Bone Anatomy and Fractures Quiz

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Questions and Answers

What is the primary unit of cortical bone?

  • Periosteum
  • Trabeculae
  • Osteon (correct)
  • Osteocytes

Cancellous bone is characterized by its irregular meshwork of trabeculae.

True (A)

What is the difference between woven bone in immature animals and woven bone in adult animals?

Woven bone in immature animals is considered physiologic and part of normal bone growth, whereas woven bone in adult animals is considered pathologic and indicates an abnormal response to injury.

The ______ is a fibrous sheet that covers bone and has an inner osteogenic layer.

<p>periosteum</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of bone formation lacks a cartilage precursor?

<p>Intramembranous ossification (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cartilage is vascular in adults.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the process of bone healing where bone ends come into direct contact?

<p>Primary bone healing</p> Signup and view all the answers

A ______ is a piece of dead bone separated from healthy bone during necrosis.

<p>sequestrum</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following terms with their descriptions:

<p>Exostosis = Bone/cartilage growth on the outer surface of bone Enostosis = Bone/cartilage growth on the inner surface of bone Osteoblasts = Cells that create new bone Osteoclasts = Cells that break down bone</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of fracture is characterized by weakened or diseased bone?

<p>Pathologic fracture (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Traumatic fractures typically have sharp outlines, while pathologic fractures often have rounded edges.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain the difference between a traumatic and a pathologic fracture.

<p>A traumatic fracture occurs due to an external force applied to a healthy bone, while a pathologic fracture occurs in a weakened or diseased bone, even with minimal or no trauma.</p> Signup and view all the answers

An articular fracture involves the ______ of a bone.

<p>joint</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term for a false joint that can form if fracture ends are not stable?

<p>Pseudoarthrosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Large necrotic bone fragments (sequestra) usually resolve quickly and do not delay healing.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a cause of ischemic muscle injury?

<p>Vitamin E/Selenium deficiency (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Nutritional myopathies are caused by a lack of essential nutrients, such as Vitamin E and Selenium.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the three syndromes associated with Vitamin E/Selenium deficiency in pigs?

<p>White muscle disease, Mulberry heart disease, Hepatosis dietetica</p> Signup and view all the answers

Seasonal Pasture Myopathy in horses is caused by the consumption of ______ and ______ trees.

<p>Box elder, Sycamore maple</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of Exertional Myopathy?

<p>Vitamin E deficiency (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following genetic myopathies with their respective causes.

<p>Equine Polysaccharide Storage Myopathy = Glycogen Branching Enzyme 1 Deficiency Myofibrillary Myopathy = Unknown, but likely multiple genetic mutations Glycogen Branching Enzyme 1 Deficiency = GBE1 mutation, leading to an inability to release glucose from glycogen Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis = SCN4A mutation, affecting muscle sodium channels Malignant Hyperthermia = RR mutation, leading to excessive calcium release X-linked Muscular Dystrophy = Dystrophin mutation, resulting in absent dystrophin EPSSM Type 2 = Unknown genetic mutation, with familial basis</p> Signup and view all the answers

Polymyositis is primarily a disease affecting the skeletal muscles, with only limited involvement of the heart.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the two main muscles affected in Masticatory Myositis?

<p>Temporalis and masseter muscles</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential trigger for Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis (HYPP) episodes?

<p>All of the above (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Equine Polysaccharide Storage Myopathy is characterized by an accumulation of ______ in the muscle.

<p>glycogen</p> Signup and view all the answers

Malignant Hyperthermia is only seen in horses and is not found in other species.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic of X-linked Muscular Dystrophy in terms of its effect on the dystrophin protein?

<p>Absent dystrophin</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a potential clinical sign of Exertional Myopathy?

<p>Heart failure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The accumulation of ______ in the muscle is a characteristic feature of Myofibrillary Myopathy.

<p>desmin aggregates</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of pneumonia is often presented in foals aged 1-6 months due to the pathogen equi?

<p>Pyogranulomatous bronchopneumonia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Sepsis can lead to bone infection.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common symptom of metaphyseal osteopathy in large breed dogs?

<p>Lameness and swollen painful metaphyses</p> Signup and view all the answers

The condition characterized by disrupted blood supply to the femoral head is called __________.

<p>necrosis of the femoral head</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following joint conditions with their causes:

<p>Joint dysplasia = Joint instability Age-related degeneration = Prior orthopedic injury Joint laxity = Chronic joint injury DJD = Age-related degeneration</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which breed of dog is genetically predisposed to panosteitis?

<p>German Shepherd (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Articular cartilage has a rich supply of nerves and vessels.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What leads to the erosion of articular cartilage?

<p>Joint dysplasia, joint laxity, orthopedic injury, or age-related degeneration</p> Signup and view all the answers

In cases of osteomyelitis, bone infection can occur due to __________.

<p>hematogenous spread</p> Signup and view all the answers

What radiographic feature is associated with metaphyseal osteopathy?

<p>Double physis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition can cause abortion or stillbirths in animals?

<p>Osteosclerosis of vertebral end plates (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Feline calicivirus is associated with immune-complex pathogenesis in Feline 'Limping Syndrome'.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common cause of bird arthritis?

<p>Reovirus</p> Signup and view all the answers

Arthritis in reptiles and birds is often associated with high ________ diet.

<p>protein</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following diseases with their associated characteristics:

<p>Degenerative joint disease = Physical damage to articular cartilage Caprine Arthritis Retrovirus (CAEV) = Proliferative fibrinous arthritis Immune-mediated polyarthritis = Most common polyarticular disease in dogs Aricular Gout = Common in species producing uric acid</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended action if an outbreak of Poultry Viral Arthritis occurs?

<p>Cull affected birds (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Immune-complex deposition in the synovium is associated with immune-mediated polyarthritis.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is often a primary concern in animals producing uric acid?

<p>Aricular Gout</p> Signup and view all the answers

Fibrinous arthritis with synovial hyperplasia is often diagnosed in ________ syndrome.

<p>Feline 'Limping'</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of Degenerative joint disease?

<p>Systemic lupus erythematosus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common eyelid neoplasm in dogs?

<p>Meibomian gland adenomas (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Blepharitis is an inflammation of the cornea.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is characterized by the rolling inward of the eyelid?

<p>Entropion</p> Signup and view all the answers

The main cause of chemosis is __________.

<p>Conjunctivitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the eyelid diseases with their descriptions:

<p>Blepharitis = Inflammation of the eyelids Meibomian gland disease = Includes chalazion and meibomitis Entropion = Inward rolling of eyelid Keratoconjunctivitis sicca = Dry eye disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common cause of conjunctivitis in cats?

<p>Feline herpes virus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The tear film is composed of three layers: lipid, aqueous, and mucin.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of glaucoma?

<p>Blockage in the aqueous humor outflow (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name one type of neoplasia that commonly affects the eyelids in cats.

<p>Squamous Cell Carcinoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

The __________ produces the mucin portion of tears.

<p>Goblet cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

Normal intraocular pressure (IOP) ranges from 5-15 mmHg.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is goniodysgenesis?

<p>Congenital abnormality of the iridocorneal angle.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which layer of the cornea is 90% of its thickness?

<p>Stroma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca is also known as dry eye disease.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The presence of __________ in the anterior chamber indicates anterior uveitis.

<p>aqueous flare</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following conditions with their definitions:

<p>Glaucoma = Condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure Uveitis = Inflammation of uveal tissue Hypopyon = Presence of WBC in anterior chamber Cataracts = Lens opacity leading to potential blindness</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does SCC stand for in relation to eyelid neoplasia in cats?

<p>Squamous Cell Carcinoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of anterior uveitis?

<p>Cataracts (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The anterior layer of the tear film is known as the __________ layer.

<p>Lipid</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which abnormality is most associated with the merle gene in dogs?

<p>Microphthalmia (B), Microcornea (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Secondary glaucoma can occur due to uveitis.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What causes the iris to appear congested in cases of iritis?

<p>Rubeosis iridis or inflammation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

The __________ is responsible for preventing the movement of proteins in the eye.

<p>blood-ocular barrier</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does chronic glaucoma have on the eye's structure?

<p>Phthisis bulbi (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Hyphema refers to the presence of proteins in the anterior chamber.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do zonule fibers play in relation to the lens?

<p>They hold the lens in place and prevent lens luxation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Increased intraocular pressure can lead to __________ and permanent blindness.

<p>optic nerve degeneration</p> Signup and view all the answers

In terms of lens diseases, what is nuclear sclerosis?

<p>Age-related changes to the lens (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Compact Bone

The outer layer of bone, containing osteons which are the primary units. Known for its strength.

Cancellous Bone

The inner layer of bone, containing trabeculae that form an irregular meshwork. It contains hematopoietic tissue and/or adipose tissue.

Woven Bone

Immature bone tissue that's physiologically present in young animals and pathologically in adults.

Osteoblasts

Cells responsible for creating new bone by producing osteoid, the non-mineralized matrix of the bone.

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Osteoclasts

Cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Think removal and reshaping.

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Osteocytes

Living cells within mature bone, trapped in lacunae. They help with remodeling the bone in response to stressors.

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Periosteum

Fibrous sheath covering the bone with two parts: an outer layer (for attachment) and inner, osteogenic (bone-producing).

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Intramembranous Ossification

Process of directly producing bone from osteoblasts, without a cartilage precursor. Seen in flat bones of the skull and width of long bones.

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Endochondral Ossification

Process of replacing cartilage precursor with bone. Forms the length of long bones and vertebrae.

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Bone Infarction

Lack of blood supply to a bone, leading to tissue death and potential sequestrum formation.

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Sequestrum

A piece of dead bone that has separated from healthy bone during necrosis, often surrounded by viable bone.

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Traumatic Fracture

A fracture occurring due to trauma in healthy bone, characterized by sharp outlines and external force involvement.

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Pathologic Fracture

A fracture occurring in weakened or diseased bone. The edges are rounded, and it can be caused by various factors like neoplasia or osteomyelitis.

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Articular Fracture

A fracture involving a joint, ultimately leading to joint disease.

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Avulsion Fracture

A fracture where a tendon or ligament pulls a bone fragment away from the main bone.

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Equine Rhodococcus Equi Infection

A bacterial infection in foals that often presents as pyogranulomatous bronchopneumonia and colitis, leading to sepsis and hematogenous spread to bone.

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Metaphyseal Osteopathy

A non-infectious bone disease in large-breed dogs, typically affecting young dogs between 3-6 months old. It involves necrosis and inflammation of the metaphysis with microfractures, causing lameness, fever, and swelling.

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Panosteitis

A condition primarily affecting the long bones of large-breed dogs, typically aged 5-12 months. It causes medullary necrosis, fibrosis, and bone proliferation, leading to lameness and pain in the affected bones.

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Necrosis of the Femoral Head

A condition in small toy breed dogs, typically affecting those between 5-8 months old. It involves disruption of blood supply to the femoral head, leading to osteonecrosis, fibrosis, collapse of articular cartilage, and aseptic arthritis.

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Articular Cartilage

The smooth, white, gliding tissue covering the ends of bones in a joint. It's made up of 70-80% water and receives nutrients from synovial fluid.

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Synovial Membrane

A fibrous membrane that lines the joint cavity, secreting synovial fluid to lubricate the joint. It also plays a role in protecting and nourishing the cartilage.

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Articular Cartilage Damage

A process where the articular cartilage becomes worn or damaged, often due to injury, dysplasia, or degenerative changes.

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Supporting Bone Response to Injury

The response of bone to injury or instability. It involves the formation of bony growths (osteophytes) on the edges of the joint.

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Synovial Villous Hyperplasia

The thickening and proliferation of the synovial membrane due to injury or inflammation, resulting in joint swelling.

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Pannus Formation

A fibrovascular membrane growing over the articular surfaces of a joint, often caused by chronic inflammation or rheumatoid arthritis.

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Canine Osteosclerosis

A condition affecting the vertebral end plates, often accompanied by spondylosis (bony growths). It can lead to pregnancy complications such as abortion or stillbirth.

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Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis

A viral disease in goats caused by the Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis Virus (CAEV). It manifests as joint inflammation, progresses to fibrosis (scarring), and can affect other systems like the brain, udder, and lungs.

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Feline Limping Syndrome

A viral disease in cats characterized by limb pain and inflammation. The exact cause is unknown, but viral antigens have been found in joint fluid, suggesting an immune-mediated response.

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Poultry Viral Arthritis

A viral disease in poultry, specifically chickens, caused by Reovirus. It leads to inflammation of tendons around the hock joint, causing lameness and swelling.

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Immune-mediated Polyarthritis (IMPA)

A condition in dogs that causes inflammation of multiple joints, potentially leading to degeneration and stiffness. It is an autoimmune disorder resulting from immune system dysfunction.

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Degenerative Joint Disease (DJD, aka Osteoarthritis)

Deterioration of joint cartilage, leading to pain, stiffness, and reduced mobility. It occurs due to wear and tear, trauma, or age-related changes in cartilage.

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Articular Gout

Deposit of uric acid crystals in joints, commonly seen in reptiles and birds. It's usually related to kidney disease, dehydration, or high protein diets.

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Bacterial Arthritis in Pigs

An infection of joints caused by bacteria, prevalent in pigs. It can lead to inflammation, pain, and joint damage.

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Tenosynovitis

Inflammation of the tendons, a condition affecting the tendons that surround joints, often leading to pain, swelling, and difficulty moving.

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Goniodysgenesis

A congenital abnormality in the iridocorneal angle, resulting in the absence of normal drainage structures.

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Glaucoma

A group of eye diseases characterized by elevated intraocular pressure (IOP), which damages the optic nerve and can lead to blindness.

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What is the normal IOP range?

Normal intraocular pressure (IOP) range.

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What causes glaucoma?

Glaucoma arises from blockages in the outflow of aqueous humor, not from increased production.

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Primary Glaucoma

A type of glaucoma where iris tissue expands over the ciliary cleft, obstructing the flow of aqueous humor.

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Gonioscopy

A technique used to diagnose glaucoma by examining the iridocorneal angle.

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Blood Ocular Barrier

The blood-ocular barrier prevents the movement of proteins and low-molecular-weight solutes into the anterior chamber and uvea.

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Uveitis

Inflammation of the uveal tract, which can disrupt the blood-ocular barrier.

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Anterior Uveitis

Inflammation of the anterior segment of the uveal tract, including the iris and ciliary body.

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Aqueous Flare

A sign of anterior uveitis, characterized by proteins or inflammatory debris floating in the anterior chamber.

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Miosis

A sign of anterior uveitis, caused by spasm of the ciliary muscles, resulting in a small pupil.

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Hypopyon

The presence of white blood cells (WBCs) in the anterior chamber, often due to inflammatory conditions.

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Hyphema

The presence of blood in the anterior chamber.

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Keratic Precipitates (KP)

A sign of anterior uveitis characterized by white cells attached to the posterior side of the cornea.

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Rubeosis Iridis

Congested blood vessels in the iris, typically observed in chronic anterior uveitis.

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Dermoid or Choristoma

A normal tissue (like skin or hair) growing in an abnormal location, often on the eyelid, conjunctiva, or cornea.

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Blepharitis

Inflammation of the eyelids, caused by various factors such as bacterial infection, allergies, parasites, or immune-mediated diseases.

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Meibomitis

Inflammation of the Meibomian glands, responsible for producing the oil component of tears.

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Chalazion

A chronic inflammation of a Meibomian gland, causing a noticeable swelling.

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Meibomian Gland Adenoma

A type of neoplasm (tumor) originating from the Meibomian glands, commonly found in dogs.

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Conjunctivitis

Inflammation of the conjunctiva, the lining of the eyelid and the white part of the eye.

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Chemosis

A clinical sign of conjunctivitis characterized by swelling of the conjunctiva.

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Cornea

The transparent front surface of the eye that helps focus light.

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Sclera

The white part of the eye, providing structural support.

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Limbus

The junction between the cornea and sclera.

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Descemet's Membrane Detachment

A condition where the Descemet's membrane, a layer in the cornea, separates from the underlying tissue, causing corneal edema.

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Ulcerative Keratitis

An ulceration (sore) on the cornea.

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Indolent Ulcer

An ulceration on the cornea that heals slowly or not at all, but isn't infected.

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Infected Ulcer

A deep ulceration on the cornea that's infected.

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Descemetocele

A deep and thin corneal ulceration that may be about to perforate (burst).

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Pannus

An immune-mediated disorder affecting the cornea, leading to inflammation and pigmentation.

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Malignant Edema

A condition characterized by muscle necrosis and swelling, often due to disrupted blood flow caused by trauma, embolism, or external pressure. It can be fatal in severe cases.

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Thromboembolism-induced Muscle Necrosis

A type of muscle necrosis caused by a blockage of blood flow to the affected area. Examples include thromboembolism due to neoplasia, DIC, or sepsis.

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External Pressure Muscle Injury

A condition caused by prolonged pressure on muscles, leading to muscle damage and necrosis. Seen in downer cows, dystocia, and animals with bandages or tight wraps.

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Internal Pressure Muscle Injury

A condition caused by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to reduced blood flow and muscle damage. Often seen after prolonged recumbency, trauma or anesthesia.

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Vitamin E/Selenium Deficiency Myopathy

Muscle damage and weakness caused by a deficiency in vitamin E and selenium. Often seen in pigs, ruminants, and horses, presenting with stiffness, arched back, and painful movement.

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Selenium Deficiency in Horses

A specific form of vitamin E/Selenium Deficiency in horses, particularly affecting foals. Presents as weakness, especially in postural muscles, weak sucking, and dysphagia.

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Equine Motor Neuron Disease

A neurogenic atrophy of muscles caused by chronic vitamin E deficiency, seen in horses. It involves oxidative damage causing muscle necrosis and motor neuron degeneration leading to weakness, recumbency, and trembling.

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Vitamin E/Selenium Deficiency in Pigs

A group of syndromes in young, rapidly growing pigs caused by vitamin E/Selenium deficiency, leading to various muscle problems.

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White Muscle Disease in Pigs

A syndrome in pigs caused by vitamin E/Selenium deficiency, characterized by muscle necrosis in the longissimus dorsi and hind limbs.

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Mulberry Heart Disease

A serious condition in pigs caused by vitamin E/Selenium deficiency, leading to microvascular necrosis in the heart and potential sudden death.

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Hepatosis Dietetica

A condition in pigs caused by Selenium deficiency, leading to severe liver damage and potential sudden death.

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Plant-induced Toxic Myopathies

A type of myopathy caused by toxic plants, affecting both skeletal muscles and heart, often with white muscle-like appearance.

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Seasonal Pasture Myopathy in Horses

A condition in horses caused by the toxic effects of toxins found in box elder trees and sycamore maples, leading to skeletal muscle necrosis and myoglobinuria.

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Ionophore-induced Myopathies

A type of myopathy caused by the use of ionophores, which are antibiotic compounds used as feed additives. They can affect skeletal muscles and heart, with horses being more sensitive.

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Exertional Myopathy

Muscle damage and breakdown caused by excessive exertion, leading to muscle necrosis and myoglobinuria. Primarily seen in horses and working dogs.

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Genetic Myopathies

A group of inherited muscle disorders that cause muscle dysfunction due to genetic mutations affecting various processes within the muscle.

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Study Notes

Bone Pathology

  • Anatomy & Response to Injury:
    • Compact bone is the outer layer, cortical bone is the primary unit of lamellar bone.
    • Cancellous bone is the inner cavity made of spongy bone with trabeculae. Woven bone (in immature animals) eventually progresses to lamellar bone. Abnormal woven bone in adults is pathological.
    • Osteoblasts create new bone, forming osteoid (non-mineralized bone matrix).
    • Osteoclasts break down bone. Osteocytes are living mature bone cells formed when osteoblasts are trapped within lacunae, and are involved in bone remodeling.
    • Periosteum, a fibrous sheet covering bone, has two layers: an inner osteogenic layer which produces bone (intramembranous ossification) and a non-specific in response to injury (pathologically). Woven bone is replaced with bone in this process.
    • Intramembranous ossification creates bone directly from osteoblasts, lacking cartilage precursors and is utilized for flat bones of skull.
    • Endochondral ossification utilizes cartilage precursors to produce bone, increasing the length of long bones and vertebra.
    • Young animals are more prone to joint infections due to capillary loop development within cartilage.
    • Blood vessels supply the avascular cartilage in adults: nutrient, metaphyseal, periosteal, and epiphyseal.

Bone Injury: Fractures

  • Infarction:
    • Blood loss causes wedge shape pallor and necrosis.
    • Sequestrum is the infected bone surrounded by viable bone, resulting from inflammation and an accumulation of purulent exudate, leading to pathologic fracture of diseased bone.

Bone Injury: Physeal Fractures

  • Bone Healing: The primary contact healing through osteon system and cutting cones of osteoclasts, followed by secondary non-rigid fixation. Four phases: hematoma (2 weeks), granulation tissue to fibrocartilage soft callus (2-6 weeks), hard callus with osteoblast and osteoclast recruitment (6-8 weeks), and bone remodeling (months to years). Stability and close proximity of fracture ends is critical for healing (can result in pseudoarthrosis - false joint), as well as removal of necrotic fragments. Infection delays healing.

Non neoplastic bone proliferation

  • Exostosis: Bone/cartilage growth on the outer surface of bone.
  • Enostosis: Bone/cartilage growth on the inner surface of bone. Usually secondary to inflammation.
  • Osteophyte: Growth of bone in the joint capsule margin, often seen in arthritis.
  • Enthesophyte: Growth at tendon or ligament insertion site.
  • Osteochondroma: A defect in skeletal development. Usually inherited. Multiple exostoses often seen in cartilage.

Hypertrophic Osteopathy

  • Can transform into osteosarcoma/chondrosarcoma. Spreads from periosteal formation along diaphysis of long bone. Intrathoracic disease can be a factor, such as pulmonary carcinoma, which leads to altered vasovagal input with intrathoracic dz. Not an inherited disorder.

Growth Disorders and Retards

  • Description and causes of specific growth retardations and arrest

Osteogenesis Imperfecta, Osteopetrosis, Osteosclerosis

  • Description and causes of specific growth disorders and bone diseases.

Craniomandibular Osteopathy

  • Autosomal recessive: Occurs in young dogs (4-7 months).
  • Symptoms: Painful mastication affecting eating ability.

Chondrodysplasia

  • Inherited defects: in endochondral ossification (in epiphyseal and metaphyseal regions).

Osteochondrosis

  • Acquired defect in endochondral ossification: impaired vascular supply to physis, leading to necrosis & retained necrotic cartilage.
  • Multiple factors: Large size, growth rate, diet (high copper) & genetic factors cause cartilage failure to mineralize and bone to replace it.

Cervical Vertebral Myelopathy

  • Two forms: Static (narrowed spinal canal) and dynamic (instability). Congenital disorders in horses & dogs often have symptoms related to the narrowing of the spinal canal in the cervical region.

Epiphysiolysis

  • Impaired endochondral ossification: causing weak epiphysis, and separation from metaphysis. Often seen in pigs, dogs, and cats. The affected animals may have other specific underlying diseases.

Metabolic and Growth Disorders: Bone Growth Disorders

  • Primary physis and metaphyseal (injury/development): affects the growth of the bone.
  • Vessels in beams allow osteoblasts to enter & remodel primary trabeculae to create secondary trabeculae.

Infectious Arthritis

  • Route of entry: Hematogenous, extension of osteomyelitis, soft tissue extension, iatrogenic procedures, and direct penetrating injury.
  • Some infections come from elsewhere in the body to the joint cavity.

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