Blood product transfusions
50 Questions
1 Views

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

A patient with a hemoglobin level of 6.8 g/dL, but is otherwise asymptomatic, requires a red blood cell transfusion. How many units of packed red blood cells should initially be administered?

  • One unit, and then reassess the hemoglobin level (correct)
  • No transfusion is needed unless the patient is symptomatic
  • Three units, to raise the hemoglobin to a safe level rapidly
  • Two units, to mitigate the risk of fluid overload

A patient with a known coagulopathy is scheduled for a surgical procedure. Their INR is currently 1.7. Which blood product would be MOST appropriate to administer prior to the procedure?

  • Cryoprecipitate
  • Fresh Frozen Plasma (correct)
  • Packed Red Blood Cells
  • Platelets

Following a traumatic injury, a patient has massive hemorrhage and requires a large volume transfusion. Which blood product would be MOST appropriate to administer to address both the bleeding and potential coagulation factor deficiencies?

  • Fresh Frozen Plasma (correct)
  • Cryoprecipitate
  • Packed Red Blood Cells
  • Platelets

A patient with a platelet count of 8,000/μL is actively bleeding. Which transfusion would be MOST appropriate for this patient?

<p>Platelets (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An individual with type A blood requires a transfusion. Which blood type(s) can they RECEIVE?

<p>A and O (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with type O blood requires a blood transfusion. Which of the following is TRUE regarding their blood type?

<p>They have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their plasma. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An Rh-negative mother is pregnant with an Rh-positive fetus. Which intervention is MOST appropriate to prevent hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)?

<p>Administering RhoGAM (Rh immune globulin) to the mother during and after pregnancy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is identified as Jehovah's Witness and requires a blood transfusion. Which consideration is MOST important when discussing treatment options?

<p>Confirm their specific beliefs regarding blood transfusions and explore alternative treatments. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a thrombus that detaches from the vessel wall and travels to the lung, causing a pulmonary embolism. What term BEST describes this occurrence?

<p>Thromboembolism (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT typically a symptom of fat embolus?

<p>Bradycardia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A deep-sea diver ascends too quickly and develops a pressurized air embolus. What is the underlying mechanism behind this condition?

<p>Formation of nitrogen bubbles in the bloodstream due to rapid decompression (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to Virchow's Triad, which of the following is a MAJOR contributing factor to venous thrombosis?

<p>Slowed blood flow (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with Factor V Leiden. What is the MOST accurate description of the underlying mechanism leading to increased thrombotic risk?

<p>Resistance to antithrombotic effects of activated protein C (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following lab results would be MOST indicative of marked hyperhomocysteinemia?

<p>Homocysteine level of 110 µmol/L (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). In approximately what percentage of cases is the DVT asymptomatic until an embolization event occurs?

<p>50% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism (PE). What is the MOST common origin of emboli in PE cases?

<p>Lower extremities (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the pathophysiology of arterial hypoxemia in pulmonary embolism?

<p>It involves ventilation-perfusion mismatches and right-to-left shunting. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with dyspnea, tachycardia, and pleuritic chest pain. Which of the following conditions should be HIGH on your differential?

<p>Pulmonary embolism (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the evaluation of a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE), what information does a normal perfusion scan provide?

<p>Excludes the presence of PE (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the PRIMARY goal of large volume plasma exchange in the treatment of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?

<p>To remove autoantibodies against ADAMTS-13 and replenish the enzyme. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following test results is MOST specific for diagnosing thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?

<p>Reduced ADAMTS-13 activity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is suspected of having heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Which of the following is the BEST initial step in management?

<p>Discontinue heparin and initiate a direct thrombin inhibitor. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a KEY laboratory finding characteristic of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

<p>Prolonged aPTT (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known history of cancer presents with spontaneous bleeding and oozing at IV sites. What disorder should you be MOST suspicious of?

<p>Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What platelet count defines thrombocytopenia?

<p>&lt; 150,000/ μL (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), which of the following blood smear findings would you MOST likely expect?

<p>Normal platelets (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with ITP. What platelet count threshold typically warrants treatment intervention to reduce the risk of bleeding?

<p>&lt; 30,000/µL (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a COMMON finding in patients with ALL acute lymphoblastic leukemia?

<p>Hypercellular bone marrow with &gt;20% lymphoblasts (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with fatigue, night sweats, and splenomegaly. Lab results show increased WBCs, and a Philadelphia chromosome is detected. What condition is MOST likely?

<p>Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has an elevated RBC, Hct, and Hgb. Which of the following would suggest polycythemia vera over secondary polycythemia?

<p>Decreased erythropoietin (EPO) levels (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with fatigue, splenomegaly, and easy bruising. A blood smear reveals fibrosis in the bone marrow and a leucoerythroblastic picture. Which condition is most likely?

<p>Myelofibrosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An adult patient has a normocytic anemia. His laboratory results reveal an absolute Neutophil count of 1,000/µL. According to text, what condition does this patient likely suffer from?

<p>Neutropenia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with VTE(Venous Thromboembolism). According to text, what D-dimer result would the clinician expect if they were to order D-dimer lab testing?

<p>Elevated D-dimer may be expected (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to text, what is the definition of the lab abnormality, neutrophilia?

<p>Absolute count &gt;10.000 / µL (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What medication is safe to use, for a patient with severe anemia and also has a high risk of clotting?

<p>Low dose Aspirin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should the clinician consider when deciding on the best course of treatment for patient that has the blood condition, polycythemia?

<p>Keep HCT normal (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's lab test results are positive for, exon 14, during JAK2 testing. This patient also has enlarged retinal veins and symptoms, dizziness, tinnitus. What is the likely blood condition that this patient is suffering from?

<p>Polycythemia vera (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient requires bone marrow biopsy to determine the state of their MDS (Myelodysplastic Syndrome). Which of the following options are symptoms of MDS?

<p>Genetic Abnormalities (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the definition of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation - DIC?

<p>A serious, life-threatening condition caused by non-immune platelet destruction. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What causes Burkitt's Lymphoma

<p>B-cell (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these situations warrants the administration of plasma to a patient?

<p>When specific factor concentrates are unavailable for factor replacement. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Hemophilia A is undergoing a surgical procedure. Which blood product is the MOST appropriate to improve hemostasis and prevent excessive bleeding?

<p>Cryoprecipitate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a suspected venous thromboembolism (VTE). According to Virchow's Triad, which of the following conditions would be MOST contributory to venous thrombosis?

<p>Stasis (slowed flow) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After a long surgery, a patient develops a pulmonary embolism (PE). Which of the following factors is the MOST likely origin of the embolus?

<p>Deep veins of the legs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a femur fracture, a patient develops shortness of breath, confusion, and petechiae. What is the MOST likely underlying cause of these symptoms?

<p>Fat embolus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected change in a patient's hemoglobin level after administering one unit of packed red blood cells?

<p>Increase by 1 g/dL (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant patient is Rh negative. Which intervention is needed to prevent hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)?

<p>Administer Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing evaluation for a bleeding disorder has an elevated level of haptoglobin and low hemoglobin levels. These results would MOSTLY suggest:

<p>Elevated Hemolysis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with suspected anemia has a decreased neutrophil count when they were tested for a complete blood count with differential. A neutrophil count of what value, would confirm this assessment?

<p>≤ 1500 / uL (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the clinician manage severe bleeding due to Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation - DIC.

<p>Platelet transfusion to maintain platelet count less than 30,000/uL, preferably above 50,000/uL (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Indications for RBC transfusion

Hemoglobin <7 g/dL. Ischemia due to impaired O2 transport. Symptomatic anemia. Hypovolemic shock/bleeding.

Quantity: 1 unit RBC transfusion should

↑ hemoglobin by 1g/dL or Hct by 3%

Plasma

Source of all coagulation factors; if given as 10-15 ml/kg will replace about 20% of a patient's clotting factors.

Administer Plasma

Massive Hemorrhage. Before surgical procedure (INR> 1.6). If specific factor concentrates are not available. Plasma exchange.

Signup and view all the flashcards

1 unit of platelets should increase platelet count

↑ by 25-50 per unit given

Signup and view all the flashcards

Administer Platelets:

Massive hemorrhage, platelet count <10k, before a procedure (platelet count<50k). Active bleeding (platelet count below 50k). CNS or intraocular bleeding, Antiplatelet therapy, Congenital platelet dysfunction/bleeding

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cryoprecipitate

Contains Fibrinogen and von Willebrand Factor (vWF)

Signup and view all the flashcards

Administer Cryoprecipitate

Massive hemorrhage, Hemophilia A, vM disease

Signup and view all the flashcards

ABO Antigens

Codominant inheritance

Signup and view all the flashcards

O blood type is a lack of what?

Individuals with O blood type do not express either A or B antigens on their red blood cells.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Blood Type A

Produces anti-B antibodies Reacts with anti-A serum

Signup and view all the flashcards

Blood Type B

Produces anti-A antibodies Reacts with anti-B serum

Signup and view all the flashcards

Blood Type AB

No antibodies present. Can receive both A and B blood

Signup and view all the flashcards

Blood Type O

No antigens present. Produces both anti-A and anti-B antibodies

Signup and view all the flashcards

Agglutinins

Antibodies that cause clumping (agglutination) of incompatible red blood cells

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rh (-) patient

Develops Anti-D antibodies after exposure to Rh (+) blood

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mother Rh (-)

exposure to fetal blood → develop Anti-D antibodies → may cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and Newborn

Signup and view all the flashcards

RhoGAM

anti-D IgG antibodies that clear fetal Rh (+) cells from maternal blood stream → prevents development of maternal Rh antibodies.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Thrombus

An aggregate of coagulated blood that contains platelets, fibrin, and entrapped cellular elements

Signup and view all the flashcards

Thrombosis

formation of thrombus → can lead to obstruction of blood vessel

Signup and view all the flashcards

Arterial Thrombosis

MI, stroke, peripheral arterial thrombosis

Signup and view all the flashcards

Venous Thrombosis

DVT, pulmonary embolism

Signup and view all the flashcards

Embolization

A portion of the thrombus breaks off and travels through the bloodstream, potentially causing blockages elsewhere.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Thromboembolus

a thrombus formed in one location that detaches from the vessel wall and travels to a distant site

Signup and view all the flashcards

Embolus

intravascular solid, liquid or gaseous mass → carried by blood to a distant site from its point of origin

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fat embolus

fractures of long bones, soft tissue trauma, burns → releases emboli of fatty marrow or adipose tissue into the circulation

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mechanism of injury (Fat embolus)

Fat globules present in microvasculature of lungs (ARDS) and brain (cerebral edema and small hemorrhages)

Signup and view all the flashcards

Air embolus

frothy clotty mass with lots of inflammatory response 100mL required

Signup and view all the flashcards

Amniotic fluid Embolism

amniotic fluid or tissue fluid → Intense inflammatory response

Signup and view all the flashcards

Virchow's Triad: Worsening Conditions

Conditions that could worsen all three aspects of Virchow's Triad (flow, vessel wall, blood)

Signup and view all the flashcards

Turbulent flow Arterial Thrombosis

result of turbulence around an aneurysm or at bifurcation sites

Signup and view all the flashcards

Stasis (Virchow)

Major factor for venous thrombosis

Signup and view all the flashcards

Endothelial Injury

Damage to the inner lining of blood vessels makes clot formation more likely.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hypercoagulability

An increased tendency for blood to clot due to conditions like genetic disorders, cancer, pregnancy, or certain medications.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Factor V Leiden: Normal pathway

Normal pathway: Thrombomodulin produced by endothelium, using protein C - down regulated the activation of factor V.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Factor V Leiden: Disease pathway

causes abnormalities and mutated factor V cannot be deactivated, causing loss of an antithrombotic pathway.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Factor V Leiden: Statistics

Leiden mutation on factor V gene (2-15% of Caucasians) produces abnormal factor V which is not deactivated by protein C.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Factor V Leiden DVT risk

50- to 100- fold risk increase for DVT with homozygous condition

Signup and view all the flashcards

Protein C or S deficiency: Symptoms

appear soon after birth → wide spreading clot

Signup and view all the flashcards

Protein C concentrate (Ceprotin)

Indication prevention and treatment of venous thrombosis that is associated with protein C deficiency.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Marked hyperhomocysteinemia

Homozygous for cystathionine-beta-synthesis deficiency

Signup and view all the flashcards

Impact: Marked hyperhomocysteinemia

Severe developmental disability, lens and skeletal defects, Atherosclerotic and thromboembolic disease

Signup and view all the flashcards

Causes moderate elevation

Heterozygous enzyme deficiency, Deficiency of B12, Folic acid, Pyridoxine (B6)

Signup and view all the flashcards

Homocysteine toxicity

direct damage to endothelium increased platelet adhesion and loss of thrombolysis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

DVT

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) → large vessels (popliteal femoral and iliac veins) → enters right side of heart

Signup and view all the flashcards

Pulmonary Embolism

results from DVT 90% of cases → send to CT angiography immediately

Signup and view all the flashcards

Congestive Atelectasis (Symptoms)

Unexplained, transient dyspnea (shortness of breath) and tachypnea (rapid breathing).

Signup and view all the flashcards

imaging findings for Congestive Atelectasis

Pulmonary Embolism: Localized opacities on chest scan due to hemorrhage.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Air Embolism: Quantity

100 ml quantity of air → required to produce clinical effect

Signup and view all the flashcards

Noninvasive: findings

Presence of internal echoes and a compressible vein indicate DVT

Signup and view all the flashcards

Venography

What clinical tests are discordant?

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is elevated?

Product of fibrin degradation → detectable in blood → following fibrinolysis of a clot

Signup and view all the flashcards

What's elevated in embolism?

D-dimer test may be elevated if an embolic event is suspected.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Low plateletes

Thrombocytopenia → platelet count <150,000/ μL

Signup and view all the flashcards

Study Notes

Transfusions

  • Indications for red blood cell (RBC) transfusions include hemoglobin levels less than 7 g/dL, especially under 8 g/dL in cardiogenic shock cases
  • Other indications are evidence of ischemia due to impaired oxygen transport, symptomatic anemia, and hypovolemic shock or bleeding
  • A single unit transfusion should increase hemoglobin by 1 g/dL or hematocrit by 3%

Plasma

  • Plasma provides all coagulation factors
  • Administering 10-15 ml/kg of plasma will replace around 20% of a patient's clotting factors
  • Plasma is given in cases of massive hemorrhage.
  • Use before surgical procedures with an INR greater than 1.6
  • Use when specific factor concentrates aren't available, and for plasma exchange

Platelets

  • A single unit platelet transfusion typically raises the platelet count by 25-50 per unit given
  • Platelets last about a week after donation
  • Platelets are administered for massive hemorrhage, platelet counts below 10, and before procedures when platelet counts are below 50k
  • Given for active bleeding, central nervous system or intraocular bleeding, when platelet count is below 50k
  • Antiplatelet therapy and congenital platelet dysfunction/bleeding also warrant platelet transfusion

Cryoprecipitate

  • Contains fibrinogen and von Willebrand Factor (vWF)
  • It is administered in cases of massive hemorrhage, Hemophilia A, and von Willebrand disease (vWD)

Transfusion Considerations

  • ABO antigens are codominantly inherited, meaning individuals can have blood types A, B, AB, or O, based on the presence or absence of A and B antigens
  • If someone inherits both A and B alleles, both antigens get expressed, resulting in blood type AB
  • Blood type O signifies the lack of both A and B antigens
  • Blood type A produces anti-B antibodies and reacts with anti-A serum.
  • Blood type B produces anti-A antibodies and reacts with anti-B serum.
  • Blood type AB has no antibodies present and can receive both A and B blood.
  • Blood type O has no antigens present and produces both anti-A and anti-B antibodies

Agglutinins

  • Agglutinins are antibodies that cause clumping (agglutination) of incompatible red blood cells

Rh Factor

  • The D-antigen is present in about 85% of the population (Rh+)
  • Rh-negative patients only develop anti-D antibodies after exposure to Rh-positive blood, with pregnancy as a key instance
  • If a mother is Rh-negative and exposed to fetal Rh-positive blood, she develops Anti-D antibodies that can cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)
  • Administering Rh immune globulin, or RhoGAM, prevents complications; this contains anti-D IgG antibodies that clear fetal Rh-positive cells from the maternal blood stream, preventing the development of maternal Rh antibodies

Type and Screen

  • Cross-matching to reduce complications includes determining ABO type, Rh type, and screening for other antibodies
  • Religious considerations, like those of Jehovah's Witnesses, should be respected; do not assume they will refuse blood.
  • Pediatric cases require knowledge of hospital policies and ethics committee involvement
  • For individuals with dietary restrictions (vegetarian, vegan, Islam, Judaism), note that heparin is derived from porcine intestinal mucosa

Thrombosis and Thrombophilia

  • Thrombus: An aggregate of coagulated blood containing platelets, fibrin, and trapped cellular elements
  • Thrombosis: Formation of a thrombus, leading to potential blood vessel obstruction
  • Arterial thrombosis can lead to MI, stroke, and peripheral arterial thrombosis often associated with AFIB without anticoagulation
  • Venous thrombosis can lead to DVT and pulmonary embolism

Outcomes of Thrombosis:

  • Lysis: The fibrinolytic system can rapidly dissolve recent thrombi.
  • It is less effective for older, more resistant clots
  • Propagation: The thrombus grows by accumulating platelets and fibrin, which can lead to vessel occlusion
  • Embolization: A portion of the thrombus breaks off and travels, resulting in blockages elsewhere
  • Organization: Inflammation and fibrosis occur, which makes the thrombus firm and grayish white
  • Canalization: A new lumen forms within the organized thrombus, allowing partial blood flow restoration
  • Thromboembolus: A thrombus formed in one location that detaches, traveling to a distant site Venous thromboembolism (VTE): DVT, PE, cerebral venous sinus thrombosis
  • Embolus: Intravascular solid, liquid, or gaseous mass carried to a distant site
  • Fat embolus: Fat emboli is released into circulation following fractures of long bones, soft tissue truama or burns and may result the following:
    • Sudden onset
    • Tachypnea, Dyspnea, Tachycardia
    • Neurologic symptoms, which include Mental changes that progress to delirium or coma
    • Diffuse widespread petechiae (20-50% of cases)
    • Thrombocytopenia due to adherence of platelets to fat globules
    • Appears 1-3 days after injury and mostly obstructs microcirculation (arterioles and capillaries)
    • Usually is associated with Long bone fractures or Burns; trauma occurs in 90% of subjects with skeletal injury, but <10% of patients show clinical symptoms
    • The Fat embolus syndrome is fatal in 10% of cases. -Mechanism of injury: Fat globules present in microvasculature of lungs (ARDS) and brain (cerebral edema and small hemorrhages), followed by platelet activation and granulocyte recruitment and Free fatty acids from fat globules causing local injury to endothelium

Air Embolus

  • Requires 100mL.
  • Pressurized air embolus (deep water scuba diving) is caused by ascending too quickly, leading to rapid decompression

Amniotic Fluid Embolism

  • Characterized by amniotic fluid or tissue fluid leading to intense inflammatory response (RARE → HIGH mortality rate)

Virchow's Triad

  • Virchow's Triad consists of Endothelial Injury, Circulatory Stasis and Hypercoagulability; that leads to thrombosis and are worsened by:
    • Cancer, COVID, Pregnancy Circulatory status
    • Turbulent flow leads to arterial thrombosis result of turbulence around an aneurysm or at bifurcation sites
    • Stasis (slowed flow) is a major factor for venous thrombosis
    • Venous stasis caused by Prolonged immobilization, Foreign bodies, CHF, Pregnancy, Dehydration, Atrial fibrillation, Valve stenosis, Ventricular dysfunction, Polycythemia/sickle cell Endothelial Injury
    • Injury to the inner lining of blood vessels from surgery, trauma, or high blood pressure makes clot formation more likely.
    • Caused by Atherosclerosis, Hyperlipidemia Phlebitis/vasculitis Foreign body, Trauma and Bacterial infection. Hypercoagulability
    • Increased tendency for blood to clot due to genetic disorders, cancer, pregnancy, medications caused by:
    • Factor V Leiden which is autosomal dominant, and occurs in 2-15% of Caucasians Mutation → abnormal factor V not deactivated by protein C. A heterozygous risk of DVT by 4–6-fold and homozygous Condition → single greatest risk factor 50- to 100- fold risk increase for DVT
    • Protein C or S deficiency found in neonates, and occurs with: Severe congenital protein C deficiency → rare (1-2 neonates for every 1 million births) leading abnormally high numbers of clots → death. Symptoms appear soon after birth with a wide-spreading clot, that requires treatment with Protein C concentrate (Ceprotin)

Hyperhomocysteinemia

  • Marked hyperhomocysteinemia has Plasma homocysteine level >100 µmol/L is found in Pediatrics
  • Caused by Homozygous for cystathionine-beta-synthesis deficiency; that may lead to Severe developmental disability Lens and skeletal defects or Atherosclerotic and thromboembolic disease
  • Moderate elevation: 16-100 µmol/L caused by Heterozygous enzyme deficiency of B12, Folic acid, or Pyridoxine (B6).
    • Homocysteine is normally metabolized which, deficiencies in these vitamins lead to elevated homocsyteine levels, increasing cardiovascular disease.
  • Mild/moderate shows Homocysteine toxicity results in direct damage to endothelium, increased loss of thrombolysis
  • Homocysteine toxicity: direct damage to endothelium, increased platelet adhesion → loss of thrombolysis
  • Homocysteine causes an Independent risk factor for CAD, PVD, DVT, and Antithrombin deficiency

VTE (Venous Thromboembolism)

The most common of VTE is; Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

  • Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) (large vessels) enters right side of heart; and is - Asymptomatic in 50% cases or Impaired venous valve function.
  • Results in Pulmonary Embolism(90% cases) (CT angiography) Risk Factor Advanced age, Sickle cell disease, Genetics + Males higher risk Obesity, Smoking, Immobilization, Prolonged bed rest, Flight travel
  • Flight Travel Risks*:
    • Asymptomatic(higher)
    • 4hr: 1/4600
    • 8hr: 1/200 risk factor Foreign body, Estrogen: hormone replacement therapy is a DVT RiskFactor

DVT (Deep Vein Thrombosis) Pathogenesis

DVT Causes:

  • Stasis
  • Injury
  • Hypercoagulability, oral Contraceptivse and smoking
  • Advanced Age
  • Late pregnancy Clinical Findings:
  • Majority (90%) =legs vs 10% pelvis Superficial
  • *Thrombi →found in saphenous Symptoms
  • Local congestion
  • Swelling
  • Pain
  • Tenderness along venous course
  • Rarely embolize
  • Local edema
  • Impaired venous drainage Deep
  • Thrombi → larger veins popliteal, femoral, iliac Symptoms
  • Swelling→ unilateral
  • Pain, Erythema, & Tenderness Pulmonary Embolism
  • dyspnea + tachycardia

  • R/o PE and VTE
  • *90% case→emboli originate deep veins
  • Lungs findings: 65% Bilateral vs 25% Right only and Left 10% and Lower > upper 4x
  • Mech: Thrombi obstruction= Primary vs Vaso constriction(Low O), Secondary Severity
  • Sig rise in P (>25mm)= 30-50% blocked
  • RV->CO, central venous and right atrial pressure increase

Arterial Hypoxemia

Arterial Hypoxemia occurs due to ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) Exact Mechanisms:

  • Increased alveolar dead space (vent present, perfusion absent
  • "R to L Shunting
  • *Right-to-left shunting can occur in lung regions:partial atelectasis
  • Hypoxemia :improve with deep breathing
  • Bronchoconstriction : Plate 5ht and PG Clinical Presentation:
  • 60-80% Pulmonary eboli small and Symptomatic
  • Undergo become and the Organized into vascular wall
  • Symptoms*
    • "chest pain and dyspnea and Tachypnea and syncope and 15% with Death"

Pulmonary Embolism:

  • The Most Common Cardiovascular Collapse→≥60% Scenarios:
    • "PE in Hopitalized patients but was fine"
    • Obstructive PE ( most cause Death)
    • Chronic Heart and lung, inmmobilzaion→ PE → Death Saddle Lodged @ bifurcation pulmonary ( obstructed)
    • 50% trunk blocked- > death
    • Rt v→Rt Ventric Failure and Shock
  • If not deadly PE*
  • Symptoms include include*

Hypo Tension and impaired and pale Weaken and sweat IIPulmonary with fluid but not embolism

  • "Pulmonary Infarction
  • 15% of cases in chest

  • *Plead effisun, pneumonia - Cough IIi Congestive Atelectasis

*Impaired lung Tachnea Chest CT ray shows and hypuxima Lab Tests:

  • "If embolism suspected d-dimer
  • Air

Air Embolism

Air embolism often casured bu Neck to the lung Quantities: 100 ml → Effect Phisycal → blood side lungs Gas dissolved rapid decent ascent Clincial presentation Thromboemblotic is dervived by tromobus Causes

  • Pathways*→PE,
  • asymto Symptoms:
  • Ultrasound alteration
  • 20-30 Classical symptoms
  • Major patient at risks
  • *Surgery (trauma) with old patient:
  • High chance without surgery

Surgery Considerations

  • Clinical Checklist*

high<+ * Ultrasound and low * Doppler.

Other factors:

  • Plasma: d-dimer elevation

  • Contrast more accurate>
  • Patient likely will have it
  • Dye hypertonic

Heparin, Pulmonary, and Anticoagulation

Hepatotoxic

  • Pulmonary: movement the lungs, and lodges

  • "Dvt Is lower
  • PE is 20% cases
  • Other sources are less with pelvus Risk Factors:
  • Heart Failure and women: Chemical
  • 5ht 40%

Clinical features

  • "Can Asymptomatic
  • *Acute dyspnea often"
  • Symptoms: Acute pain"

Benign White Blood Cell Disorders

  • Benign White Blood Cell disorders*: Absolute *→ ↓ Neutrophil (Bands+ANC < 1500)
  • B1= Low or No Disease or Immune
  • Infect*:
  • -gram fungal*
  • 1= History/Diagnosis* =
  • w differential*
  • BM* Markers

Drug Causes

  • Drug Causes*:
  • *Sulfonamides drugs, GI medicine (citi), Anti
  • Deficiency (vitamine B12) and Auto or infections
  • Causes of hyper= viral or lung
  • Lymphocytopenia

Infectious and inflammatory and CML:

  • test 1: -Peripheral test abnormal Wbc (blast)
  • -phylly 1 :genetic testing*
    • Bone is if high etc* L: *platelet ↓<150K *platelet

→Causes Risk bleeding increases = causes ↓ production and Increase in the spleen

  • BM (Bone Marrow)* Impaired
  • *Genetic and abornmitaes -Increase in storage and auto.

Infection-Induced TPO

Infection can attack trans

  • Diagnosis*
  • History, with BM Treatment:
  • IVIG and
  • Anti-p > can causes infection
  • Can cuase Spleen removals. Infection with a

Anemia HUS

  • Causes E Coli Infection

DIC:

  • auto
  • Derminty Diagnosis:
  • History and Physical
  • Test ANA. and HIV is SH
  • PT PTT -If it doesn’t go with the other is dis-chord-

. Summary

  • Acute/Chronic is the leukemia -Proliferation or my-Loid is the plasma related

Benign White Blood Cell Disorders

  • Benign White Blood Cell disorders
  • absolute count 600
  • Causes of Neutropenia
  • -gram is can test drug induced with infection etc*
  • L= lymphocyte↑ and Causes increase virous bone* L is the platelet and
  • It’ is* thrombocytopenia
  • -- auto increases spleen.

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

Related Documents

Description

Overview of indications for transfusions of red blood cells, plasma, and platelets. Includes transfusion guidelines based on hemoglobin levels, clotting factors, and platelet counts. Also covers usage in hemorrhage and surgical procedures.

More Like This

Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser