Bone Marrow, Lymph, and Spleen

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following cell types is most abundant in red bone marrow?

  • myocytes
  • Osteocytes
  • hematopoietic stem cells (correct)
  • fibroblasts

Which of the following histological features is associated with yellow bone marrow?

  • presence of megakaryocytes
  • dominance of hematopoietic stem cells
  • Fine vascularization
  • Adipocyte rich tissue (correct)

Which factor stimulates mesodermal cells to become hematopoietic stem cells?

  • transforming growth factor or TGF beta
  • vascular endothelial growth factor
  • fibroblast growth factor 2 (correct)
  • platelet-derived growth factor

A 50-year-old patient undergoes an imaging study revealing a normal trabecular network of bone. However, the bone narrow appears more fluid-like and less rigid. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?

<p>the bone marrow is composed of Gelatinous bone marrow, which lacks the rigidity of bone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Limb from which of the following parts of the body does not enter into the systemic circulation through thoracic duct

<p>limb from the right arm. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Lymph from the right lymphatic duct enters the circulation at what point?

<p>the junction of the right subclavian vein and the jugular vein. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is true regarding lymph node drainage?

<p>lymphatics in the throat drain to the anterior cervical chain. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not a function of the spleen?

<p>Producing red blood cells in adults under normal conditions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary antibody produced by plasma cells in MALT?

<p>IgA</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the thymus during _ cell development?

<p>Induction of central tolerance</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key role of cells on _?

<p>Uptake and transfer of antigens to immune cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 10-year-old child presents to the clinic with a history of recurrent sore throats. Difficulty swallowing and bad breath over the past year. The parents report the child has missed multiple days of school due to illness. Physical examination reveals enlarged erythematous tonsils with visible crits containing white debris. He was diagnosed with chronic tonsillitis. What is a common result of chronic tonsillitis in children?

<p>formation of adenoids</p> Signup and view all the answers

This lymphoid organ has hassel corticosomes in its medulla.

<p>thymus</p> Signup and view all the answers

This lymphoid organ has a thin paracortical region between its cortex and medulla, containing high endothelial venues.

<p>lymph nodes</p> Signup and view all the answers

This lymphoid organ consists of white pulp and red pulp.

<p>spleen</p> Signup and view all the answers

You are a pathologist studying samples of tissue taken from patients at the operating room. To your annoyance, the intern on duty got some of the slides mixed up and you must identify the organ from its microscopic appearance. One set of slides labeled only lymphoid tissue shows a distinct cortex and medulla, but no lymphoid nodules. This sample is likely from which lymphoid organ?

<p>thymus</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a granulocyte characterized by a multi-lobe nucleus, three to five lobes, and is typically the first leukocyte to arrive at the site of infection?

<p>neutrophil</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which white blood cell differentiates into macrophages upon entering tissues?

<p>monocytes</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most numerous type of a granulocyte in normal blood smears with a lifespan that can vary from days to years depending on its specific function?

<p>lymphocyte (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 12-year-old patient presents with frequent sneezing and dark pigmentation under the eyes. Blood work is likely to reveal an elevation in which white blood cell type and what role does it play in the patient's condition?

<p>eosinophils</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements describes inflammation?

<p>clotting of fluids in the interstitial spaces due to increased amounts of fibrinogen. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not a classic sign of inflammation?

<p>PALOR</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cytokines is most closely associated with the initiation of the inflammatory response?

<p>tumor necrosis factor A</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic with a swollen, painful area on his left thigh that has been developing over the past three days. He reports the area has become increasingly red, warm, and tender and that he noticed a small yellowish discharge coming from the center of the swelling. He has a fever and feels generally unwell. The patient has a history of poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. On physical examination, there is a fluctuant mass in the center of the swelling which is tender to touch. What is the most likely cause of the formation of pus in this patient's condition?

<p>Bacterial infection leading to neutrophil infiltration. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What differentiates the effects of CC and CXC, chemokines, and immune cell migration?

<p>CC chemokines attract monocytes and lymphocytes while CXC chemokines primarily attract neutrophils. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of chemokines scavenging receptors and controlling inflammation?

<p>they degrade excess chemokines preventing overstimulation of leukocytes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true of phagocytosis?

<p>macrophages can phagocytize, digest, and function for many months. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme of the granules of phagocytic leukocytes is responsible for the green color of pus?

<p>NPO, myeloperoxidase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the first step in the respiratory burst mechanism?

<p>NADPH oxidase activation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which prognostic factor would be considered as high risk for a patient with acute lymphoblastic leukemia?

<p>WBC count of 48,000 cells per cubic millimeter (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary role of macrophage in the skin and subcutaneous tissue?

<p>Phagocytosis of pathogens and cellular debris (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a major cytokine secreted macrophages in the lymph nodes that helps mediate the immune response?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Macrophages in the lungs are primarily located in which of the following structures?

<p>alveolar spaces</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 34-year-old female presents to the clinic with a three-week history of a red, swollen, and painful area on her right lower lip. The swelling is localized to the subcutaneous tissue and she reports mild fever. A skin biopsy shows infiltrating immune cells in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue with numerous large phagocytic cells containing engulfed debris and bacteria. Which of the following is the primary macrophage type responsible for the observed immune response in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue of this patient?

<p>dermal macrophages in the skin and subcutaneous tissue. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a phagocyte in the liver?

<p>reticuloendothelial cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following structures is most effective at efficiently cleansing the blood from the gastrointestinal tract before they enter systemic circulation?

<p>Kupffer cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following structures contain dendritic cells?

<p>white pulp (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 60-year-old male presents with fatigue, pallor, and jaundice. His laboratory results revealed anemia with an elevated reticulocyte count and increased bilirubin levels. His medical history includes chronic alcoholism, and a physical examination reveals spenomena. Ultrasound of the abdomen confirms enlarged spleen, and a bone marrow biopsy shows increased erythropoiesis. Given the patient's clinical presentation and lab findings, which of the following is responsible for metabolizing the remnants of dead RBC?

<p>liver stellate macrophages. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Leukopenia refers to a condition in which the number of white blood cells is abnormally low. Which of the following is the most likely to cause leukopenia?

<p>decreased production of white blood cells in the bone marrow. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Leukopenia is commonly characterized by a low white blood cell count. Which of the following is a common cause of leukopenia?

<p>Viral infection (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main characteristic of leukopenia?

<p>Low white blood cell count (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with severe leukopenia presents with recurrent infractions in a history of chemotherapy. Laboratory tests reveal a low white blood cell count, particularly a reduction in neutrophils. Which of the following mechanism is most likely responsible for the patient's conditions?

<p>Disruption of normal hematopoiesis due to damage to the bone marrow's formal cells. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What differentiates chronic leukemia from acute leukemia?

<p>Chronic leukemia progresses slowly and involves more mature white blood cells. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes myelogenous leukemia?

<p>Derived from bone marrow cells that form granulocytes and other non-lymphoid cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary effect of leukemia in the bone marrow?

<p>Suppression of normal blood cell production. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 55-year-old man presents with fatigue and splenomegaly. Blood tests reveal a high white blood cell count with a predominance of myeloid precursors. And (inaudible) 922 chromosomal translocation, which is your Philadelphia chromosome. What is the most likely diagnosis?

<p>CML (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the role of eosinophils in parasitic infections?

<p>they release enzymes and reactive oxygen species to kill parasites. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with asthma, eosinophils accumulate in the perifroncial tissues due to the release of chemotactic factors by mast cells and basophils. How might targeting this chemotactic signal help in treating asthma exacerbations?

<p>by reducing the number of eosinophils in the lungs, thereby preventing airway inflammation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Hematopoietic stem cells

The most abundant cell type in red bone marrow; responsible for producing blood cells.

Yellow bone marrow

Adipocyte-rich tissue within bone marrow; indicates decreased hematopoietic activity.

Fibroblast growth factor 2

Stimulates mesodermal cells to become hematopoietic stem cells.

Right lymphatic duct

Enters circulation at the junction of the right subclavian and jugular veins.

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Lymphatics in the throat

Drains to the anterior cervical chain.

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Spleen function

Filtering blood and mounting immune response to bloodborne pathogens are two primary roles.

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Antibody in MALT

IgA.

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Primary function of thymus

Induction of central tolerance.

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Dendritic cells role

Uptake and transfer of antigens to immune cells presentation.

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Chronic tonsillitis result

Formation of adenoids.

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Lymphoid organ with paracortical region

Lymph nodes.

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White pulp and red pulp lymphoid tissue.

Spleen.

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Lymphoid tissue with cortex, medulla but no nodules.

Thymus.

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First leukocyte at infection site

Neutrophil.

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Becomes macrophages upon tissue entry

Monocytes.

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Most numerous agranulocyte

Lymphocyte.

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Elevated WBC in allergic reaction

Eosinophils for Allergic reaction.

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CC vs CXC chemokines

CC attracts monocytes/lymphocytes. CXC attracts neutrophils.

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Chemokine scavenging receptors

Degrade excess chemokines preventing overstimulation.

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Faster chemotactic responses

Neutrophils.

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Disrupt leukocyte migration

Decreased RhoA activation.

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Phagocytosis

Macrophages can phagocytize, digest and function for months.

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Enzyme responsible for green pus

Myeloperoxidase gives pus green color.

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First step in respiratory burst

NADPH oxidase activation.

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High risk prognostic factor

Age of 11 years old as a risk to acute lymphoblastic leukemia

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Location of Macrophages in the Lungs

Formation of alveolar spaces.

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Phagocyte in the liver

Hepatic stellate cells.

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Cleansing Blood for Gastrointestinal Tract

Kupffer cells.

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Dendritic Cells Containment

White pulp.

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Leukopenia

Decreased production of white blood cells in the bone marrow is a cause of less white blood count.

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Study Notes

Red Bone Marrow

  • Hematopoietic stem cells are the most abundant.

Yellow Bone Marrow

  • Adipocyte-rich tissue is a key histological feature.

Stimulating Mesodermal Cells

  • Fibroblast growth factor 2 stimulates mesodermal cells to become hematopoietic stem cells.

Gelatinous Bone Marrow

  • A normal trabecular network of bone with fluid-like marrow suggests the presence of gelatinous bone marrow, which lacks bone rigidity.

Systemic Circulation

  • Lymph from the right arm does not enter the systemic circulation through the thoracic duct.

Right Lymphatic Duct Circulation

  • Lymph from the right lymphatic duct enters circulation at the junction of the right subclavian vein and the jugular vein.

Lymph Node Drainage

  • Lymphatics in the throat drain to the anterior cervical chain.

Spleen Functions

  • The spleen filters and removes cold or damaged red blood cells.,
  • The spleen does not store platelets in white blood cells.

Red Blood Cells in Adults

  • Producing red blood cells is not a normal function of the spleen in adults, in normal conditions.

MALT Primary Antibody

  • IgA is the primary antibody produced by plasma cells in MALT.

Thymus Function

  • The thymus induces central tolerance during T-cell development, not B-cell production.

Cells Role

  • Cells function to uptake and transfer antigens to immune cells.

Chronic Tonsillitis

  • Formation of adenoids is a common result of chronic tonsillitis in children.

Lymphoid Organs

  • The thymus has hassel corticosomes in its medulla.
  • Lymph nodes have a thin paracortical region with high endothelial venules between the cortex and medulla.
  • The spleen consists of white and red pulp.
  • Thymus shows a distinct cortex and medulla without lymphoid nodules.

Granulocytes

  • Neutrophils, characterized by a multi-lobe nucleus (3-5 lobes), are the first leukocytes at infection sites.

White Blood Cells

  • Monocytes differentiate into macrophages after entering tissues.
  • C. lymphocytes are the most numerous granulocyte in normal blood smears, with lifespans varying from days to years.

Eosinophils

  • Blood work would reveal elevated eosinophils as a result of transplant rejection.

Inflammation

  • Inflammation involves clotting of fluids in interstitial spaces due to increased fibrinogen.
  • PALOR is not a classic sign of inflammation.

Cytokines

  • Tumor necrosis factor A is closely associated with initiating the inflammatory response.

Bacterial Infections

  • A bacterial infection leads to neutrophil infiltration.

Chemokines and Immune Migration

  • CC chemokines attract monocytes and lymphocytes, while CXC chemokines primarily attract neutrophils.

Chemokine Scavenging Receptors

  • Chemokine scavenging receptors degrade excess chemokines, preventing overstimulation of leukocytes.

Neutrophil Chemotaxis

  • Neutrophils have faster chemotactic responses due to CXCR1 and CXCR2 signaling, triggering rapid polarization.

Leukocyte Migration

  • Reduced calcium influx within leukocytes would likely disrupt leukocyte migration.

Phagocytosis

  • Macrophages can phagocytize, digest, and function for months.

Green Color of Pus

  • Myeloperoxidase, found in phagocytic leukocyte granules, is responsible for the green color of pus.

Respiratory Burst Mechanism

  • NADPH oxidase activation is the first step in the respiratory burst.

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

  • The most likely risk factor for acute lymphoblastic leukemia is Age of 11 years old and WBC count of 48,000 cells

Macrophages in Skin

  • Macrophages in the skin and subcutaneous tissue primarily phagocytize pathogens and cellular debris.

Cytokines Secreted by Macrophages

  • All of the above are major cytokines secreted by macrophages: Interleukin 1, Tumor Necrosis Factor Alpha and Interkeukin 5

Macrophages in Lungs

  • Macrophages in the lungs are primarily located in alveolar spaces.

Skin Biopsy Findings

  • Dermal macrophages in the skin and subcutaneous tissue are the primary macrophage type in a skin biopsy.

Phagocytes in the Liver

  • Reticuloendothelial cells are phagocytes in the liver, not hepatic stellate cells.

Blood Cleansing

  • Kupffer cells cleanse the blood from the gastrointestinal tract before it enters systemic circulation.

Dendritic Cells

  • White pulp contains dendritic cells.

Metabolizing Dead RBCs

  • Liver stellate macrophages metabolize the remnants of dead RBCs in the spleen.

Leukopenia

  • Leukopenia is most likely caused by decreased production of white blood cells in the bone marrow.

Chemotherapy

  • Chemotherapy causes disruption of normal hematopoiesis due to damage to the bone marrow's formal cells.

Chronic Leukemia

  • Chronic leukemia progresses slowly and involves more mature white blood cells not just red blood cells.

Myelogenous Leukemia

  • Myelogenous leukemia is derived from bone marrow cells that form granulocytes and other non-lymphoid cells.
  • Leukemia primarily causes suppression of normal blood cell production in the bone marrow.

Chromosomal Translocation

  • A 55-year-old male presents with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)

Eosinophils

  • Eosinophils combat parasites by releasing enzymes and reactive oxygen species to kill parasites.

Asthma

  • Asthma exacerbations could potentially be treated by reducing the number of eosinophils in the lungs, preventing airway inflammation.

Chemotaxis

  • C5a, an anaphylatoxin, initiates chemotaxis of neutrophils and macrophages, facilitating phagocyte migration.
  • Opsonization involves activating phagocytosis, where bacteria is engulfed after antigen-antibody complexes attach.

Neisseria Infections

  • The absence of complement protein C5 impairs the formation of the membrane attack complex, hindering lysis of bacteria and increasing susceptibility to Neisseria infections.
  • CD3 molecules in T-cells transmit activation signals via ITAMS and ZAP-70, key for T-cell receptor signaling.
  • MHC Class I peptides specificity depends on alpha helices flanking the peptide-binding groove.
  • Follicular dendritic cells present unprocessed antigen directly to Beta cells.

Antigen-Presenting Cells

  • Conventional dendritic cells specialize in cross-presentation.
  • CD4+ Cells (Helper T cells) are inactivated or destroyed by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).

Cytokines

  • IL-4 stimulates IgA production, indicating its role in humoral immunity.
  • IL-17 is responsible for neutrophil recruitment

AIDS

  • An AIDS patient with Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia likely has a CD4+ count less than 200 cells/µL.

Vaccines

  • MMR vaccine gives active immunity.
  • Active immunity requires previous exposure or vaccination, distinguishing it from passive immunity.
  • Delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions are characterized by T-cell mediated immunity
  • Tumor Necrosis Factor-Alpha (TNF-α).is most involved in a delayed hypersensitivity reaction
  • Urticaria is characterized by edema in the dermis and subcutaneous tissues Epinephrine is the treatment of choice for anaphylaxis

Asthma

  • A first line treatment in patients having bronchial asthma and acute exacerbation is Epinephrine Dyspnea with rashes are indicative of Type 1 hypersensitivity There is typically 4g/dL concentration of protein in lymph within deep nodes

Absence of Hemoglobin

Lymph is absent of erythrocytes

Prevents Capillaries from Collapsing

Anchoring filaments keeps lymphatic capillaries from collapsing under increased pressure

Molecules Entry

Lymphatic capillaries are enhanced at entry of large molecules, like aldehyde, and immune complexes

Lymph Flow Factors

The lymph flow is Increased interstitial fluid Colloid pressure T cell maturation Deletion of a self-reactive is T cell in the thymus is the basis for central immunity. Tumour cell destroy- Tumor cells

Adaptive Immunity Features

Adaptive immunity has memory for specific pathogens

Innate Immunity Features

Chemical and cellular mechanisms protect against the pathogens in innate immunity.

Vaccinations

During vaccinations NK system is engaged in virally infected cells targeting. Antibodies can direct to pathogens Antibodies generated are from B-cell

Antigen Presentation

The first step is binding to MHCII

Cell-mediated

Helper cells (CD4+) are activated via antigens presented to MHC class 2 B lymphocytes produce Antibiotics

Specificity

Lymphocyte specivity is based on T cell preprocessing in the thymus Reactant action prevention : Destruction during thymus preprocessing Secretion of antibodies by beta lymphocytes are not able to process because of B cells

Antibodies production : B lymhocytes

Cells and Organs

T ymphocytes are present in Thymu Organ A possible cause for an anterior medial mediastinal mass could be a tumor or a cyst of a structure involving the preprocessing of T lymphocytes

Actions of B Cells

Plasma blast are what B cells start as

Study Findings of B

high concentration of fighters antibodies are found in the blood: the blood from malt is most like Each plasma cells create antibody ghamaglobins Characteristics of B system:

  • rapid production
  • macrophages are presented to both B and T cells
  • the faster an antibody is reproduced the more lactose cells are created
  • Exposure of cells:

1st Year Understanding

FAB- disulfide bridges.

Immune-Globunlins

Igg that is how it crosses the placental barrier

Provide Immunity, it also provides immunity in the fetus Dimeric forms: two monomers are united by the subcomplexd the heavy chains

Antibody Mechanism

It becomes so big and it starts precipitating the substance

Determining Blood Goups

Antibodies: B type, the presence of antigens of surface RBC Antibodies: B type, the presence of antigens on surface RBC

  • does not target type a blood
  • Recognize and netraulize specific antogens are the function
  • Not characteristc: "it is the highest binding among all antibodies"

Both Anti - A $ B

Occurs in an ABO system, The term aggulatation mean Commonly occur

  • refer* to hemodialysis Transfusion reaction, kidney faillire

Genetic and Inherited A and B (AB Genotype)

Are not the most type of genes, the ones without B A is most prevalant If someone goes to surgery and needs blood and cannot get a type in time. O- can be given, and is not likely for to occur a reaction

Plasma Cells

Plays a role in agulation in the human system Found everywhere Is most relevant A person that is ab that is pregnant, most imprtant to do, give rogam if the mother lacks the antigen However blood types are classified or tested? It it because there c d and e antigen, and tested When a paitent that lack s b antogen is what a negattive shows

Destroying and Preventing

Destroyed by the immune d system, however preventing and limiting it is is key element in most patients

Othe rreactions

Autograpths, are better in low infection situations Oa genetpye is leats likely to occur in that patient- jaunduce

Digestion Absorption

Is to improve gut motility so bacteria can digest and be used for food

  • The three functions of kajal are:*
  • pacemaker
  • smooth muscle.

What causes this system the most

The most common casue is from ACetycholoine A lack of of system: colon is not growing and peristolsis Submicosal, what is submicosal and what is submicosal?

GI, BACTERIA, AND FUNCTIONS

  • GI is what you need for all
  • Bacteria helps with everything you

The stomach it has.

  • distention
  • Myoentric reflex

REABOSRTION OF CI

Is due to rebasoring of NA It stimulates taste and is found

  • in the hypothalmous a. to make intestines not distent. b. 1.8 -3.5, for the highest acitvtiy of pepsiogen c. H2 inhibts. d. A lack of hc will leave people tired
  • g cells inhibit. the stomach, there for inhibit from being bad for the digestive tract

Potassium

Potassium pumps

Hormone

Hormone is secerten, in responste to acids.

Component

Bile aids. In order to. Cck

Fat Digestion

What the best fat dirge is in the Fat desion

What prevents fat

  • in a abundance of bil, most fat is asorbed, and without that none of the fat is able to be used for food
  • High fat, must have all to be used
  • Monosuccsraties are a good soruce of protiens after being used and is absorbed there
  • the gut is not always safe, must keep it clean and not stay
  • the total of quantity is more than 8 liters of fluid you gut most to have diarrea
  • vitamin K helps stop the colon from being broken
  • vitamin K helps stop the colon from being broken

Atmospheric Pressure

It increases as altitude increases It is important for O2 levels It is important for O2 level It is important for 02 levels
It is responsible for confusion It is the o2 we breathe

HIAP-0xyegn

Aids O2 intake increase oxygenate o2 the right amount

What makes you strong

It helps to stay ready for the next big oppurtinity that keeps you strong. That makes so the muscles don't need to work.

What is the highest the you body can endure it

With bend knees and flex the muscles

Accelerations

Its linear, however the higher you go on a plane and it turns, more more more turns, but it stay in pace, the more accelation happens

  • arterial increase. and 0 levels come down
  • pulmory. arteries slowly goes back
  • it helps to work though it while things are increasing
  • O2 must increase to combat the nitrogen levels

The Most important

Must be high O and must not make many cells The depth of h20 for pressure to crush a hull of a human. And kill with that pressure

What makes you survive most situation

The volume will always increase or the body will What makes you survive most situation Its. high levels of increase to reach good levels What makes you survive most situation That helps prevent the narcosies With cells It is high due all the above mentioned

Must start with a good base to lift and start The most important thing the be ready Must maintain the cells together

  • the. heart and kidney must act up or the vessels are going fail due the all that is over working

Most common factors or items

They stay the samw always That's it, a heatstroke that is most dangerous, and heat is the most damaging This is the way, this the way is and always will be That it all it can due to the high damage The most must come back that that

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