Lecture module 4 - Body Fluids and Composition

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following factors contribute to the variability in total body water among individuals?

  • Gender and age only.
  • Gender, age, and body composition. (correct)
  • Dietary intake of sodium and potassium.
  • Body composition (muscle vs. adipose tissue) only.

In a typical human body, what approximate percentage of the extracellular fluid is comprised of interstitial fluid?

  • 95%
  • 80% (correct)
  • 50%
  • 20%

Which of the following accurately describes the primary cation found in the intracellular fluid (ICF)?

  • Calcium
  • Chloride
  • Potassium (correct)
  • Sodium

Which of the following is the major anion present in the extracellular fluid (ECF)?

<p>Chloride (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The composition of plasma closely mirrors the composition of which other body fluid compartment?

<p>Interstitial fluid (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a primary function of plasma proteins like albumin?

<p>Creating oncotic pressure to retain fluid within blood vessels (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides water, what other components contribute to the composition of plasma?

<p>Salts, plasma proteins, dissolved gases, and waste products. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true regarding the movement of substances between plasma and interstitial fluid?

<p>Most ions and small solutes can move freely between plasma and interstitial fluid. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which electrolyte is NOT typically found in normal solar plasma light?

<p>Calcium (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a typical component of Lactated Ringer's solution?

<p>Dextrose (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended maximum daily dose of Hetastarch (a type of starch-based IV fluid)?

<p>20 mL/kg (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In patients experiencing significant blood loss, which type of intravenous fluid is typically administered?

<p>Isotonic crystalloid or colloid (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of blood volume is typically comprised of plasma?

<p>55% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a primary source of blood cells in adults?

<p>Bone marrow of the breast, pelvis, and spine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cells in the liver are responsible for breaking down red blood cells?

<p>Kupfer cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the process of red blood cell breakdown, what is heme broken down into?

<p>Iron and bilirubin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is NOT a potential cause of anemia?

<p>Hypertension (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What glycoprotein is responsible for transporting iron in the bloodstream?

<p>Transferrin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Approximately what percentage of absorbed iron is directed to the bone marrow for the production of new erythrocytes?

<p>80% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of iron deficiency?

<p>Excessive vitamin D consumption (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might patients who have undergone bariatric surgery be at risk for iron deficiency?

<p>Impaired nutrient absorption (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential risk associated with blood transfusions due to the presence of antigens on red blood cells?

<p>Agglutination reaction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a person has type O blood, which antigen(s) are present on the surface of their red blood cells?

<p>Neither A nor B antigens (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes the behavior of isotonic fluids when administered intravenously?

<p>They primarily remain in the extracellular space due to their osmolality being similar to physiological levels. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of fluid balance, what is the definition of a 'balanced crystalloid'?

<p>A crystalloid that closely mirrors plasma serum levels of electrolytes and osmolality. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary clinical application of isotonic crystalloid solutions?

<p>To treat deficits in the extracellular space and administer drugs or blood products. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the Strong Ion Difference (SID)?

<p>The difference between commonly measured strong cations (sodium, potassium) and the strong anion chloride. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Using the simplified equation (Sodium + Potassium) - Chloride, what would be the approximate Strong Ion Difference (SID) if a patient has a sodium level of 142 mEq/L, a potassium level of 4 mEq/L, and a chloride level of 102 mEq/L?

<p>44 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does an increased Strong Ion Difference (SID) typically affect serum pH, and why?

<p>It increases pH because the body excretes hydrogen ions to maintain neutrality. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does a decreased Strong Ion Difference (SID) typically lead to acidosis?

<p>By resulting in lower levels of bicarbonate and a relative excess of hydrogen ions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might administering large amounts of normal saline contribute to metabolic acidosis?

<p>Normal saline contains high levels of chloride, which decreases the strong ion difference. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a healthy patient with normal fluid dynamics, approximately what percentage of infused crystalloid solution remains in the intravascular space?

<p>20-25% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which clinical scenario would the effect of crystalloid fluid administration be prolonged, resulting in a greater percentage of the fluid remaining in the intravascular space?

<p>In a patient who is significantly dehydrated or hemorrhaging. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary effect of administering hypotonic crystalloid solutions, such as half-normal saline, on body fluids?

<p>It causes water to shift into cells from the extracellular space. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for the decline in the use of hydroxyethyl starches (HES) in recent years?

<p>Association with excess bleeding, kidney injuries, and adverse events. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For which of the following conditions would hypertonic crystalloid solutions be most appropriate?

<p>Removing excess water from cells in conditions like cerebral edema. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately compares the electrolyte composition and effects of normal saline (0.9% NaCl) and balanced crystalloid solutions like Lactated Ringer's (LR) or Plasma-Lyte?

<p>Normal saline has high sodium and chloride levels that can contribute to acidosis, while balanced crystalloids more closely resemble physiologic levels. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which patient population should hydroxyethyl starch (HES) be avoided?

<p>Critically ill patients at risk for renal dysfunction. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might hydroxyethyl starch (HES) cause prolonged adverse effects in the kidneys and skin?

<p>HES remains in tissues for an extended period, potentially causing renal dysfunction and pruritus. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of liver disease is admitted with hypovolemia. Which crystalloid solution should be administered cautiously?

<p>Lactated Ringers (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the suggested replacement ratio of crystalloid solution to blood loss?

<p>1.5 to 1 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is being resuscitated with intravenous fluids following a severe burn injury. Which type of crystalloid solution is MOST appropriate for initial volume replacement?

<p>Normal saline (0.9% NaCl) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstances might a dextrose-containing IV fluid be administered during anesthesia?

<p>To maintain stable glucose levels in patients undergoing islet cell transplantation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When are colloids preferred over crystalloids for volume expansion?

<p>When the patient has minimal capillary leak and is fluid responsive. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary consideration when choosing between colloids and crystalloids for volume replacement in anesthesia?

<p>The healthcare costs associated with each type of solution. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of coagulopathy requires volume replacement. Which fluid should be avoided?

<p>Hydroxyethyl starch (HES) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What potential adverse effect is associated with the delayed filtration of larger molecules of hydroxyethyl starch (HES)?

<p>Prolonged presence in tissues, leading to renal dysfunction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason dextrose-containing solutions are typically avoided in anesthesia?

<p>To avoid hyperglycemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with left ventricular dysfunction and high afterload, how would the Frank-Starling curve likely appear?

<p>Lower and flatter, plateauing more quickly, reflecting reduced cardiac reserve. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing surgery experiences significant blood loss. Initial resuscitation should typically involve which type of intravenous fluid?

<p>Crystalloid solution (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What physiological parameter is directly assessed during an expiratory occlusion test to determine fluid responsiveness?

<p>Changes in preload. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common application of ultrasound or echocardiography in assessing a patient's volume status?

<p>Direct measurement of central venous pressure. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference in volume replacement between crystalloids and colloids?

<p>Crystalloids are typically replaced on a 1.5:1 basis, while colloids are replaced on a 1:1 basis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are balanced solutions preferred over normal saline for intravenous fluid administration?

<p>Balanced solutions have a lower risk of causing electrolyte imbalances and acidosis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following parameters can the Pleth Variability Index (PVI), derived from pulse oximetry, help assess?

<p>Fluid responsiveness. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does an increasing lactate level typically indicate regarding a patient's physiological state?

<p>Decreased perfusion and anaerobic metabolism. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a known effect of Hydroxyethyl starch (HES) on coagulation?

<p>Decrease in Factor VIII and von Willebrand factor (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient exhibits signs of coagulopathy after receiving a dose of Hydroxyethyl starch (HES), what is the recommended course of action?

<p>Avoid administering any further doses of HES. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the total body water in liters of a healthy 70 kg adult, and what proportion of this is typically extracellular fluid?

<p>42 liters, with 33% being extracellular. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT typically associated with hyponatremia?

<p>Rebound edema. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following options details a common treatment for hyperkalemia and the mechanism by which it works?

<p>Administer insulin and glucose to shift potassium intracellularly. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a solution is labeled as 5% dextrose, what does this percentage represent in terms of concentration?

<p>50 milligrams of dextrose per milliliter of solution. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the amount of dextrose in milligrams in 500 ml of a 10% dextrose solution?

<p>50,000 mg (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic primarily distinguishes crystalloids from colloids?

<p>Crystalloids contain electrolytes and low molecular weight molecules, but no proteins. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What physiological change in stored red blood cells impairs oxygen delivery to tissues?

<p>Depletion of 2,3-DPG. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In tissues with continuous endothelium, such as the blood-brain barrier, what structural feature primarily restricts the passage of substances from the vasculature to the interstitial space?

<p>Extremely tight junctions between endothelial cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the age of stored red blood cells potentially lead to transfusion reactions?

<p>Changes in cell shape can impair flow through microcirculation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of IV fluids, how are crystalloid solutions typically classified?

<p>Based on their osmolality compared to plasma. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary concern regarding the accumulation of red blood cell fragments in older stored blood?

<p>Increased likelihood of aggregated clumps of cells. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are isotonic crystalloid solutions commonly used in anesthesia?

<p>They have a similar osmolality and electrolyte profile to plasma, minimizing fluid shifts. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of capillary endothelium is characterized by large gaps and a jagged basement membrane, facilitating the reabsorption of various substances?

<p>Discontinuous endothelium (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of crystalloid fluid is most likely to be used to draw fluid from the intracellular space into the extracellular space?

<p>Hypertonic (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the depletion of ATP in stored red blood cells affect potassium levels in transfused patients?

<p>Increased risk of hyperkalemia due to potassium leak from cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of fluid movement between compartments, what is the primary reason that proteins and macromolecules generally do not move freely between the intravascular and interstitial spaces?

<p>The endothelial cells lining the vessels form tight junctions and the glycocalyx layer acts as a barrier. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why aren't hypertonic or hypotonic fluids typically a first choice for IV fluid resuscitation?

<p>They can cause rapid and dangerous fluid and electrolyte shifts. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During inflammation, what change in endothelial cell function contributes to increased fluid leakage from the vasculature into the tissues?

<p>Damage to the glycocalyx layer and opening of the pores, allowing larger molecules to pass through. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of acute anemia for surgical patients, what is the generally accepted hemoglobin threshold for transfusing red blood cells?

<p>7-8 g/dL (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might a cardiac patient require a higher hemoglobin transfusion threshold than a typical surgical patient?

<p>Cardiac patients need a higher oxygen supply to meet myocardial demands. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the role of the glycocalyx layer in regulating substance movement across the endothelium?

<p>It acts as a barrier, catching and preventing different substances from crossing the border. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under normal physiological conditions, approximately what percentage of albumin is expected to move out of the vascular space into the interstitial space?

<p>5% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factors might prompt a clinician to initiate a blood transfusion sooner than waiting for the hemoglobin level to drop to the standard threshold?

<p>Patient exhibits signs and symptoms of ischemia or reduced oxygen delivery. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of capillary endothelium would you expect to find in the kidney glomeruli, and how does its structure relate to its function?

<p>Fenestrated; to allow selective passage of fluid and small molecules. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Approximately how much does one unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) typically raise a patient's hemoglobin level?

<p>1 g/dL (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might a clinician choose to use advanced monitoring, such as an arterial line or central line with CVP, instead of standard non-invasive monitoring?

<p>Only when the surgical procedure or the patient's comorbidities increase the risk of significant volume status changes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is generally the expected increase in hematocrit after transfusing one unit of packed red blood cells?

<p>3% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a septic patient, the movement of albumin from the vascular space to the interstitial space can increase significantly due to inflammation. By approximately how much can this movement increase compared to normal conditions?

<p>It can nearly quadruple, causing significant fluid shifts and edema. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of blood transfusions, what is the primary purpose of using filters?

<p>To remove aggregates, clots, and perform leukocyte reduction. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are large-bore IVs preferred over central lines for red blood cell transfusions in the operating room?

<p>Large-bore IVs allow for faster and more efficient transfusion rates. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary initial approach to replacing blood loss in a patient?

<p>Using a combination of crystalloid and/or colloid solutions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to keep blood products refrigerated until the point of transfusion?

<p>To maintain the viability and integrity of the blood cells and components. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes how smaller ions move between the extracellular space, interstitial space, and plasma?

<p>They move freely, resulting in similar levels across these compartments. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the endocrine system and the gut, what characteristic feature is present in the endothelium that allows for selective absorption of molecules and substances?

<p>Fenestrations that can be induced to allow the absorption of different molecules. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How might anesthetic agents and surgical trauma impact a patient's ability to compensate for acute anemia?

<p>They can impair compensatory mechanisms, reducing the ability to tolerate anemia. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is warming previously thawed blood products recommended before transfusion?

<p>To help reduce the risk of hypothermia and coagulopathy in the patient. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary rationale for monitoring intravascular volume status during surgical procedures?

<p>To guide fluid, electrolyte, and blood product therapy. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What information should be communicated to the blood bank when returning a blood product that has been out of refrigeration?

<p>The length of time the blood product was kept out of refrigeration. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of nitric oxide scavenging by aged red blood cells in the context of transfusion?

<p>It impairs endothelial cell function which can cause free radicals to develop. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following intravenous solutions is NOT recommended for administration with red blood cells?

<p>Dextrose-containing solution (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a young, otherwise healthy patient, at what hemoglobin level might a clinician consider a more conservative (lower) transfusion threshold?

<p>Around 6 g/dL because of their ability to compensate. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions would most likely lead to an increase in vascular permeability, allowing more albumin to leak into the interstitial space?

<p>Inflammation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it generally recommended to avoid administering red blood cells with other blood products (like platelets or cryoprecipitate) in the same tubing simultaneously?

<p>To avoid potential interactions and clumping between different blood components. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which blood component change is associated with triggering hemolysis?

<p>Interaction of agglutinins and antigens (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which of the following tissues would you expect to find fenestrated endothelium?

<p>Kidney (glomeruli) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum timeframe for freezing fresh frozen plasma (FFP) after collection to be labeled as FFP-24?

<p>24 hours (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing a complex surgical procedure has a history of significant cardiovascular disease. Which monitoring strategy would be most appropriate for this patient?

<p>Arterial line and central line with CVP monitoring. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which coagulation factors are significantly reduced in plasma during prolonged storage?

<p>Factors V and VIII (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what clinical scenario is plasma administration most commonly reserved, rather than given with initial packed red blood cell transfusions?

<p>In patients who have received massive transfusions and are at risk of dilutional coagulopathy. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical dosing range for plasma administration to increase plasma factor concentrations by approximately 30%?

<p>10-15 mL/kg (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides reversing warfarin's effects, what other condition can plasma be used to treat?

<p>Coagulation factor abnormalities (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is cryoprecipitate?

<p>The protein fraction that remains after thawing fresh frozen plasma. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which coagulation factors are highly concentrated in cryoprecipitate?

<p>Factors I, VIII, and XIII (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does cryoprecipitate get stored for longer periods of time?

<p>The residual is refrozen. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might a medical practitioner give both plasma and platelets to a patient?

<p>It can sometimes be hard to know exactly what a patients is dealing with, so the practitioner anticipates problems with both coagulation factors and platelets. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following intraoperative factors can contribute to hypovolemia?

<p>Patient position during surgery (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known coagulopathy is undergoing surgery and experiences significant bleeding. What is the most appropriate initial step in managing potential hypovolemia in this scenario?

<p>Address the coagulopathy while providing volume support (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a surgical procedure, an adult patient experiences a sudden drop in blood pressure. After ruling out equipment malfunction, you suspect hypovolemia. According to the information, what would be an appropriate initial crystalloid bolus to administer?

<p>250-500 ml (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the rationale behind goal-directed fluid therapy (GDFT)?

<p>Optimizing volume status before initiating vasopressors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with pre-existing heart failure is undergoing a surgical procedure. Which consideration is most important when administering fluids to this patient?

<p>Carefully monitoring for signs of fluid overload and adjusting fluid administration accordingly (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing a lengthy surgery suddenly develops signs of dilutional coagulopathy. What is the most likely cause?

<p>Inadequate replacement of coagulation factors due to excessive crystalloid administration (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a surgical procedure, a patient experiences vasodilation and hypotension due to the effects of anesthesia. What is the most important initial step to consider?

<p>Reducing the depth of anesthesia while assessing the need for fluids (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential risk associated with excessive fluid administration?

<p>Dilutional coagulopathy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of Enhanced Recovery After Surgery (ERAS) protocols, goal-directed fluid therapy is used to:

<p>Ensure optimal volume status before using vasopressors (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing bowel preparation before surgery is at risk for:

<p>Hypovolemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient receiving a dense regional anesthetic experiences hypotension. Instead of immediately administering fluids, the provider should FIRST consider:

<p>Reducing the level/density of the anesthetic block (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which patient factor increases the risk of hypervolemia during surgery?

<p>Renal failure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a surgical case with expected large blood loss, a protocol dictates an initial fluid bolus of 3 ml/kg, followed by maintenance fluids. Dynamic parameters rise above a certain point, according to the protocol. What is the next step?

<p>Administer a 250 ml bolus and assess again (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is undergoing surgery and develops hypotension. The anesthesia provider suspects hypovolemia, but the patient also has significant myocardial depression from the anesthetic. What is the most appropriate next step?

<p>Reduce anesthetic depth while carefully administering fluids (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best reflects the potential impact of anesthetics on fluid management?

<p>Anesthetics can cause vasodilation and myocardial depression, potentially mimicking hypovolemia. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does controlled mechanical ventilation increase intrathoracic pressure?

<p>It delivers a positive pressure breath, increasing pressure in the chest cavity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does increased intrathoracic pressure during mechanical ventilation affect venous return and ventricular filling?

<p>It compresses vessels, potentially reducing venous return and the ability of the ventricles to fill. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What physiological conditions should ideally be constant to accurately assess respiratory variation in mechanically ventilated patients?

<p>Consistent ventilation, stable vasomotor tone, and stable cardiac function. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a respiratory variation of greater than 10-12% in a mechanically ventilated patient typically suggest?

<p>The patient is likely hypovolemic and may be responsive to fluid administration. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the Frank-Starling curve, how does increasing preload affect stroke volume in a volume-responsive patient?

<p>It causes a significant increase in stroke volume. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is pulse pressure variation calculated using arterial line waveforms?

<p>((Maximum pulse pressure - Minimum pulse pressure) / Average pulse pressure) * 100% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How might spontaneous ventilatory effort by a patient on a ventilator affect the accuracy of dynamic parameters?

<p>It introduces irregularities in intrathoracic pressure, reducing the accuracy of dynamic parameters. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides spontaneous breathing, what other factor related to ventilator settings can significantly affect intrathoracic pressure and measurements?

<p>High PEEP (Positive End-Expiratory Pressure). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What surgical condition significantly impacts the accuracy of intrathoracic pressure monitoring during mechanical ventilation?

<p>Open thoracic surgery. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions can limit the reliability of using pulse pressure variation (PPV) to assess fluid responsiveness?

<p>Arrhythmias (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the plateau phase of the Frank-Starling curve indicate regarding fluid administration and its effect on stroke volume?

<p>A state where additional fluid administration leads to minimal or no improvement in stroke volume. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on mechanical ventilation has a high dose of vasoactive infusion. How does this affect their fluid responsiveness according to the Frank-Starling curve?

<p>It decreases fluid responsiveness, potentially placing the patient on the flatter part of the Frank-Starling curve where volume loading has minimal effect. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a mechanically ventilated patient, what initial intervention should be considered if hypotension is observed alongside a high pulse pressure variation (above 12%)?

<p>Administer a fluid bolus to increase preload and stroke volume. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient with right heart failure is on mechanical ventilation, why might using respiratory variation to guide fluid management be unreliable?

<p>Right heart failure alters the relationship between intrathoracic pressure and cardiac output, making respiratory variation less predictive of fluid responsiveness. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with increased intra-abdominal pressure is being mechanically ventilated. How does this condition affect the interpretation of pulse pressure variation?

<p>Increased intra-abdominal pressure falsely elevates pulse pressure variation, making it difficult to accurately assess fluid responsiveness. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential immunomodulatory effect of allogeneic blood transfusions?

<p>Suppression of the recipient's immune response. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why has the risk of infections from blood products decreased over time?

<p>Advances in methods to inactivate viruses in blood products. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which clinical presentation is more indicative of TACO (Transfusion-Associated Circulatory Overload) rather than TRALI (Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury)?

<p>Hypertension and tachycardia. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying mechanism of TRALI (Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury)?

<p>Neutrophil and endothelial activation leading to vascular injury and edema. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What considerations should be made when suspecting a patient has TRALI after a transfusion?

<p>Alert the blood bank for investigation and potential donor exclusion. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is calcium relevant when administering lactated ringer solution during blood transfusions?

<p>Citrate in stored blood binds calcium, potentially leading to hypocalcemia; LR contains calcium. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of citrate in stored blood products?

<p>To prevent activation of clotting factors. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which blood product contains the highest concentration of fibrinogen, making it useful in cases of severe bleeding?

<p>Cryoprecipitate. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the storage of plasma, which coagulation factors are most susceptible to degradation, potentially affecting the efficacy of the product?

<p>Factors V and VIII. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In cases of massive hemorrhage and traumatic injury, what immediate intervention might be initiated by first responders before the patient reaches the operating room?

<p>Direct transfusion of blood products on the scene. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a pediatric patient, what is the general guideline for cryoprecipitate dosing?

<p>1-2 units per 10 kg (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides triggering a reaction, what is another potential consequence of transfusing allogeneic blood?

<p>Alteration of the recipient's immune response. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What could initiate TRALI in a patient?

<p>Lipids in stored blood. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it crucial to transfuse cryoprecipitate (cryo) within 4 hours of thawing?

<p>To prevent the degradation of clotting factors, ensuring optimal efficacy. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known Factor XIII deficiency is scheduled for a minor surgical procedure. Which blood product would be MOST appropriate to improve hemostasis?

<p>Cryoprecipitate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a good trigger for cryo administration?

<p>Fibrinogen below 80-100 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential cause of massive hemorrhage during surgery?

<p>Perforation of a major blood vessel (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a trauma patient with active hemorrhage, what is the primary reason for administering cryoprecipitate?

<p>To rapidly increase fibrinogen levels to support clot formation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST significant risk associated with storing platelets at 22°C?

<p>Increased risk of bacterial contamination and growth. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are platelet products typically leukoreduced before transfusion?

<p>To reduce the risk of febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a platelet count of 60,000/µL is scheduled for an orthopedic surgery. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate course of action?

<p>Delay surgery and transfuse platelets to achieve a platelet count between 50,000 and 100,000/µL. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which patient population is at the HIGHEST risk of developing graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) following a platelet transfusion?

<p>Immunocompromised patients following bone marrow transplantation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the primary goal when managing a patient experiencing massive hemorrhage?

<p>Balancing volume resuscitation with coagulation management. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might platelet products be irradiated before transfusion in certain patient populations?

<p>To inactivate donor lymphocytes and prevent graft-versus-host disease (GVHD). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected increase in platelet count after administering one single donor apheresis platelet unit to an adult patient?

<p>30,000-50,000/µL (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Endothelialopathy, a common consequence of extensive vascular injury, primarily affects which of the following processes?

<p>Maintenance of vessel structure and coagulation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A neurosurgery patient with a craniotomy is found to have a platelet count of 70,000/µL. What is the MOST appropriate course of action regarding platelet transfusion?

<p>Transfuse platelets to achieve a target count of 80,000-100,000/µL. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are blood products, such as plasma, now prioritized over crystalloid solutions in the initial resuscitation of patients with massive hemorrhage?

<p>Blood products help restore tight junctions between endothelial cells and osmotic balance, with anti-inflammatory effects. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a normal platelet count but continues to exhibit signs of bleeding and poor clot formation. What condition should be suspected?

<p>Platelet dysfunction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a significant concern regarding high-volume resuscitation with crystalloid solutions in patients experiencing massive hemorrhage?

<p>Dilutional coagulopathy. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary concern associated with accelerated clot breakdown (excessive fibrinolysis) in trauma patients?

<p>Uncontrollable bleeding due to impaired clot stability. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of massive transfusion protocols for trauma patients, how are platelets typically administered relative to other blood products like plasma and cryoprecipitate?

<p>Platelets are often administered after plasma and cryoprecipitate. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When administering blood products to a patient who is hypothermic, which intervention is MOST beneficial?

<p>Using a blood warmer during transfusion. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with severe bleeding is found to have a significantly prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) due to hypofibrinogenemia. Which blood product is most appropriate to administer?

<p>Cryoprecipitate. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical lifespan of platelets in circulation?

<p>8-12 days (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is a potential complication of rapid and massive transfusion of red blood cells?

<p>Hypocalcemia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does trauma-induced coagulopathy differ from disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

<p>Trauma-induced coagulopathy is typically localized to areas of endothelial disruption, whereas DIC is more widespread. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a platelet count of 450,000/µL and shows no signs of bleeding. What information does this platelet say about the quality and function of the platelets?

<p>The quality and function cannot be determined by the platelet count alone. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary rationale for using thromboelastography (TEG) or rotational thromboelastometry (ROTEM) in managing coagulopathy during massive hemorrhage?

<p>To guide goal-directed management by assessing clot formation and stability. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the resuscitation of a trauma patient, what is the potential consequence of administering cold blood products rapidly without using a blood warmer?

<p>Arrhythmias related to hypothermia. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In trauma-induced coagulopathy, the balance between anticoagulation and procoagulation is disrupted. What is the result of this imbalance?

<p>Abnormal clotting, accelerated clot breakdown, and increased bleeding. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best explains how hypothermia exacerbates coagulopathy in trauma patients?

<p>It impairs clotting factor function and platelet activity, worsening the coagulopathy. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A trauma patient with massive bleeding has laboratory results revealing a low fibrinogen level. Besides cryoprecipitate, what is another option to increase the patient's fibrinogen level?

<p>Administer fibrinogen concentrate. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who received a massive transfusion is showing signs of hyperkalemia. Which factor associated with the transfusion most likely contributed to this condition?

<p>Storage of red blood cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential benefit of administering plasma during the resuscitation of a patient with massive hemorrhage and trauma-induced coagulopathy, beyond its volume expansion effect?

<p>Plasma can help restore tight junctions between endothelial cells. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST accurate definition of massive transfusion?

<p>Administration of more than 10 units of blood products in 24 hours. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the general recommendation for the ratio of blood products in massive transfusions?

<p>One unit of FFP, one unit of platelets, and one unit of red blood cells. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When administering plasma during a massive transfusion for coagulopathy, what is the typical goal for the patient's prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)?

<p>PT below 18 seconds and aPTT below 35 seconds (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of massive transfusion, what is the primary goal of administering cryoprecipitate?

<p>To increase fibrinogen levels (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a reasonable target platelet count when managing coagulopathy during a massive transfusion?

<p>Greater than 150,000/μL (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a commonly accepted hemoglobin level goal during a massive transfusion?

<p>8-10 g/dL (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential concern associated with aggressive crystalloid administration during massive transfusion?

<p>Dilutional coagulopathy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do red blood cells play in hemostasis, beyond oxygen transport?

<p>Releasing ADP to activate platelets (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential consequence of excessive crystalloid infusion during resuscitation, beyond dilutional coagulopathy?

<p>Abdominal compartment syndrome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a trauma patient requiring massive transfusion, which clinical findings would MOST strongly suggest the need for initiating a massive transfusion protocol?

<p>Hypotension and tachycardia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is ionized calcium frequently measured during massive transfusions?

<p>To monitor for citrate toxicity and resultant hypocalcemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a typical intervention for hypocalcemia observed during a massive transfusion protocol?

<p>Administration of calcium gluconate or calcium chloride (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of using anti-fibrinolytic agents in the management of massive blood loss?

<p>To promote clot formation and prevent clot breakdown (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes a practical method for tracking the volume of blood products administered during a massive transfusion in a busy clinical environment?

<p>Placing empty blood product bags on the floor to visualize the quantity administered. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which specific surgical scenario is massive transfusion MOST likely to be anticipated and prepared for?

<p>Liver transplant (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary concern regarding hypervolemia in the context of massive transfusions for patients with liver disease or undergoing cardiac surgery?

<p>It could potentially have adverse effects on portal circulation and cardiac function. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for administering uterotonics in cases of postpartum hemorrhage?

<p>To increase uterine smooth muscle contraction and reduce bleeding. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is minimizing crystalloid administration beneficial in patients experiencing postpartum hemorrhage?

<p>Crystalloids dilute coagulation factors, exacerbating bleeding. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What potential adverse effects are associated with rapid or high-dose administration of IV oxytocin?

<p>Arrhythmias and hypotension. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of postpartum hemorrhage, when might methergine be considered as a treatment option?

<p>When oxytocin and tranexamic acid are ineffective. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with severe liver disease is undergoing a major surgery. Which coagulation factors are most likely to be deficient, increasing the risk of bleeding?

<p>Factors II, VII, IX, and X. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a massive transfusion, a patient continues to bleed despite receiving adequate amounts of packed red blood cells and fresh frozen plasma (FFP). What is the most likely cause of the ongoing bleeding?

<p>Dilutional thrombocytopenia. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is undergoing a massive transfusion, and their blood type is unknown. Which type of packed red blood cells should be transfused initially?

<p>O negative. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After administering oxytocin to a postpartum patient, you observe signs of cardiovascular instability. Which of the following actions is most appropriate?

<p>Reduce the rate of oxytocin infusion or discontinue it. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of hypertension is experiencing postpartum hemorrhage. Which uterotonic agent should be used with caution or avoided?

<p>Methergine. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the approximate increase in platelet count expected after administering a single apheresis unit of platelets to an adult patient?

<p>30,000-50,000/µL. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient receiving a blood transfusion develops acute hypoxemia, pulmonary edema, and non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema. Which of the following transfusion reactions is most likely?

<p>Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the approximate hematocrit of a unit of packed red blood cells?

<p>55-60%. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a massive transfusion protocol, a patient's laboratory results show a normal coagulation factor level, but continued bleeding is noted. Which blood product should be administered next?

<p>Platelets. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a postpartum hemorrhage protocol, what is the primary mechanism by which tranexamic acid (TXA) helps to reduce bleeding?

<p>Inhibiting fibrinolysis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In contemporary perioperative fluid management, what is a key change compared to historical practices?

<p>A shift towards more restrictive fluid administration strategies. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary reason for the contemporary move towards more restrictive fluid administration in perioperative settings?

<p>To align with enhanced recovery protocols (ERAS) and reduced NPO times. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements best describes the current understanding of the long-term effects of restrictive fluid regimens?

<p>Some studies suggest a possible correlation between restrictive fluid regimens and increased rates of acute kidney issues. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with pre-existing hyperkalemia is undergoing surgery. Which intravenous fluid would be MOST appropriate?

<p>Normal Saline (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Large-volume administration of Lactated Ringer's (LR) carries a risk of which metabolic disturbance?

<p>Hyperlactatemia, metabolic alkalosis and hypotonicity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which colloids like albumin contribute to maintaining fluid volume in the vascular space?

<p>Colloids increase the osmotic pressure, drawing fluid into the bloodstream. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential concern when administering balanced salt solutions like Lactated Ringer's (LR) to a patient receiving blood products?

<p>Binding of calcium by citrate in the blood products (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing surgery identifies as one of Jehovah's Witnesses. Which of the following considerations is MOST important when determining the appropriate choice of intravenous fluids?

<p>Avoiding the use of albumin-containing solutions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant advantage of using pasteurized albumin compared to synthetic colloids?

<p>Reduced risk of viral transmission (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which clinical scenario might 25% albumin be preferred over 5% albumin?

<p>Treatment of a patient who requires colloid administration but should not receive large fluid volumes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Clinical trials comparing albumin to crystalloids for volume resuscitation have demonstrated:

<p>No significant difference in mortality, length of stay, or time on ventilator. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are intravenous fluids increasingly administered via pumps in perioperative settings?

<p>To facilitate goal-directed fluid therapy protocols. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is scheduled for surgery at 2 PM. According to current enhanced recovery protocols, what guidance should the patient receive regarding fluid intake?

<p>The patient should continue taking carbohydrate-rich fluids up to 2 hours before surgery. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with normal potassium levels is scheduled for a surgical procedure. Which of the following statements best describes the approach to using balanced solutions containing potassium?

<p>Balanced solutions containing potassium can be considered because they are not expected to cause a significant increase in serum levels. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known allergy to synthetic colloids requires volume resuscitation. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate alternative?

<p>Normal Saline (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might trending static parameters provide an incomplete picture of a patient's circulatory status?

<p>Static parameters, like non-invasive blood pressure, may take time to measure, missing immediate changes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can an overactive sympathetic nervous system in young patients mask hypovolemia?

<p>By triggering compensatory mechanisms that maintain normal blood pressure and heart rate. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is CVP not a reliable indicator of preload and fluid responsiveness in anesthesia?

<p>CVP primarily reflects the pressure in the right atrium, which may not accurately represent overall volume status or fluid responsiveness. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might a patient undergoing anesthesia with a Foley catheter have low urine output despite being euvolemic?

<p>Anesthetic drugs and surgical stress reduce urine output regardless of the patient's hydration status. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can changes in oxygen consumption affect the interpretation of mixed venous oxygen saturation?

<p>Changes in oxygen consumption alter the relationship between mixed venous oxygen saturation and tissue perfusion, making interpretation difficult. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which surgical scenario is most likely to benefit from the use of dynamic parameters and advanced monitoring?

<p>A major spine surgery expected to last several hours with significant blood loss. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key consideration when using dynamic parameters to assess a patient's fluid status?

<p>Consider the overall clinical picture in conjunction with dynamic parameters for an accurate assessment. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on beta-blockers experiences hypovolemia during surgery. What effect might the beta-blockers have on their physiological response, and why?

<p>A blunted tachycardic response, masking the hypovolemia due to beta-blockade. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How might a severe systemic inflammatory response impact the utility of mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2) in assessing tissue perfusion?

<p>It can alter oxygen consumption, making SvO2 a less reliable indicator of tissue perfusion. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is the placement of a Foley catheter typically considered in surgical patients?

<p>When significant fluid shifts are expected, or the surgery is anticipated to last for an extended period (e.g., 4 hours or more). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do dynamic parameters primarily aid in the intraoperative management of patients?

<p>By assessing fluid responsiveness to guide goal-directed fluid therapy. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a major limitation of relying solely on urine output to assess a patient's volume status during surgery?

<p>Anesthetic agents and surgical stress can affect urine production independently of the patient's hydration status. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For what types of patients are static parameters most likely to be sufficient for monitoring?

<p>Patients undergoing minor procedures with minimal expected fluid shifts. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does pulse pressure variation assist in assessing fluid responsiveness?

<p>It measures the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure during mechanical ventilation to assess volume status. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a fever is being assessed for hypovolemia. Why might relying on mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2) alone be misleading?

<p>Fever increases oxygen consumption, which can lower SvO2, mimicking hypovolemia even if the patient is euvolemic. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Total Body Water

Total body water varies based on sex, age, and body composition (muscle vs. fat).

Average TBW (70kg)

In a 70kg person, total body water averages around 42 liters.

Extracellular Fluid (ECF)

Extracellular fluid (ECF) is about 1/3 of total body water, divided into 80% interstitial fluid and 20% plasma.

Intracellular Fluid (ICF) Electrolytes

Main cation: Potassium (K+). Main anion: Phosphate (PO4^3-).

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Extracellular Fluid (ECF) Electrolytes

Main cation: Sodium (Na+). Main anion: Chloride (Cl-).

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Transcellular Spaces

CSF is anatomically separate but considered part of the extracellular compartment.

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Plasma Composition

Plasma contains water, plasma proteins (albumin, globulins), and salts.

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Plasma Protein functions

Plasma proteins maintain oncotic pressure, transport drugs, participate in pH balance, and aid coagulation.

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Metabolites

Waste products and byproducts coming from tissues.

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Blood Composition

Nutrients, waste, hormones, vitamins, and blood cells.

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Movement Between Compartments

Small ions move freely; proteins and macromolecules generally do not.

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Endothelial Cell Function

Endothelial cells lining vessels have tight junctions with variable spaces.

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Glycocalyx Layer

A layer that acts as a barrier, catching substances to prevent their passage.

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Continuous Endothelium

Found in the blood-brain barrier, lungs and heart with very tight junctions.

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Fenestrated Endothelium

Found in the kidney and choroid plexus, it has fenestrations that allow certain substances to move through.

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Discontinuous Endothelium

Found in the liver and bone marrow where there are large gaps for reabsorption.

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Endothelium in Endocrine System/Gut

Endothelium with fenestrations that can be induced for absorption.

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Inflammation Effects on Membranes

Endothelial cells change, the glycocalyx layer becomes damaged, junctions open.

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Albumin Movement Percentage

Normally about 5%, but can double in surgery or quadruple in sepsis.

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Basic Volume Status Assessment

Standard monitors like a non-invasive blood pressure cuff and heart rate.

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Advanced Monitoring

Arterial line, cardiac output monitor, or central line with CVP.

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Monitor Selection Process

Assess the risks of large changes in volume and choose monitors accordingly.

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Waste Products

Uric acid and urea.

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Static Parameters

Parameters assessed at a single point in time; limited in capturing real-time changes.

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Hypovolemia

Reduced blood volume, potentially leading to decreased tissue perfusion.

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Compensatory Mechanisms

The body's automatic adjustments to maintain blood pressure and cardiac output during hypovolemia.

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Baroreceptors/Atrial Receptors

Receptors that detect changes in blood pressure and volume.

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Beta Blocker Masking

Medication that can prevent the normal increase in heart rate during hypovolemia.

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CVP (Central Venous Pressure)

A numerical value reflecting pressure in the right atrium; not always reliable for preload assessment.

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Decreased Urine Output

Decreased urine production, often expected during anesthesia due to drugs, surgery, and fluid shifts.

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Mixed Venous Oxygen Saturation

Reflects global oxygen delivery and tissue perfusion; influenced by oxygen consumption changes.

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Dynamic Parameters

Used to assess fluid responsiveness and guide fluid therapy, especially during major surgeries.

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Goal-Directed Fluid Therapy

Fluid administration guided by dynamic parameters to optimize tissue perfusion.

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Sensitivity and Specificity

The extent to which a monitor accurately measures what it is intended to measure.

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Visualization of monitor helps to...

Assess a hypovolemic or euvolemic state just by visualizing the monitor.

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Respiratory Variation

Assess changes in blood pressure or stroke volume related to the respiratory cycle, indicates fluid responsiveness

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Pulse Pressure Variation

The difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure.

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Stroke Volume Variation

Measurement of amount of blood ejected from left ventricle per beat that can be examined for variations with breathing.

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Positive Pressure Ventilation

Mechanical ventilation delivers breaths at positive pressure, increasing pressure in the chest.

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Reduced Venous Return

Increased intrathoracic pressure can compress vessels, reducing blood return to the heart.

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Constant Ventilation

Consistent ventilation, vasomotor tone, and cardiac function are needed for accurate assessment.

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Normal Respiratory Variation

Normally <10-12%. Larger variations suggest hypovolemia.

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High Respiratory Variation

Large variations suggest hypovolemia and likely responsiveness to fluid administration.

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Low Respiratory Variation

Less than 10-12% variation suggests adequate volume; vasopressors may be better.

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Frank-Starling Curve

Volume responsiveness decreases as preload increases due to the Frank-Starling relationship.

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Volume Responsiveness

Giving fluids increases stroke volume more when preload is low (on the rising part of the Frank-Starling curve).

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Plateau on Frank-Starling Curve

Beyond a certain point, stretching the heart more doesn't improve stroke volume.

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Pulse Pressure Variation (PPV) Calculation

Calculate this by subtracting minimum from maximum pulse pressures, dividing by the average, and multiplying by 100%.

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Systolic Pressure Variation (SPV) Calculation

Calculate this by (Max Systolic - Min Systolic)/Average Systolic x 100%.

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Spontaneous Ventilation Effects

Spontaneous breathing efforts interfere with accurate respiratory variation assessment.

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Tidal Volume/PEEP Limitations

Low tidal volumes or high PEEP can affect pressure in the chest, limiting accuracy.

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Factors Affecting Accuracy

Open chest surgery, increased abdominal pressure, tamponade, arrhythmias, and right heart failure.

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Pre-Op Diuretics

Medications that promote fluid loss via urination. Can lead to hypovolemia.

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Anesthetic Effects

Vasodilation and myocardial depression caused by anesthetics, potentially leading to hypotension if not managed carefully.

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Dilutional Coagulopathy

A condition where excessive fluid administration dilutes clotting factors, worsening bleeding.

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Volume Optimization Before Vasopressors

Ensuring optimal volume status before using vasopressors to support blood pressure

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Goal-Directed Fluid Therapy (GDFT)

A strategy to optimize fluid administration using dynamic parameters

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Fluid Bolus and Maintenance

Administering a set amount of fluid initially followed by continuous infusion at a certain rate.

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Crystalloid Bolus (Adult)

A starting point for fluid resuscitation in adults.

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Fluid Bolus Assessment

Repeatedly assessing a patient's response to fluids based on dynamic or static parameters.

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Lactated Ringers (LR)

A crystalloid solution often used for intravenous fluid replacement.

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Risks of fluid overload

It can affect tissue perfusion and oxygen exchange, and and lead to oedema etc.

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Anesthetic Level Adjustment

Adjusting anesthetic levels to treat vasodilation and hypotension

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Hydroxyethyl Starches (HES)

Chemically altered starches (maize/potatoes) in solution, formerly used for volume expansion.

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Black Box Warning for HES

HES use is now limited due to increased bleeding, kidney injury, and adverse events, especially in critically ill patients.

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HES Contraindications

Critically ill patients, open-heart surgery patients, and those with prior coagulopathy signs should avoid HES.

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Maximum HES Dosage

Up to 20-50 mL/kg/day, depending on solution and patient metabolism.

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HES Redistribution Effects

HES can redistribute to tissues, causing renal dysfunction, itching, and pruritus due to deposits.

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HES Renal Excretion

Smaller molecules are filtered immediately; larger molecules require enzymatic breakdown before filtration.

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HES Effects on Coagulation

HES can decrease Factor 8, Von Willebrand factor, and impair platelet function, affecting coagulation.

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Crystalloids in Volume Replacement

Solutions used for initial fluid replacement and blood loss until transfusion threshold is met.

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Crystalloid Replacement Ratio

Replace 1.5 times the amount of blood loss with crystalloid solutions.

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Balanced Crystalloid Solutions

Solutions that better mimic the body's electrolyte composition. Preferred over saline.

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Normal Saline Considerations

Avoid in large volumes, especially in renal patients.

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Dextrose-Containing Solutions

Generally avoided during anesthesia to maintain stable blood sugar levels.

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Colloids in Volume Replacement

Used for volume expansion when minimal capillary leak is present and the patient is fluid-responsive; replace on a 1:1 basis for blood loss.

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Colloids vs. Crystalloids

Giving balanced crystalloids is typically preferrable due to lower cost

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Colloid Indications

Reserved for specific situations when crystalloids are insufficient.

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Hematocrit Percentage

Red blood cells make up about 45% of blood volume.

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Blood's Role

Blood helps maintain a stable internal environment, including defense, transport and heat exchange.

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Primary Source of Blood Cells

Bone marrow (especially in the breast, pelvis, and spine) is the primary source in adults; femur and tibia in pediatrics.

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Liver and Spleen's Role

Liver and spleen regulate blood cell production, destroy old cells, and house stem cells.

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Red Blood Cell Function

Flexible shape, contains hemoglobin which binds to oxygen.

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Restrictive Fluid Approach

Transitioning from generous fluid administration to a more conservative approach.

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Erythropoietin's Role

Stimulates red blood cell formation.

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Enhanced Recovery Protocols (ERAS)

Protocols aimed at accelerating patient recovery after surgery through multiple interventions.

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Kupffer Cells Function

Macrophages in the liver that break down red blood cells.

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Breakdown product of Heme

Heme is broken down into iron and bilirubin, which can be reused or excreted.

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Balanced Crystalloids

Solutions with electrolytes similar to blood, such as Lactated Ringer's or Normasol.

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Hyperchloremic Metabolic Acidosis

A risk associated with large volumes of normal saline, leading to increased chloride levels.

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Anemia Definition

Reduction in red blood cell count or hemoglobin.

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Hyperlactatemia

A risk from large volumes of LR, causing elevated lactate levels.

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Causes of Anemia

Hemorrhage, bone marrow failure, dietary deficiencies, kidney disease, and sickle cell.

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Vitamin C and Iron

Vitamin Can enhance iron absorption in the small intestine.

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Metabolic Alkalosis

A risk associated with balanced solutions, where the blood becomes more alkaline.

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Hypotonicity

Lower solute concentration than blood; can be a risk with balanced solutions.

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Transferrin Definition

Glycoprotein that helps deliver iron to cell membranes.

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Colloids

Solutions with large molecules, like proteins or starches, that help retain fluid in the vascular space.

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Causes of Iron Deficiency

Iron deficiency can be due to inadequate intake, blood loss, or impaired GI absorption.

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Albumin

A naturally derived colloid from human blood, available in 5% and 25% concentrations.

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Transfusion Risks

Cells have antigens and can form antibodies that may cause agglutination if mismatched.

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Rh Factor

Inherited protein on the surface of red blood cells; important for blood typing.

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Albumin and Jehovah's Witnesses

Colloid made from human blood, so patients with certain religious beliefs may not accept it.

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Colloidal Osmotic Pressure

Pressure exerted by proteins in the blood that helps maintain fluid balance.

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LR and Potassium Excretion

A balanced crystalloid that may affect potassium excretion.

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Hydroxyethyl Starches

A synthetic colloid that is not used as much anymore.

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Normal Saline in Renal Patients

A crystalloid solution without potassium, often used for patients with renal issues.

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Effect of High Afterload on Frank-Starling Curve

A drop and flattening of the Frank-Starling curve, indicating reduced cardiac function.

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Expiratory Occlusion Test

Stopping ventilation for ~15 seconds to assess changes in preload.

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Significance of Increasing Lactate

Increasing lactate levels indicate cells are switching to anaerobic metabolism due to decreased perfusion.

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Total Body Water in a 70kg Adult

Approximately 42 liters.

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Percentage of Extracellular Fluid (ECF)

About 1/3, or 33%, of total body water.

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Signs and Symptoms of Hyponatremia

Mental status changes, muscle cramps, weakness, hypotension, arrhythmias.

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Insulin for Hyperkalemia

Insulin shifts potassium into cells, lowering serum potassium.

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Converting % Concentration to mg/mL

Moving the decimal one space to the right converts % to mg/mL. E.g., 5% = 50 mg/mL

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Crystalloids

Solutions containing electrolytes and low molecular weight molecules, but NO proteins.

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Isotonic Crystalloids

Similar osmolality to plasma, making them suitable for general volume replacement.

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Hypertonic Crystalloids

Greater osmolality than plasma.

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Hypotonic Crystalloids

Lower osmolality than plasma.

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LV Dysfunction

A decreased ability or impairment of the left ventricle to properly contract and pump blood out to the body.

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Pulse contour cardiac output(PCCO)

A non-invasive method for measuring cardiac output.

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Isotonic Fluids

Fluid with similar osmolality to body fluids (~280). Minimal fluid shift between cells.

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Isotonic fluids use

Used for volume replacement and administering drugs/blood products, addressing extracellular deficits.

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Strong Ion Difference (SID)

Difference between strong cations (Na+, K+) and strong anions (Cl-). Normally about 40.

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Key Ions in SID Calculation

Sodium and potassium, balanced against chloride.

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High SID Effect on pH

Excess cations can signal kidneys to excrete H+ (acid), increasing pH.

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Low SID Effect on pH

Excess anions could lead to lower levels of bicarb, which in turn leads to excess to hydrogen, that will cause acidosis.

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Causes of Metabolic Acidosis (via SID)

Often from high chloride or lactate, leads to increased hydrogen and decreased bicarb in plasma.

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Crystalloid Distribution

Only 20-25% stays intravascularly. Effectiveness increases in dehydrated/hemorrhaging patients.

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Normal Saline Concerns

Can lead to acidosis due to high chloride content.

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LR and Plasma-Lyte Benefits

Similar sodium/chloride to physiologic levels. Plasma-Lyte has a slight advantage.

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Lactated Ringer's (LR) Components

Contains lactate, a weaker anion.

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Body's pH Goal

Maintaining electrical neutrality by adjusting bicarb and H+.

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IV Gauge for Transfusions

Larger IV gauges (14-16) are preferred when anticipating significant blood transfusions.

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Blood Product Filters

Hospitals often use filters to remove clots and white blood cells (leukoreduction) from blood products.

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Blood Product Storage

Keep blood products refrigerated until immediately before transfusion to maintain their integrity.

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Warming Blood Products

Use a blood warmer for previously refrigerated blood products to help prevent hypothermia and coagulopathy.

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Unrefrigerated blood

Document how long blood was unrefrigerated; Blood banks don't re-issue blood kept out of refrigeration for 30-60 minutes.

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RBC Dilution

Normal saline is recommended for diluting red blood cells during transfusion. Avoid dextrose-containing or hypotonic solutions.

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RBC Administration

Avoid administering RBCs with other blood products (platelets, cryo) simultaneously in the same tubing.

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FFP

FFP is plasma frozen within 8-24 hours of collection. Plasma can be frozen to preserve it.

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Plasma Transfusion

FFP and thawed plasma should be transfused within 24 hours. Factor V and VIII degrade over time in storage.

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Plasma Uses

Plasma is used to replace volume and coagulation factors, particularly in massive transfusions.

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Plasma & Warfarin

Plasma can be used to reverse warfarin's anticoagulant effects in emergency situations.

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Plasma Dosing

A dose of 10-15 mL/kg of plasma typically increases plasma factor concentrations by about 30%.

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Cryoprecipitate

Cryoprecipitate (Cryo) is a concentrated fraction of plasma rich in fibrinogen, factor VIII, von Willebrand factor and factor XIII.

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FFP treatment

FFP is treated to kill viruses and remove debris and lipid contaminants.

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Plasma volume

Plasma use is reserved for those who lost a lot of blood volume during the procedure or are diluting coagulation factors

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Agglutination Reaction

Clumping of cells due to interaction of agglutinins and antigens, leading to hemolysis and lodging in microvasculature.

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RBC Storage Effects

ATP and 2,3-DPG decrease during storage of red blood cells.

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Function of 2,3-DPG/BPG

Stabilizes the T state of hemoglobin, facilitating O2 offloading to tissues.

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O2 Dissociation Curve Shift (Left)

A left shift indicates increased hemoglobin affinity for O2, impairing O2 release to tissues.

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RBC Shape & Microcirculation

Old RBC shape changes can impede flow through narrow capillaries.

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Inflammation & Old RBCs

Old RBCs increase inflammatory response, potentially leading to TRALI or acute lung injury.

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RBC Fragmentation

Old RBCs can break apart

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Aggregated Cell Clumps

Clumps of cells that form in older blood, impairing blood flow

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Nitric Oxide & Old RBCs

Old RBCs impair nitric oxide scavenging causing endothelial cell dysfunction.

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ATPase Failure & Old RBCs

Failure of different mechanisms that use ATP like Sodium, Potassium pump

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Initial Blood Loss Replacement

Replacing blood loss initially with crystalloid solutions.

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Transfusion Threshold (General)

Hemoglobin level between 7-8 g/dL often triggers RBC transfusion.

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Transfusion Threshold (Cardiac)

Cardiac patients may require transfusion at a higher hemoglobin level (9-10 g/dL).

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Transfusion Threshold (Young/Healthy)

Young, healthy patients can tolerate lower hemoglobin levels before transfusion.

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PRBC Transfusion Effects

One unit PRBCs increases hemoglobin by ~1 g/dL and hematocrit by ~3%.

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Cryoprecipitate Indications

Cryoprecipitate, rich in fibrinogen, is used to support clot formation in hemorrhaging or coagulopathic patients, and to treat hemophilia A and factor XIII deficiencies.

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Cryo Transfusion Time Limit

Once thawed, cryoprecipitate must be transfused within 4 hours and cannot be refrigerated again.

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Cryo Dosing

The standard dose of cryoprecipitate is one unit per 10 kg of body weight, which typically increases fibrinogen levels by 50-100 mg/dL.

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Cryo and Blood Warmers

While not essential, using a blood warmer is preferable when transfusing cryoprecipitate, especially in hypothermic patients.

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Platelet Lifespan

Platelets have an average lifespan of 8-12 days, with approximately 1/3 sequestered in the spleen.

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Platelet Sources

Platelet transfusions can be from whole blood pooled from multiple donors or single donor apheresis.

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Leukoreduced Platelets

Platelet preparations are usually leukoreduced to minimize immune reactions.

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Platelet Dose Effect

A single donor apheresis platelet dose (6-pack) typically increases the platelet count by 30,000-50,000/µL.

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Platelet Storage

Platelets are stored at 22°C, which increases the risk of bacterial growth.

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GVHD Risk

Graft-versus-host disease is a potential risk with platelet transfusions, especially in immunocompromised or pediatric patients.

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Platelet Irradiation

Platelets are gamma-irradiated to minimize GVHD risk in high-risk patients.

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Surgical Platelet Thresholds

Surgical patients generally require platelet transfusions at a threshold of 50,000-100,000/µL, varying with the type of surgery.

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Medical Platelet Thresholds

Medical patients may not receive platelet transfusions until their platelet count drops to around 10,000/µL.

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Platelet Quality vs. Quantity

A normal platelet count does not guarantee adequate platelet function.

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Prophylactic Platelets

In situations with coagulopathy or a high risk of hemorrhage, prophylactic platelet transfusions may be considered.

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Cryo Dosage (Pediatrics)

Cryo should be dosed at 1-2 units per 10 kg in pediatric transfusions.

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Transfusion Immunomodulation

Allogeneic blood transfusions can cause immune modulation or suppression in the recipient.

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Febrile Transfusion Reactions

Febrile reactions during transfusion are due to the release of inflammatory mediators and neutrophil activation.

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TACO

Volume overload, related to poor cardiovascular status during or after transfusion.

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TRALI

Acute lung injury, non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema that can occur within 6 hours of transfusion.

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TRALI Mechanism

Neutrophil and endothelial activation, vascular injury, and edema, acute onset hypoxemia, and pulmonary infiltrates without heart failure.

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TRALI Triggers

Lipids in stored blood, viral infections, or cardiopulmonary bypass can trigger TRALI.

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TRALI Reporting

Alert the blood bank if they can't use blood from the same donor.

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Hemoglobin Transfusion Trigger

6-8 g/dL, but is patient-specific.

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LR Contraindication

Calcium, which can cause clotting when combined with the citrate anticoagulant in stored blood.

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Citrate Function

Citrate is an anticoagulant that binds calcium, preventing coagulation.

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Highest Fibrinogen Product

Cryoprecipitate contains the highest concentration of fibrinogen.

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Fibrinogen Threshold

80-100 mg/dL.

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Plasma Storage Factor Decline

Factors V and VIII.

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Causes of Hemorrhage

Trauma and surgical trauma could cause massive hemorrhaging.

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Hemorrhage Management

Team effort between surgery and anesthesia is crucial for managing massive hemorrhage cases.

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Endothelialopathy

Damage to vascular structures can cause widespread endothelial cell damage, leading to coagulopathy.

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Trauma cascade

Trauma can disrupt homeostatic responses, leading to coagulopathy, inflammation, edema, and multi-organ dysfunction.

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Fluid strategy

Prioritize blood products over crystalloids to restore osmotic pressure and aid coagulation.

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Coagulopathy Factors

Clotting factors, platelets, and accelerated clot breakdown exacerbate coagulopathy.

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The deadly duo

Hypothermia and acidosis worsen coagulopathy and create a negative feedback loop.

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Excessive Fibrinolysis

Excessive clot breakdown (fibrinolysis) increases bleeding and reduces fibrinogen levels.

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Transfusion Toxicity

Citrate toxicity from transfusions can cause hypocalcemia, while red blood cells can cause hyperkalemia.

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Cold Blood Risks

Rapid infusion of cold blood products can cause hypothermia and arrhythmias.

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Localized Coagulopathy

Trauma-induced coagulopathy occurs in localized areas of endothelial disruption.

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Coagulation Labs

Coagulation profiles, including PT/PTT, provide insight into factor loss and hemodilution.

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Viscoelastic testing

ROTEM/TEG provides info about clot formation and firmness for goal-directed therapy.

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Massive Transfusion

Transfusing >10 units of blood in 24 hours.

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Massive Transfusion Protocol

Facility-specific guidelines for product ratios and process of massive transfusion.

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Transfusion Ratio (1:1:1)

A common ratio is 1:1:1 of FFP, platelets, and RBCs.

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PT/aPTT Goals During Transfusion

Aim for PT < 18 and aPTT < 35 to optimize clotting.

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Cryoprecipitate Use

To increase fibrinogen levels.

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Platelet Goal

Target platelet count > 150 to promote clotting.

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RBC Role in Coagulation

Release ADP, activating platelets.

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Hemoglobin Goal

Hemoglobin goal > 8 to 10 to ensure adequate perfusion.

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Antifibrinolytic Agents

Used to prevent or manage excessive bleeding.

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Treating Hypocalcemia During Transfusion

Administer calcium chloride or gluconate.

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Indications for Massive Transfusion

Trauma, hypotension, tachycardia, major injuries, coagulopathy.

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Risks of Aggressive Crystalloid Use

Dilutional coagulopathy, edema, lung stiffness, abdominal compartment syndrome.

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Tracking Blood Products

Using towels to keep a visual count of blood products given.

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Massive Transfusion in Liver Transplant

High risk of bleeding and requiring multiple transfusions.

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Liver Disease & Coagulation

Liver disease can impair coagulation due to depletion of vitamin K-dependent factors (2, 7, 9, 10), fibrinogen depletion, and reduced clearance of coagulation fragments.

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Hypervolemia Risks in Liver Disease

In liver disease, hypervolemia from transfusions can negatively impact portal circulation and cardiac function.

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Postpartum Hemorrhage (PPH) Definition

Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is diagnosed with >500 ml vaginal loss or >1000 ml C-section loss.

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Causes of Postpartum Hemorrhage

Uterine atony, placental retention, uterine abnormalities/lacerations, and coagulopathy.

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Tranexamic acid (TXA)

Antifibrinolytics, such as tranexamic acid (TXA), can be uses in the setting of postpartum hemorrhage.

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Uterotonics Purpose

Uterotonics increase uterine smooth muscle contraction to control PPH.

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Oxytocin Mechanism

Oxytocin stimulates increased calcium influx to increase uterine contractions.

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Oxytocin Side Effects

High doses/rapid infusion of oxytocin can cause arrhythmias and hypotension.

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Methylergonovine (Methergine)

Methylergonovine (Methergine) is a potent vasoconstrictor that increases uterine contraction strength and frequency.

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Methylergonovine Dose

The dose of methylergonovine (Methergine) is 0.2 mg IM used if oxytocin and TXA don't work

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Hemabate

Hemabate stimulates uterine contraction. Dose: 250 mcg IM

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PPH Fluid Management

Use blood products and minimize crystalloid fluids during PPH resuscitation.

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Emergency Blood Type

In emergencies, O negative blood is transfused when the patient's blood type is unknown.

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Dilutional Thrombocytopenia

Dilutional thrombocytopenia is factor depletion by large volumes of transfusions.

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TRALI Symptoms

TRALI (Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury) is characterized by hypoxia, pulmonary edema, non-cardiogenic.

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Study Notes

  • Physiology of body fluid compartments is the study of how fluids are distributed throughout the body.
  • Total Body Water (TBW) varies based on factors like sex, age, and body composition.
  • Muscle is 75% water, while adipose tissue is only 10% water.
  • On average, a 70 kg person has about 42 liters of TBW.
  • The fluid space is divided into intracellular and extracellular compartments.
  • The extracellular space comprises about 1/3 of TBW, split between 80% interstitial fluid and 20% plasma.

Intracellular Fluid (ICF)

  • Rich in potassium (K+) and phosphate.
  • Potassium is the most abundant cation, and phosphate is the major anion.

Extracellular Fluid (ECF)

  • Rich in sodium (Na+) and chloride (Cl-).
  • Sodium is the cation, and chloride is the major anion.
  • Divided into interstitial fluid and plasma.
  • Transcellular spaces, like cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), are considered anatomically separate and included in the ECF compartment.
  • Plasma levels align with serum levels of electrolytes due to movement between plasma and interstitial fluid.

Plasma Composition

  • Primarily water
  • Contains plasma proteins like albumins and globulins, which bind to drugs and create oncotic pressure.
  • Salts contribute to osmotic pressure, pH balance, and metabolism.
  • Gases like oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) are present.
  • Nutrients like lipids and glucose, metabolites, waste products like uric acid and urea, hormones, vitamins, and blood cells.

Movement Between Compartments

  • Small ions move freely between interstitial space and plasma within the extracellular compartment.
  • Movement of proteins and macromolecules is restricted due to tight junctions between endothelial cells lining vessels.

Endothelial Cell Junctions

  • Space between cells varies depending on tissue type, with tighter junctions in some areas and larger pores in others.
  • Glycocalyx layer acts as a barrier to prevent substances from crossing.
  • Extracellular space in the blood-brain barrier, lungs, and heart has very tight, continuous endothelium to prevent passage.
  • Kidney and choroid plexus have fenestrations that allow certain substances to move through selectively.
  • Liver and bone marrow have discontinuous capillary endothelium with larger spaces for reabsorption.
  • Endocrine system and gut have fenestrations that are inducible for selective absorption.

Inflammation Effects

  • Inflammation damages the glycocalyx layer and opens junctions, allowing larger molecules and proteins to move through.
  • Albumin movement increases from a normal 5% out of the vascular space to potentially double in surgery or quadruple in septic patients.

Monitoring Intravascular Volume

  • Standard monitors, such as non-invasive blood pressure cuffs and heart rate monitors.
  • Advanced monitors like arterial lines, cardiac output monitors, and central lines with CVP.

Parameters to Assess Volume

  • Static parameters traditionally provide a single point-in-time assessment of volume status.
  • Dynamic parameters assess fluid responsiveness and guide goal-directed fluid therapy.
  • Static parameters include blood pressure and heart rate.
  • Decreased tissue perfusion may go unrecognized due to compensatory mechanisms.
  • The sympathetic nervous system and renin-angiotensin system compensate for hypovolemia.
  • Beta blockers can mask the normal tachycardic response to hypovolemia.
  • Central venous pressure may be an inadequate measure of preload and fluid responsiveness.
  • Urine output decreases in most anesthesia patients due to drugs and surgical stress.
  • Mixed venous oxygen saturation may be affected by changes in oxygen consumption.

Dynamic Parameters

  • Dynamic parameters include respiratory variation, expiratory occlusion test, ultrasound, and non-invasive technologies.
  • Sensitivity and specificity is considered, along with the entire clinical picture
  • Respiratory variation assesses changes in arterial blood pressure waveform with mechanical ventilation.
  • Positive pressure breaths increase intrathoracic pressure, compressing vessels and reducing venous return.
  • Controlled mechanical ventilation is used because ventilation needs to be fairly constant
  • Vasomotor tone and cardiac function should be constant during assessment.
  • Variation with respiration is normally less than 10-12%. Larger variations suggest hypovolemia and fluid responsiveness.
  • Lower variations suggest normal volemia and better response to vasopressors.

Frank-Starling Curve

  • Patients lower on the Frank-Starling curve are more volume responsive.
  • Plateauing on the curve indicates decreased stroke volume response to increased preload.
  • Pulse Pressure Variation (PPV) is calculated as (Max PP - Min PP) / Average PP x 100%.
  • Systolic Pressure Variation (SPV) is calculated as (Max SBP - Min SBP) / Average SBP x 100%.

Limitations to Respiratory Variation

  • Spontaneous ventilatory effort, low tidal volumes, high PEEP, open thoracic surgery, increased intra-abdominal pressure, tamponade, arrhythmias, and right heart failure can limit accuracy.
  • High doses of vasoactive infusions limit accuracy due to increased afterload.
  • Expiratory Occlusion Test involves stopping ventilation for 15 seconds to assess changes in preload.
  • Ultrasound (esophageal Doppler, echocardiography) measures chamber volume and function.
  • Pleth variability index (PVI) uses pulse oximetry.

Dynamic Lab Values

  • Increasing lactate level indicates decreased tissue perfusion and anaerobic metabolism but may be more like a static parameter

Fluid Responsiveness

  • You can assess a patients fluid responsiveness with a Frank-Starling Curve
  • The lower one is on the curve, the more volume responsive one will be to an increase in perload as there will be greater increase in stroke
  • It is only possible to improve stroke volume from stretch to a certain point, where plateau will occur
  • Volume responsive patients will have arterial curve variations

IV Fluids

  • Crystalloids contain electrolytes and low molecular weight molecules but no proteins.
  • Classified based on osmolality compared to plasma (isotonic, hypertonic, hypotonic).
  • Isotonic solutions are commonly used in anesthesia due to similar osmolality.

Balanced Crystalloids

  • Balanced crystalloids mirror plasma serum levels of electrolytes and osmolality.
  • Examples are Lactated Ringer's (LR) and Plasma-Lyte.
  • Isotonic fluids do not cause fluid movement between extracellular and intracellular spaces.
  • Used for volume replacement and drug administration.

Strong Ion Difference (SID)

  • SID is the difference between strong cations and anions (Na+ + K+ - Cl-).
  • Normal SID is about 40.
  • SID affects bicarbonate movement and serum pH.
  • Increased SID leads to increased pH (alkalosis) due to hydrogen excretion.
  • Decreased SID leads to decreased pH (acidosis) due to lower bicarbonate levels.
  • Bicarbonate is used as a buffer, and urine filtrate mechanisms contribute to acidosis.

Crystalloid Pharmacokinetics

  • Distribution of 1 liter of IV fluid in a healthy patient leaves 20% to 25% of the fluid in the intravascular space.
  • Physiological status, dehydration, surgical factors, and vascular permeability changes influence distribution.
  • Dehydration or hemorrhage may cause fluid to stay in the body longer.
  • Hypotonic crystalloids have lower osmolality, causing fluid to move into cells.
  • Hypertonic crystalloids have higher osmolality, causing water to shift out of cells and into the extracellular space.

Common Crystalloids

  • Normal saline has high sodium and chloride levels, contributing to increased SID and potential acidosis.
  • LR and Plasma-Lyte have similar osmolarity and sodium-chloride levels to physiologic levels, with the advantage going to Plasma-Lyte.
  • These include potassium, and LR contains lactate.
  • IV fluids are increasingly administered via pumps rather gravity, especially via goal-directed fluid therapy. They are no longer as commonly given via gravity
  • The amount is is more restrictive, and NPO times are reduced

Risks

  • Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis.
  • Large volumes of LR risk hyperlactatemia, metabolic alkalosis, and hypotonicity.
  • Calcium in balanced solutions can bind citrate from blood products.

Colloids

  • Colloids contain large molecular weight particles (macromolecules and protein starches) in crystalloid solutions.
  • Help keep fluid in the vascular space more effectively than crystalloids.
  • Naturally derived colloids include albumin, and synthetic are hydroxyethyl starches.
  • The most common concentration of albumin is 5%

Albumin

  • Produced from human blood suspended in saline.
  • Increases serum albumin and colloidal osmotic pressure.
  • Pasteurization reduces the risk of viral transmission.
  • Expensive compared to synthetic colloids or crystalloids
  • Clinical trials have found no superiority of albumin over crystalloids. Albumin is reserved for resuscitation when large volumes of fluids should be avoided

Hydroxyethyl Starches

  • Chemically altered starches in solution, associated with excess bleeding and kidney injuries.
  • Not used if there are concerns for renal function and coagulation
  • Black box warning advises against use, especially in critically ill and septic patients
  • Redistribute and leave the plasma to go to various other tissues, remaining there for many months
  • Have a lot of varied reports for max dosage, but 20-50 ml per Kg per day is acceptable. It depends on each solution and the rate to metabolize/excrete it from the body
  • Renal excretion varies because of this, with a lot of redistribution occurring from tissues in the mean time. This can cause issues in areas like the kidneys and cause renal dysfunction in the skin like renal dysfunction/pruritus
  • Can potential effects, decreasing factor 8 and von Willebrand, decreasing platelet function, or impaired renal function

Hypovolemia

  • Factors contributing to hypovolemia include fasting, bowel prep, diuretics, inflammatory disorders, and hemorrhage.
  • Surgical factors, patient position, and positive pressure ventilation also contribute.
  • A bolus of 250 to 500 ml of crystalloid is a good starting point.

Hypervolemia

  • Excess volume contributes.
  • Patient factors include heart failure and renal failure.
  • Anesthetics can cause vasodilation and myocardial depression.
  • The patient may be euvolemic, the anesthetics a bigger problem, do not just treat the number
  • Risks to fluid overload include impaired tissue perfusion, oxygen exchange, edema, and dilutional coagulopathy.

Goal-Directed Fluid Therapy

  • Aims to optimize volume status before vasopressors.
  • Used in ERAS protocols and surgeries with large blood loss or fluid shifts.
  • Use with protocol: start with 3 cm per kg, and maintain a certain ml per kg per hour. If the dynamic parameters above a point, can give a 250 ml bolus

Blood Physiology and Transfusion

  • Blood consists of 45% cells and 55% plasma.
  • Blood helps maintain homeostasis, defense, and transport of nutrients.
  • Primary source for blood cells is bone marrow in the breast, pelvis, and spine.
  • Liver and spleen regulate blood cell production and destruction.
  • Stem cells differentiate into erythrocytes and lymphocytes.

White Blood Cells

  • Leukocytes include granulocytes and agranulocytes and participate in defense, infection, and immune response.
  • Bone marrow and lymphatic organs produce lymphocytes.

Red Blood Cells

  • Red blood cells (erythrocytes) have a flexible shape.
  • Hemoglobin transports oxygen.
  • Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell formation.
  • Red blood cells are broken down by Kupfer cells in the liver.
  • Heme is broken down into iron and bilirubin.

Anemia

  • Reduction in red blood cell count or hemoglobin due to hemorrhage, bone marrow failure, dietary deficiencies, kidney disease, or sickle cell.

Iron

  • Iron is absorbed in the small intestine with vitamin C.
  • Transferrin delivers iron to cell membranes.
  • Iron deficiency can lead to iron deficiency anemia.
  • Iron deficiency is high in menstruating females. May also occur because of inadequate dietary intake.

Blood Types

  • Introducing other blood types runs the risk of agglutination reaction
  • Blood types have a a antigen, Rh factor is a protein inherited on the surface of the blood cell

Stored Red Blood Cells

  • Biochemical changes occur as cells age in storage.
  • ATP and 2,3-DPG depletion occurs. 2,3-DPG stabilizes the T state of hemoglobin, so will effect unloading O2 to tissues
  • Cell shape changes affect microcirculation. Potential transfusion reactions
  • Inflammatory response increases in older red blood cells with trolley or acute lung injury risk
  • Cells break apart leading to aggregate clumps. A problem which impairs nitric oxide and affect endothelial cells

Transfusion

  • The threshold in healthy adult 7-8 hemoglobin. If cardiac, 9-10 hemoglobin
  • The American society promotes wait till the patient is down to 6 One unit packed red blood cell to 1 hemoglobin, 3% Hematocrit

Implementation

  • Good IV access.
  • Follow checks and balances to avoid transfusion errors.
  • Blood filters are typically. Used to remove aggregates and clots.
  • Keep normal saline for dilution also can administer using plasma and albumin.
  • Blood needs to be kept cold, and only thawed what is necessary for the procedure

Plasma and FFP (Fresh Frozen Plasma)

  • Red Blood cells are removed, blood is frozen, needs transfused is needs transfusion
  • Contains has protein and factors, lose factors and blood needs transfused in 24hrs.
  • Can treat liver anticoagulation, coagulation deficiencies, and massive transfusions
  • Dosing is 10-15 cm per KO.
  • Must be kept cold and rewarm upon use

Cryo

  • Protein fraction that can refrozen and reach in 1,8,13. Must refreeze the remainder
  • Increase the thickness needed for fiber production
  • Treatment for hemophilia and factor 13 deficiencies . Transfuse, there is a 4 hour window
  • The dose for cryo is one unit per 10 kilos.
  • warmer is preference

Platelets

  • Average lifespan is 150-800. Whole blood must be kept clean and is active
  • Helps prevent infection, has is immunocompromised or the younger
  • It is gamma ➡️ radiated.
  • Each those, you can increase. Count by 30-40.
  • Is used during a lot of blood use. To count around 50-100
  • Dosing is 5 and 100

Post-Transfusion Adverse Effects

  • If blood from another cell is inserted into the blood from another cell, effects from the new environment may cause harm to recipient.
  • Infection of the tissue, with the immune cell recognizes the blood as forgiven.
  • Taco versus trolley will occur and should reported

Taco (Transfusion-Associated Circulatory Overload)

  • Volume control problem that impacts circulatory system
  • May cause dyspnea, Hypertension because the heart is in decline
  • May cause acute issues like pulmonary injects
  • No evidence of heart failure and the vessels will fail

Massive Transfusion

  • In cases of major trauma, must have a good balance, in guidance of the two providers
  • High transfusion can cause, coagulopathy very quickly.
  • Vessels and tissues can cause can be the major loss vascular injury. Coagulopahty,
  • Inflammation loss from blood loss
  • The dilution effects, dilutional coagulopathy needs needs a lot of blood to replace
  • Hypothermia/calcemia can occur, hyperkalemia.arrththmia.

Trauma-Induced Coagulopathy Labs

  • Monitor, but are not be available quickly, Tag is obviously. Monitor more in goal direct

Transfusion Protocols

  • More than 10 units use, you can. In 24 hrs.
  • It may depend on if you need all units in your body
  • You can get higher morality if you keep taking too much blood
  • Is the given.
  • Has 1FFP, 2red blood cells, with mortality. If all this is not working you can get the following What is the goal is to get PT/PTT below 18. Below 35 blood will give plasma . Crio high level and Platelets needs higher level.

Crystalys

  • Can increase blood and can. Affect maintain homeostasis. So, there will major damage

Use of Blood

  • Trauma major use cause use has the following symptoms hypo, cardia, fracture fluids shifting Livers and cardiac can causes. Bleeding and blood is important in a lot cases. In these cases, minimize fluid, and keep body warm as possible. Be very active and accurate..
  • A point to remember that you can, get what, if blood types
  • Is not be correct.
  • There may many symptoms that you may know

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