184 Questions
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
Nitrogenous base, 5-carbon sugar, phosphate group
Which of the following regarding bond types is correct?
Dipole-dipole interactions is a type of non-covalent bond between two polar molecules
Fatty acids can attach to a glycerol backbone via an ester linkage to form a:
triglyceride
What is the name of the functional group NH2?
Amino
What type of enzyme catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate from ATP to another molecule other than water?
kinase
Which of the following molecules are produced during beta oxidation and can feed into the production of ATP? More than one will apply:
FADH2, NADH, Acetyl CoA
Which of the following lists of reactions includes ONLY catabolic reactions?
Glycolysis, beta oxidation, lipolysis
Which of the following molecules cannot feed into BOTH anabolic and catabolic reactions?
triglycerides
Which of the following is not a part of the matrix of connective tissue?
all of the options are components of the matrix
Which of the following type of epithelium is most suited to providing mechanical protection (i.e. from abrasion, trauma)?
stratified squamous
Which of the following is considered, "Connective tissue proper"?
dense connective tissue
What does the "p" mean when we use the term "pH"?
it indicates the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration
Substance X is 50% deprotonated at a pH of 8.5 and almost 100% deprotonated at a pH of 9.5. Which of the following best describes X?
weak base
Choose the TRUE statements regarding the Henderson-Hasselbach equation:
The pKa of the acid-base system is necessary to calculate the pH. The Henderson-Hasselbach equation is usually applied to weak acid/base systems.
A particular biochemical reaction is endergonic - however, it occurs spontaneously within the cell. Choose all valid explanations below:
The system tends to occur in non-standard conditions - there is an abundance of reactants, with few products. The reaction is coupled to another exergonic reaction.
Which of the following enzymes catalyze the conversion of Glucose to Glucose-6-Phosphate?
Hexokinase
Which of the following enzymes catalyze the conversion of Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate + dihydoxyacetone phosphate?
Aldolase
Why is the malate shuttle needed in gluconeogenesis?
Since oxaloacetate cannot cross the inner mitochondrial membrane
In order to convert pyruvate to phosphoenolpyruvate in the first bypass reaction of gluconeogenesis, which two enzymes are required?
Pyruvate carboxylase & phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
Glutamine synthetase catalyzes which of the following:
Direct incorporation of N into glutamate
What is the common precursor for the aspartate family of amino acids?
Oxaloacetate
What two molecules combine to start the urea cycle?
Ornithine and carbamoyl phosphate
What is the major force that drives gas movement in the microcirculation?
diffusion
Which of the following vascular structure will contain deoxygenated blood?
Pulmonary artery
Which amino acid is this?
leucine
Name the amino acid:
serine
What is the name of the functional group highlighted with the red box?
amino
What enzyme carries out the reaction below?
Mutase
NADH/NAD+ are derivatives of _________. In the reaction provided ____________ is being reduced.
B3; NAD+
Which of the following is TRUE regarding complimentary base pairing in DNA?
Adenine forms H-bonds with Thymine
Which of the following bases is not found in RNA ?
thyamine
Compare prokaryote and eukaryote transcription. Which of the following are correct?
Prokaryotic mRNA transcripts are translated right away since they do not need to be exported from the nucleus
If a protein is destined for a lysosome, what sort of sequence will it contain to direct translation to the rough ER?
signal peptide sequence
What nucleotide is modified and added to the 5’ end of the mRNA transcript during processing in eukaryotes?
Guanine
When a heavy metal such as lead (Pb+2) interacts with bonds within a protein, it can denature the protein. Which of the following bonds are vulnerable to this type of denaturation?
Disulfide bridge
Which of the following is an example of enzyme regulation via irreversible covalent modification?
Cleavage of a peptide bond in a proenzyme to form an active enzyme
Which of the following is FALSE regarding enzymes?
The enzyme is used up by the reaction and will need to be remade via transcription and translation
Which of the following is an example of enzyme regulation via reversible covalent modification?
Phosphorylation of glycogen synthase inhibits glycogenesis
What kind of bonds form the primary structure of a protein?
Peptide bond
Which of the following is true of any pseudo-first order reaction?
One substrate has a concentration is excess of what is needed
In a pseudo-first order hydrolysis reaction, how does doubling the amount of water affect the rate of the reaction?
None of these options are correct
What important piece of information can be gained from Michaelis Menten kinetics?
The affinity of an enzyme for its coenzyme
The right border of the heart is formed by:
The right atrium
The first heart sound (Lub) is associated with:
Closing of the AV valves
Which of the following statements are true regarding muscular movements driving ventilation?
Contraction of the diaphragm aids inspiration
When examining the posterior thorax, at what spinal level does the lung tissue usually descend to when your patient takes a deep breath?
T12
PDK1 (phosphoinositide-dependent kinase 1) is a key intracellular signaling component that:
associates with lipid rafts and activates Akt
Which of the following are true of the Gs type of G-protein?
it activates adenylyl cyclase
Choose the TRUE statements re: G-protein activation or inactivation.
G-proteins are in an inactivated state when the alpha and beta-gamma subunits are associated with each other. The alpha subunit of a G-protein is activate when it is bound to GTP.
What are the components of the common lipid membrane component sphingolipids?
1 fatty acyl group, ceramide backbone, polar head group
Which of the following statements regarding the cytoskeleton is true?
G-actin is the globular subunit of actin filaments and has intrinsic ATP-ase activity
Which of the following modifications would contribute to the most drastic loss of fluidity to the membrane?
removing cholesterol, removing unsaturation
Which of the following statements regarding the cytoskeleton is false?
The MTOC is an organized structure essential for centrioles in cell division made from a complex of microfilaments
Fill in the following blanks with the best answers below:
The lipid bilayer is permeable to (i) _____________ molecules such as carbon dioxide & steroids, but is impermeable to (ii) _____________ molecules such as glucose
(i) non polar, uncharged; (ii) charged, large polar
Which of the following statements is true regarding Starling forces?
the osmotic pressure is a "pulling" force that is higher in the capillary than the interstitial fluid
Which of the following is correct regarding Ohm's law?
Ohm's law states that current, or flow of ions, is directly related to the voltage difference - current increases as voltage increases. Ohm's law states that current, or flow of ions, is indirectly related to the voltage difference - current decreases as resistance increases.
Choose the factors that decrease the flow of fluid through a tube, as per Poiseuille's law:
an increase in the viscosity of the fluid in the tube, an increase in the length of the tube, a decrease in the radius of the tube that fluid flows through
Which of the following is the correct Nernst potential for K+ in most cells?
-90mV
According to Fick's law, the flow/flux of substances through the cell membrane are affected by all except the following:
osmotic pressure
Which of the following describes the correct order of translation initiation in eukaryotes?
Met-tRNAi binds to the P site of the small ribosomal subunit, small ribosomal subunit bind to the 5’ cap and then scans mRNA until is reaches AUG.
Which nucleotides have a double-ring base?
A & B
Which nucleotides have a single ring base?
B & C
Match the following terms:
Adenine = Thymine Guanine = Cytosine Chargaff's rule = number of purines = number of pyrimidines Uracil = Adenine
What forces are needed to stabilize the DNA double helix?
All options are correct
Consider the negative charge between phosphate groups within the sugar backbone.
Would these adjacent negative charges repel one another and destabilize the helix?
Which of the following bonds contribute to the stability of the DNA helix?
All of the above
Nucleosomes are the structural unit for packaging DNA.
True
Euchromatin is a densely packed form of chromatin.
False
Humans have 46 pairs of chromosomes.
False
What is the name of the non-coding sequence removed during splicing?
Intron
Which of the following RNA molecules directly codes for proteins?
mRNA
Match the following RNA types with their functions:
mRNA = Directly codes for proteins tRNA = translation to carry correct amino acid to the growing peptide chain snRNA = functions in the spliceosome rRNA = basic structure of ribosome complex
An Anticodon is what?
3 consecutive nucleotides that pair with the complementary codon in an mRNA molecule
Wobble hypothesis: despite 64 possible combinations of nucleotides into a 3-nucleotide codon, there are only 20 amino acids.
True
Match the following types of RNA to their function:
miRNA = regulate gene expression: block/prevent translation of specific mRNA's and promote their degredation siRNA = reduce gene expression: direct degradation of specific mRNA IncRNA = regulate gene expression: can increase or decrease transcription mRNA = Directly codes for proteins.
Which of the following RNA molecules are involved in gene regulation?
siRNA, miRNA, incRNA
What enzyme moves along the DNA, unwinding the DNA helix just ahead of the active site for polymerization?
RNA polymerase
What happens during the initiation phase of transcription?
TFII recognizes and binds a consensus sequence in the promoter region, other transcription factors join in, RNA polymerase II joins, Transcription initiation complex is completed.
During transcription which of the following proteins bind the TATA box within the promotor region?
TFII D
Which of the following is correct regarding RNA processing?
splicing is catalyzed by snRNA and proteins complexed into snRNP's.
The first amino acid added to any polypeptide is:
Methionine
Active transport: is a protein that moves a substance across a membrane against a concentration gradient using ATP.
True
What are some examples of active transports?
A & B
match the following transporters to their function:
Passive transport = A protein forms a channel that allows a substance across the membrane, along it's concentration gradient. (aquaporins) Facilitated transport = a protein carrier binds to a substance and transports it across a membrane, allowing it to follow it's concentration gradient. (glucose transporter/GLUT) Co-transport = The transport of two substances (x and Y) are coupled using the same protein. The concentration gradient of X favors movement into the cell-Y is "pulled" along, even if the gradient of Y does not favor cell entry (sodium-glucose and SGLT-1 and -2) Counter-transport = X and Y move in opposite directions across the cell membrane- the gradient of one of the molecules supplies the energy to drive the transport. (CL-/HCO3)
What functions does the cytoskeleton perform?
All options are correct
Match the following terms with their functions:
Microtubules = trafficking of organelles and cell division, organization of overall structure, cell movement, molecule-tubulin Microfilaments = cell movement, structural organization of plasma membrane Intermediate filaments = Overall structure integrity of the cell, variety of molecules - keratins, desmin Actin = Monomer-G actin; Polymer-F actin
Match the following Intermediate filaments:
Lamins = A network of filaments just under the nuclear membrane Keratins = Epithelial cells, hair, nails. Strong modified to limit water permeability Vimentin Family (Vimentin, Desmin, GFAP) = Confer stability and structure to: -many mesenchymal cells. - Muscle cells, some epithelial cells, -glial cells (a type of brain cell) Neurofilaments = Intermediate filaments found in neurons.
What are the components of a phospholipid?
All options are correct
Lipids can be broken down into two main classes: fatty acid, and isoprenoid
True
If both fatty acids are linked to the glycerol backbone with an ester link, it's called a Plasmalogen.
If one fatty acid is linked to the glycerol backbone with an ester link while the other has an ether link, it is called a phosphatidate.
False
What molecule is this?
Phosphatidic acid
What molecule is this?
Phosphatidylethanolamine
What molecule is this?
Phosphatidylserine
Name this molecule.
Phosphotidylcholine
Name this molecule
Sphingomyelin
What are the components of a glycerophospholipid?
2 hydrocarbon chains, glycerol, phosphate-alcohol head
What nucleotide is used to help with the addition of head group to phosphatidic acid?
Cytosine
Choose the true statement regarding cholesterol:
All options are correct
Match the following steps of cholesterol synthesis to its function:
Condensation = 3 acetyl CoA into Mevalonate Formation = of isopentenyl pyrophosphate Creation = of squalene Cyclization of = squalene to cholesterol
How many acetyl CoA are needed to make Mevalonate?
3 Acetyl CoA
The thick muscular wall that separates the left and right ventricle.
Interventricular septum
Atrioventricular valves are floppy in nature and are anchored by:
Chordae tendinae
What causes the "Dub" sound in the heart?
closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves (semilunar valves)
What is stenosis?
A & B are correct
Regurgitation is when the valve doesn't close fully.
True
Systole is when the heart muscles contract and diastole is when the heart muscles relax.
True
What statement regarding ficks law is true?
flow increases when the concentration gradient, surface area, and the permeability of the barrier to a substance all increase
Ficks law states that flow decreases when thickness of a membrane increases.
True
Match the structures of the respiratory system:
Nasal cavity and nasopharynx = "back of the nose and throat that lead to the larynx Larynx = Cartilaginous structure that contains the vocal folds Trachea = Midline, non-paired conducting airway Bronchi = Branching airways that contain variable amounts of cartilage
Movement of gas is driven by concentration gradients (diffusion) in the lungs.
True
The volume of the thoracic cavity increases causing a increase in the intrathoracic pressure.
False
Drop in intrathoracic pressure = drop in pressure of the airspaces of the lungs = movement of air from the atmosphere into the lungs.
True
Fissure dividing the superior lobe from the middle lobe, anteriorly: 4th rib -4th intercostal space
True
Inferior lobe airspaces descend from the(9th/10th) ____ rib posteriorly to the(11th/12th) _____rib on deep inspiration.
10th, 12th
Fluid in the pleural space is called what?
Pleural effusion
What is true about consolidation?
All options are correct
IncRNA can modify transcription by which of the following?
All options are correct
Match the following:
cAMP activates = PKA Ca2+ activates = CaM Kinase Ras activates = Map Kinase DAG + Ca2+ activates = PKC
JAK (janus Kinase) phosphorylates and activates transcription factors called STATS
True
Where is the thyroid receptor found?
In the nucleus
Thyroid hormone receptor is located in the nucleus, already bound to the DNA. Positively regulated genes will have what type of effect when the thyroid hormone binds to it?
Increased transcription
Inside the nucleus, the receptor will bind to a DNA sequence specific to the steroid receptor called:
Hormone Response element (HRE)
The net effect is that miRNAs with RISC (RNA-induced silencing complex) act to silence mRNA post-transcription.
True
Match the following with their function:
Bacteria = peptidoglycan cell wall; few species are harmful to humans; most are neutra Archaeans = Ribosomal structure closer to eukaryotes; found in extreme environments; none associated with disease Fungi = absorbative heterotroph; chitin cell wall; multicellular or unicellular Algae = unicellular or multicellular; categorized by their pigmentation and cell wall compositionno roots & all tissues are photosynthetic
which option lists the seven groups of microorganisms:
Bacteria, archaea, fungi, protozoa, algae, small multicellular animals, viruses
Match the following with their function:
Small multicellular animals = has multiple cells arranged in tissues and organs (ex: nematodes) viruses = infectious agents consisting of genetic material; requires a host to survive; surrounded by a capsid sometimes have a lipid layer Protozoa = unicellular; found in aquatic/terrestrial environments; Important for the ecosystem but can sometimes cause disease in animals and humans Eukaryotes = Unicellular, colonies, multicellular, proper nucleus with double membrane, linear chromosomes, cilia, pseudopodia, and many membrane bound organelles
Prokaryotes: usually unicellular, DNA housed in the Nucleoid region, DNA is usually circular, flagella, and no membrane-bound organelles
True
Who introduced the notion that "cells were the foundational unit of life?"
Robert Hooke
Who was the founder of microbiology?
Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek
Who was the founder of taxonomics?
Carolus Linnaeus
Taxonomics is a system for naming an animal.
False
What are the 7 levels of classification from top to bottom?
Species, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom
Who had the theory of "abiogeneses" or Spontaneous generation-life emerging from non-living matter.
Aristotle
Who supported the idea of spontaneous generation by leaving gravy in a flask, boiling it to kill bacteria, and letting it sit again?
John Needham
Who concluded that the microbes in the liquid were the progeny of microbes that had been on the dust particles in the air with the swan neck experiment disproving the spontaneous generation theory?
Pasteur
What is pasturization?
Heating juices just enough to kill most bacteria without ruining the juices taste and other qualities.
Pasteur hypothesis: Germ theory of disease
True
Who studied the etiology of infectious disease?
Robert Koch
Koch's Postulates include:
- The suspected causative agent must be found in every case of the disease.
- The agent must be isolated and grown outside the host.
- When the agent is introduced to a healthy, susceptible host, the host must get the disease.
- The same agent must be found in the diseased experimental host.
True
Match the following individuals to their contributions:
Ignas Semmelweis = Handwashing Joseph Lister = Antiseptic technique; disinfection Florence Nightingale = Introducing antiseptic techniques into nursing practices John Snow = successfully correlated cholera propagation with poor water sanitation. (lead to: infection control, epidemiology)
___________ (Variolation/Jenners vaccine) early method of immunization against smallpox.
Variolation
________ (Focal point/Focal length/Refractive Index) is a dimensionless number that describes how light propagates through a particular medium. It is a fundamental optical property that quantifies how much the speed of light is reduced when it travels through a medium compared to its speed in a vacuum.
Refractive Index
The ___________ (Focal Point/Focal Length/Refractive Index) is a specific point in space to which parallel rays of light or other waves converge after being reflected, refracted, or diffracted.
Focal Point
________ (Focal Point/Focal Length/Refractive Index) is a key parameter in optics that measures the distance between the optical center of a lens or a curved mirror and its focal point.
Focal Length
Resolution refers to the degree of detail or clarity of an image or the ability of a sensor or system to distinguish between closely spaced objects or features.
True
Numerical aperture characterizes the the ability of an optical system: NA=n⋅sin(θ)
NA is the numerical aperture. n is the refractive index of the medium between the lens and the specimen. θ is the half-angle of the maximum cone of light that can enter or exit the lens.
True
Immersion Oil is used to grow hair faster, and stronger.
False
Match the following microscopes with their functions:
Brightfield Microscopy = the specimen is illuminated with white light, and the image is formed by light transmitted through the specimen. Darkfield Microscopy = the specimen appears bright against a dark background, providing high contrast for observing fine details. Phase-contrast Microscopy = This technique allows for the visualization of fine details and internal structures within living cells without the need for staining or other contrast-enhancing methods. Differential Interference Contrast (DIC) Microscopy = enhances the contrast of transparent and colorless specimens by creating artificial shadows and highlights.
Fluorochromes (fluorescent dyes or fluorophores) are used to visualize and study biologic specimens.
Fluorescent microscopy
GFP is what?
Green fluorescent protein
Advanced optical imaging technique used for high-resolution, three-dimensional imaging of specimens. It offers improved optical sectioning, contrast, and resolution compared to traditional light microscopes.
Confocal Scanning Laser Microscope
Refers to a series of images taken at different focal planes along the Z-axis (perpendicular to the imaging plane).
Z Stack
________ (Fixation/Dye; Simple Stain/Differential Staining) a process in biological sample preparation that involves the use of chemical agents to preserve the structure of cells and tissues. Or a technique used in microbiology to affix microorganisms to a slide, allowing them to be stained for microscopic examination.
Fixation
________ (Fixation/Dye; Simple Stain/Differential Staining) involves the application of multiple stains to a sample, each of which interacts with specific structures, leading to differential coloration.
Differential Staining
______ (Fixation/Dye; Simple Stain/Differential Staining) the use of colored substances to enhance the visibility of microorganisms under a microscope.
Dye; Simple Stain
Gram-_________ (Positive/Negative) Bacteria:
-Thick peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall. -The peptidoglycan layer is closely packed. -Teichoic acids may be present in the cell wall. -No outer membrane outside the peptidoglycan layer.
Gram-_________(Positive/Negative) Bacteria: -Thin peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall. -The peptidoglycan layer is sandwiched between an inner and outer membrane. -Lipopolysaccharides (LPS) are present in the outer membrane. -No teichoic acids.
Positive, Negative
Choose the correct order of the Gram positive procedure.
Prepare a smear, fixation, primary stain(crystal violet), Iodine treatment (mordant), decolorization, counter stain (safranin), Rinse and blot, Microscopic examinaion
_______(Electron/Light) Microscopy: Relies on visible light to illuminate specimens. Limited by the wavelength of visible light (around 400-700 nm).
______(Electron/Light) Microscopy: Uses electron beams instead of light for imaging. Electrons have much shorter wavelengths than visible light (about 0.005 nm), providing higher resolution.
Light, Electron
Match the following buffers with their function:
Buffer = Prevent large changes in the pH of bodily fluid Phosphate = An important intracellular buffer, with minimal blood buffering ability Protein = An important extracellular buffer, with minimal intracellular buffering ability Bicarbonate = An important intracellular buffer, with some blood buffering ability.
What is a protein composed of two subunits called?
Dimer
What is a protein composed of several subunits called?
Oligomer
What is a protein composed of many subunits called?
Multimer
What is a repeating structural unit within a multimeric protein called?
Protomer
What is the Vmax?
The capacity to convert substrate to product.
What type of inhibition is this?
Competitive Inhibition
What type of inhibition is this?
Non-competative
Which inhibition is this?
Uncompetitive
Name the polar amino acid.
Threonine
Name the polar amino acid.
Tyrosine
Name the polar amino acid.
Asparagine
Name the polar amino acid.
Glutamine
Name the polar amino acid.
Cysteine
Name the non-polar amino acid.
Glycine
Name the non-polar amino acid.
Alanine
Name the non polar amino acid.
Valine
Name the non-polar amino acid.
Isoleucine
Name the non-polar amino acid.
Phenylalanine
Name the non-polar amino acid.
Tryptophan
Name the non-polar amino acid.
Methionine
Name the non-polar amino acid.
Proline
3NA+ ______ (into/out) of the ______ (cytosol/mitochondria) 2K+ _________ (into/out) of the _______ (cytosol, mitochondria)
Nucleosomes are composed of ____ (42/143/147) base pairs.
The highly regulated enzyme catalyzing the rate-limiting step of cholesterol synthesis is______? (Mutase/HMG CoA reductase/Reductase)
Insulin (activates/inhibits) this enzyme. Glucagon (activates/inhibits) this enzyme.
High intracellular cholesterol levels will (increase/decrease) the transcription of this enzyme
Note: list all responses with commas followed by a space (ex: out, in, cytosol, EFC) Answers are case sensitive, so write them out as you see them.
Osmolality refers to the concentration of dissolved particles such as chemicals, minerals, and ions in the blood. A normal serum osmolality range is approximately 275 to 295 mOsm/kg. Which of the following situations would result in fluid moving into the cell?
285mOsm/kg cell in a 100mOsm/kg solution
Test your knowledge on biology and biochemistry with questions about nucleotides, bond types, functional groups, enzymes, and molecules produced during beta oxidation.
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