertical distance from clouds.
  • The minimum altitude and distance from a forest fire is 3000 feet AGL and 5 nautical miles, or as specified by NOTAM.
  • Maximum airspeed when flying within 10 nautical miles below 3000 feet AGL of a controlled airport is 200 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS).
  • When flying from the altimeter setting region into the standard pressure region, set the altimeter to 29.92 in Hg upon entering the standard pressure region.
  • A reportable aviation incident involves aircraft with a maximum takeoff weight greater than 2250 kg (5000 lbs).
  • Chevron markings before a runway threshold indicate the surface is unsuitable for landing, takeoff, or taxi.
  • A pilot's maximum flight duty with a commercial operator depends on reporting time and the number of scheduled flights.
  • When operating in the ADIZ, the ETA and route must be revised if not within ±5 minutes and ±20 nautical miles.
  • SVFR can only be obtained in a control zone and requires a clearance.
  • Pilots must allow a minimum of 12 hours between consuming alcohol and acting as a flight crewmember, and must not be affected by alcohol.
  • Aircraft operating over a built-up area or open-air assembly of persons must maintain at least 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within 2000 feet horizontally.
  • When approaching taxiway holding lines from the solid line side, pilots should not cross without ATC clearance.
  • A series of arrows painted on the approach end of a runway signifies that the threshold has been displaced.
  • The minimum distance at which an airplane may be operated from a structure not in a built-up area is 500 feet.
  • Life preservers must be carried on board when flying more than 50 nautical miles from shore.
  • Aerobatics are prohibited below 2000 feet AGL, unless otherwise authorized.
  • Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum permissible indicated airspeed below 10,000 feet ASL is 250 knots.
  • A flight plan or itinerary is required when traveling greater than 25 NM from the departure point.
  • A pilot who has not flown in three years must complete a training program or Pilot Proficiency Check (PPC) to have a current license.
  • A pilot who has not flown in over six years must complete a flight test review and PSTAR within 12 months of the flight to have a current license
  • A temporarily closed runway is marked with white crosses.
  • To request special VFR, an aircraft must have two-way radiocommunication.
  • To conduct a single-pilot IFR flight with an air taxi operation, the pilot in command (PIC) must have a minimum of 1000 hours of flight time.
  • Aircraft flying IFR in designated mountainous regions (areas 1 and 5) must be flown at least 2000 ft and 5 NM from the aircraft.
  • In mountainous regions 2, 3, and 4, IFR aircraft must be flown at an altitude of at least 1500 ft within 5 NM.

Aircraft & Performance

  • In a carburetor, the fuel-to-air ratio is governed by weight.
  • The best power ratio is one part fuel to 14 parts air.
  • As angle of attack increases, the center of pressure moves forward until stall, then rapidly rearward.
  • If the pitot tube is blocked by ice during flight without pitot heat, the airspeed indicator will over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent.
  • During an approach with decreasing performance shear, the aircraft will sink below the glide path, requiring more power initially, then less power once re-established.
  • A few millimeters of ice or frost on an airfoil can increase stall speed and takeoff distance, requiring removal before flight.
  • The purpose of flyweights in a constant speed propeller, equipped aircraft is to regulate the flow of engine oil to and from the propeller.
  • The inclinometer within the turn coordinator reacts to centrifugal force and gravity.

Weather

  • The troposphere is heated by incoming tangent rays from the sun, absorbed by the Earth's surface, which then heats the atmosphere from below.
  • Most weather occurs in the troposphere.
  • A trough is an elongated area of low pressure.
  • Dewpoint is the temperature to which air must be cooled at constant pressure to become saturated.
  • Stable air is characterized by poor low-level visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus-type clouds.
  • Stratus or stratocumulus clouds may produce drizzle, freezing drizzle, or snow grains.
  • During takeoff while climbing above 3000 feet AGL, winds generally veer and increase.
  • Common winter air masses over North America are cA, mA, and mP.
  • Unstable air becomes more stable when cooled from below.
  • Winds are reported in METARs and TAFs in degrees true.
  • True airspeed equals CAS corrected for non-standard temperature and pressure.
  • Subsidence refers to air sinking and increasing in temperature.
  • The Coriolis force deflects air to the right in the Northern Hemisphere.
  • Pressure gradient force and Coriolis force work against each other in opposite directions.
  • Geostrophic wind moves parallel to isobars.
  • Resultant wind affected by friction moves at an angle to the isobars.
  • The Trish cellular model moves the doldrums over the Equator.
  • A seabreeze occurs during the day and blows towards the shore.
  • Katabatic winds blow down valleys at night.
  • According to Buys Ballot's law, with your back to the wind, your right hand points to the high-pressure system.
  • Jetstream wind velocity includes wins of at least 60 kt at every point along its axis.
  • While flying through a jetstream, monitoring outside air temperature, and notice a rise in temperature, climb to avoid turbulence.
  • Jet streams are typically found between 10,000 to 30,000 feet altitude.
  • Jet streams are located just below the tropopause.
  • The subtropical jetstream is not associated with a frontal system.
  • Jetstream speeds are greatest during the winter, due to sharper horizontal temperature contrasts.
  • Air masses are defined by their source regions.
  • A continental air mass is best described as dry.
  • The maritime polar air mass brings Canada cool, moist, and damp weather.
  • Anticipating a cold front, monitor pressure and notice a sharp rise, it indicates that the cold front is passing over.
  • The dewpoint experiences a sharp drop as a cold front passes over.
  • Most of the precipitation occurs before a warm front passage.
  • The earliest indication of a warm front approaching is cirrus clouds.
  • A trowel forms when a cold air mass advances on a warm air mass, forcing it up.
  • A straight line on a VNC represents a great circle.
  • The six components of the triangle of velocities are wind speed/direction, heading/true airspeed, and aircraft track/ground speed.
  • True track is measured from meridians of longitude.
  • A VORTAC combines a VOR and TACAN.
  • The EDF error associated with night effect is greatest on higher frequencies.

Aerodromes

  • An airport served by an operating control tower within class D airspace ceases operation for the day, the airspace becomes class E uncontrolled.
  • The vertical limit of class D airspace will normally be topped at 12500 feet ASL.
  • When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport that is within a class E control zone a pilot must establish radio contact when five minutes prior to entering.
  • When there is a force fire, the airspace becomes Class F from the surface to 3000 feet AGL with a five nautical mile radius around the fire, unless a NOTAM is issued stating otherwise.
  • Airplanes operating over a built-up area or open-air assembly of persons, must maintain an altitude of at least 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 2000 feet.

Charts & Instruments

  • GFA charts are issued four times a day, six charts, the present six hours later, and 12 hours later.
  • A compass will read most accurately during turns when positioned over the equator.
  • True altitude is an exact height above mean sea level, as depicted on aeronautical charts.
  • Absolute altitude is the actual height above the Earth's surface (AGL), considering altimeter setting and temperature variations.
  • Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature.
  • Magnetic deviation is the angle through which the compass needle is deflected from the magnetic meridian.
  • Aircraft shall be equipped with a transponder capable of automatic pressure, altitude reporting when operating within all Class A, B, and C airspace.
  • MRA (Minimum Reception Altitude) provides the lowest altitude in aircraft can be assured of receiving navigation aids.
  • The MEA altitude is published in order to provide both adequate signal coverage and obstacle clearance.

Definitions & Formulas

  • Pressure altitude is the altitude indicated when the altimeter is set to 29.92 in Hg, used to determine true altitude, density altitude, and true airspeed.
  • Weight shift formula: w / W = d / D, where w = weight to be moved, W = gross weight, d = distance CG moves, D = distance between stations.
  • Calculating cloud base: (Temperature - dew point) / 3 * 1000 = cloud base (feet).

Border Crossing

  • Flying to Canada requires contacting the Canadian Border Services Agency at the airport of entry at least two hours prior to arrival via phone.

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