Podcast
Questions and Answers
A patient with a hemoglobin level of 6.8 g/dL, but is otherwise asymptomatic, requires a red blood cell transfusion. How many units of packed red blood cells should initially be administered?
A patient with a hemoglobin level of 6.8 g/dL, but is otherwise asymptomatic, requires a red blood cell transfusion. How many units of packed red blood cells should initially be administered?
- One unit, and then reassess the hemoglobin level (correct)
- No transfusion is needed unless the patient is symptomatic
- Three units, to raise the hemoglobin to a safe level rapidly
- Two units, to mitigate the risk of fluid overload
A patient with a known coagulopathy is scheduled for a surgical procedure. Their INR is currently 1.7. Which blood product would be MOST appropriate to administer prior to the procedure?
A patient with a known coagulopathy is scheduled for a surgical procedure. Their INR is currently 1.7. Which blood product would be MOST appropriate to administer prior to the procedure?
- Cryoprecipitate
- Fresh Frozen Plasma (correct)
- Packed Red Blood Cells
- Platelets
Following a traumatic injury, a patient has massive hemorrhage and requires a large volume transfusion. Which blood product would be MOST appropriate to administer to address both the bleeding and potential coagulation factor deficiencies?
Following a traumatic injury, a patient has massive hemorrhage and requires a large volume transfusion. Which blood product would be MOST appropriate to administer to address both the bleeding and potential coagulation factor deficiencies?
- Fresh Frozen Plasma (correct)
- Cryoprecipitate
- Packed Red Blood Cells
- Platelets
A patient with a platelet count of 8,000/μL is actively bleeding. Which transfusion would be MOST appropriate for this patient?
A patient with a platelet count of 8,000/μL is actively bleeding. Which transfusion would be MOST appropriate for this patient?
An individual with type A blood requires a transfusion. Which blood type(s) can they RECEIVE?
An individual with type A blood requires a transfusion. Which blood type(s) can they RECEIVE?
A patient with type O blood requires a blood transfusion. Which of the following is TRUE regarding their blood type?
A patient with type O blood requires a blood transfusion. Which of the following is TRUE regarding their blood type?
An Rh-negative mother is pregnant with an Rh-positive fetus. Which intervention is MOST appropriate to prevent hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)?
An Rh-negative mother is pregnant with an Rh-positive fetus. Which intervention is MOST appropriate to prevent hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)?
A patient is identified as Jehovah's Witness and requires a blood transfusion. Which consideration is MOST important when discussing treatment options?
A patient is identified as Jehovah's Witness and requires a blood transfusion. Which consideration is MOST important when discussing treatment options?
A patient has a thrombus that detaches from the vessel wall and travels to the lung, causing a pulmonary embolism. What term BEST describes this occurrence?
A patient has a thrombus that detaches from the vessel wall and travels to the lung, causing a pulmonary embolism. What term BEST describes this occurrence?
Which of the following is NOT typically a symptom of fat embolus?
Which of the following is NOT typically a symptom of fat embolus?
A deep-sea diver ascends too quickly and develops a pressurized air embolus. What is the underlying mechanism behind this condition?
A deep-sea diver ascends too quickly and develops a pressurized air embolus. What is the underlying mechanism behind this condition?
According to Virchow's Triad, which of the following is a MAJOR contributing factor to venous thrombosis?
According to Virchow's Triad, which of the following is a MAJOR contributing factor to venous thrombosis?
A patient is diagnosed with Factor V Leiden. What is the MOST accurate description of the underlying mechanism leading to increased thrombotic risk?
A patient is diagnosed with Factor V Leiden. What is the MOST accurate description of the underlying mechanism leading to increased thrombotic risk?
Which of the following lab results would be MOST indicative of marked hyperhomocysteinemia?
Which of the following lab results would be MOST indicative of marked hyperhomocysteinemia?
A patient presents with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). In approximately what percentage of cases is the DVT asymptomatic until an embolization event occurs?
A patient presents with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). In approximately what percentage of cases is the DVT asymptomatic until an embolization event occurs?
A patient is diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism (PE). What is the MOST common origin of emboli in PE cases?
A patient is diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism (PE). What is the MOST common origin of emboli in PE cases?
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the pathophysiology of arterial hypoxemia in pulmonary embolism?
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the pathophysiology of arterial hypoxemia in pulmonary embolism?
A patient presents with dyspnea, tachycardia, and pleuritic chest pain. Which of the following conditions should be HIGH on your differential?
A patient presents with dyspnea, tachycardia, and pleuritic chest pain. Which of the following conditions should be HIGH on your differential?
In the evaluation of a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE), what information does a normal perfusion scan provide?
In the evaluation of a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE), what information does a normal perfusion scan provide?
What is the PRIMARY goal of large volume plasma exchange in the treatment of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?
What is the PRIMARY goal of large volume plasma exchange in the treatment of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?
Which of the following test results is MOST specific for diagnosing thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?
Which of the following test results is MOST specific for diagnosing thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?
A patient is suspected of having heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Which of the following is the BEST initial step in management?
A patient is suspected of having heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Which of the following is the BEST initial step in management?
Which of the following is a KEY laboratory finding characteristic of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
Which of the following is a KEY laboratory finding characteristic of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
A patient with a known history of cancer presents with spontaneous bleeding and oozing at IV sites. What disorder should you be MOST suspicious of?
A patient with a known history of cancer presents with spontaneous bleeding and oozing at IV sites. What disorder should you be MOST suspicious of?
What platelet count defines thrombocytopenia?
What platelet count defines thrombocytopenia?
In a patient with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), which of the following blood smear findings would you MOST likely expect?
In a patient with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), which of the following blood smear findings would you MOST likely expect?
A patient is diagnosed with ITP. What platelet count threshold typically warrants treatment intervention to reduce the risk of bleeding?
A patient is diagnosed with ITP. What platelet count threshold typically warrants treatment intervention to reduce the risk of bleeding?
Which of the following is a COMMON finding in patients with ALL acute lymphoblastic leukemia?
Which of the following is a COMMON finding in patients with ALL acute lymphoblastic leukemia?
A patient presents with fatigue, night sweats, and splenomegaly. Lab results show increased WBCs, and a Philadelphia chromosome is detected. What condition is MOST likely?
A patient presents with fatigue, night sweats, and splenomegaly. Lab results show increased WBCs, and a Philadelphia chromosome is detected. What condition is MOST likely?
A patient has an elevated RBC, Hct, and Hgb. Which of the following would suggest polycythemia vera over secondary polycythemia?
A patient has an elevated RBC, Hct, and Hgb. Which of the following would suggest polycythemia vera over secondary polycythemia?
A patient presents with fatigue, splenomegaly, and easy bruising. A blood smear reveals fibrosis in the bone marrow and a leucoerythroblastic picture. Which condition is most likely?
A patient presents with fatigue, splenomegaly, and easy bruising. A blood smear reveals fibrosis in the bone marrow and a leucoerythroblastic picture. Which condition is most likely?
An adult patient has a normocytic anemia. His laboratory results reveal an absolute Neutophil count of 1,000/µL. According to text, what condition does this patient likely suffer from?
An adult patient has a normocytic anemia. His laboratory results reveal an absolute Neutophil count of 1,000/µL. According to text, what condition does this patient likely suffer from?
A patient is diagnosed with VTE(Venous Thromboembolism). According to text, what D-dimer result would the clinician expect if they were to order D-dimer lab testing?
A patient is diagnosed with VTE(Venous Thromboembolism). According to text, what D-dimer result would the clinician expect if they were to order D-dimer lab testing?
According to text, what is the definition of the lab abnormality, neutrophilia?
According to text, what is the definition of the lab abnormality, neutrophilia?
What medication is safe to use, for a patient with severe anemia and also has a high risk of clotting?
What medication is safe to use, for a patient with severe anemia and also has a high risk of clotting?
What should the clinician consider when deciding on the best course of treatment for patient that has the blood condition, polycythemia?
What should the clinician consider when deciding on the best course of treatment for patient that has the blood condition, polycythemia?
A patient's lab test results are positive for, exon 14, during JAK2 testing. This patient also has enlarged retinal veins and symptoms, dizziness, tinnitus. What is the likely blood condition that this patient is suffering from?
A patient's lab test results are positive for, exon 14, during JAK2 testing. This patient also has enlarged retinal veins and symptoms, dizziness, tinnitus. What is the likely blood condition that this patient is suffering from?
A patient requires bone marrow biopsy to determine the state of their MDS (Myelodysplastic Syndrome). Which of the following options are symptoms of MDS?
A patient requires bone marrow biopsy to determine the state of their MDS (Myelodysplastic Syndrome). Which of the following options are symptoms of MDS?
What is the definition of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation - DIC?
What is the definition of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation - DIC?
What causes Burkitt's Lymphoma
What causes Burkitt's Lymphoma
Which of these situations warrants the administration of plasma to a patient?
Which of these situations warrants the administration of plasma to a patient?
A patient with Hemophilia A is undergoing a surgical procedure. Which blood product is the MOST appropriate to improve hemostasis and prevent excessive bleeding?
A patient with Hemophilia A is undergoing a surgical procedure. Which blood product is the MOST appropriate to improve hemostasis and prevent excessive bleeding?
A patient has a suspected venous thromboembolism (VTE). According to Virchow's Triad, which of the following conditions would be MOST contributory to venous thrombosis?
A patient has a suspected venous thromboembolism (VTE). According to Virchow's Triad, which of the following conditions would be MOST contributory to venous thrombosis?
After a long surgery, a patient develops a pulmonary embolism (PE). Which of the following factors is the MOST likely origin of the embolus?
After a long surgery, a patient develops a pulmonary embolism (PE). Which of the following factors is the MOST likely origin of the embolus?
Following a femur fracture, a patient develops shortness of breath, confusion, and petechiae. What is the MOST likely underlying cause of these symptoms?
Following a femur fracture, a patient develops shortness of breath, confusion, and petechiae. What is the MOST likely underlying cause of these symptoms?
What is the expected change in a patient's hemoglobin level after administering one unit of packed red blood cells?
What is the expected change in a patient's hemoglobin level after administering one unit of packed red blood cells?
A pregnant patient is Rh negative. Which intervention is needed to prevent hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)?
A pregnant patient is Rh negative. Which intervention is needed to prevent hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)?
A patient undergoing evaluation for a bleeding disorder has an elevated level of haptoglobin and low hemoglobin levels. These results would MOSTLY suggest:
A patient undergoing evaluation for a bleeding disorder has an elevated level of haptoglobin and low hemoglobin levels. These results would MOSTLY suggest:
A patient with suspected anemia has a decreased neutrophil count when they were tested for a complete blood count with differential. A neutrophil count of what value, would confirm this assessment?
A patient with suspected anemia has a decreased neutrophil count when they were tested for a complete blood count with differential. A neutrophil count of what value, would confirm this assessment?
How should the clinician manage severe bleeding due to Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation - DIC.
How should the clinician manage severe bleeding due to Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation - DIC.
Flashcards
Indications for RBC transfusion
Indications for RBC transfusion
Hemoglobin <7 g/dL. Ischemia due to impaired O2 transport. Symptomatic anemia. Hypovolemic shock/bleeding.
Quantity: 1 unit RBC transfusion should
Quantity: 1 unit RBC transfusion should
↑ hemoglobin by 1g/dL or Hct by 3%
Plasma
Plasma
Source of all coagulation factors; if given as 10-15 ml/kg will replace about 20% of a patient's clotting factors.
Administer Plasma
Administer Plasma
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1 unit of platelets should increase platelet count
1 unit of platelets should increase platelet count
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Administer Platelets:
Administer Platelets:
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Cryoprecipitate
Cryoprecipitate
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Administer Cryoprecipitate
Administer Cryoprecipitate
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ABO Antigens
ABO Antigens
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O blood type is a lack of what?
O blood type is a lack of what?
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Blood Type A
Blood Type A
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Blood Type B
Blood Type B
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Blood Type AB
Blood Type AB
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Blood Type O
Blood Type O
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Agglutinins
Agglutinins
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Rh (-) patient
Rh (-) patient
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Mother Rh (-)
Mother Rh (-)
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RhoGAM
RhoGAM
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Thrombus
Thrombus
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Thrombosis
Thrombosis
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Arterial Thrombosis
Arterial Thrombosis
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Venous Thrombosis
Venous Thrombosis
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Embolization
Embolization
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Thromboembolus
Thromboembolus
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Embolus
Embolus
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Fat embolus
Fat embolus
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Mechanism of injury (Fat embolus)
Mechanism of injury (Fat embolus)
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Air embolus
Air embolus
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Amniotic fluid Embolism
Amniotic fluid Embolism
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Virchow's Triad: Worsening Conditions
Virchow's Triad: Worsening Conditions
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Turbulent flow Arterial Thrombosis
Turbulent flow Arterial Thrombosis
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Stasis (Virchow)
Stasis (Virchow)
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Endothelial Injury
Endothelial Injury
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Hypercoagulability
Hypercoagulability
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Factor V Leiden: Normal pathway
Factor V Leiden: Normal pathway
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Factor V Leiden: Disease pathway
Factor V Leiden: Disease pathway
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Factor V Leiden: Statistics
Factor V Leiden: Statistics
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Factor V Leiden DVT risk
Factor V Leiden DVT risk
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Protein C or S deficiency: Symptoms
Protein C or S deficiency: Symptoms
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Protein C concentrate (Ceprotin)
Protein C concentrate (Ceprotin)
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Marked hyperhomocysteinemia
Marked hyperhomocysteinemia
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Impact: Marked hyperhomocysteinemia
Impact: Marked hyperhomocysteinemia
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Causes moderate elevation
Causes moderate elevation
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Homocysteine toxicity
Homocysteine toxicity
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DVT
DVT
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Pulmonary Embolism
Pulmonary Embolism
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Congestive Atelectasis (Symptoms)
Congestive Atelectasis (Symptoms)
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imaging findings for Congestive Atelectasis
imaging findings for Congestive Atelectasis
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Air Embolism: Quantity
Air Embolism: Quantity
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Noninvasive: findings
Noninvasive: findings
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Venography
Venography
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What is elevated?
What is elevated?
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What's elevated in embolism?
What's elevated in embolism?
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Low plateletes
Low plateletes
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Study Notes
Transfusions
- Indications for red blood cell (RBC) transfusions include hemoglobin levels less than 7 g/dL, especially under 8 g/dL in cardiogenic shock cases
- Other indications are evidence of ischemia due to impaired oxygen transport, symptomatic anemia, and hypovolemic shock or bleeding
- A single unit transfusion should increase hemoglobin by 1 g/dL or hematocrit by 3%
Plasma
- Plasma provides all coagulation factors
- Administering 10-15 ml/kg of plasma will replace around 20% of a patient's clotting factors
- Plasma is given in cases of massive hemorrhage.
- Use before surgical procedures with an INR greater than 1.6
- Use when specific factor concentrates aren't available, and for plasma exchange
Platelets
- A single unit platelet transfusion typically raises the platelet count by 25-50 per unit given
- Platelets last about a week after donation
- Platelets are administered for massive hemorrhage, platelet counts below 10, and before procedures when platelet counts are below 50k
- Given for active bleeding, central nervous system or intraocular bleeding, when platelet count is below 50k
- Antiplatelet therapy and congenital platelet dysfunction/bleeding also warrant platelet transfusion
Cryoprecipitate
- Contains fibrinogen and von Willebrand Factor (vWF)
- It is administered in cases of massive hemorrhage, Hemophilia A, and von Willebrand disease (vWD)
Transfusion Considerations
- ABO antigens are codominantly inherited, meaning individuals can have blood types A, B, AB, or O, based on the presence or absence of A and B antigens
- If someone inherits both A and B alleles, both antigens get expressed, resulting in blood type AB
- Blood type O signifies the lack of both A and B antigens
- Blood type A produces anti-B antibodies and reacts with anti-A serum.
- Blood type B produces anti-A antibodies and reacts with anti-B serum.
- Blood type AB has no antibodies present and can receive both A and B blood.
- Blood type O has no antigens present and produces both anti-A and anti-B antibodies
Agglutinins
- Agglutinins are antibodies that cause clumping (agglutination) of incompatible red blood cells
Rh Factor
- The D-antigen is present in about 85% of the population (Rh+)
- Rh-negative patients only develop anti-D antibodies after exposure to Rh-positive blood, with pregnancy as a key instance
- If a mother is Rh-negative and exposed to fetal Rh-positive blood, she develops Anti-D antibodies that can cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)
- Administering Rh immune globulin, or RhoGAM, prevents complications; this contains anti-D IgG antibodies that clear fetal Rh-positive cells from the maternal blood stream, preventing the development of maternal Rh antibodies
Type and Screen
- Cross-matching to reduce complications includes determining ABO type, Rh type, and screening for other antibodies
- Religious considerations, like those of Jehovah's Witnesses, should be respected; do not assume they will refuse blood.
- Pediatric cases require knowledge of hospital policies and ethics committee involvement
- For individuals with dietary restrictions (vegetarian, vegan, Islam, Judaism), note that heparin is derived from porcine intestinal mucosa
Thrombosis and Thrombophilia
- Thrombus: An aggregate of coagulated blood containing platelets, fibrin, and trapped cellular elements
- Thrombosis: Formation of a thrombus, leading to potential blood vessel obstruction
- Arterial thrombosis can lead to MI, stroke, and peripheral arterial thrombosis often associated with AFIB without anticoagulation
- Venous thrombosis can lead to DVT and pulmonary embolism
Outcomes of Thrombosis:
- Lysis: The fibrinolytic system can rapidly dissolve recent thrombi.
- It is less effective for older, more resistant clots
- Propagation: The thrombus grows by accumulating platelets and fibrin, which can lead to vessel occlusion
- Embolization: A portion of the thrombus breaks off and travels, resulting in blockages elsewhere
- Organization: Inflammation and fibrosis occur, which makes the thrombus firm and grayish white
- Canalization: A new lumen forms within the organized thrombus, allowing partial blood flow restoration
- Thromboembolus: A thrombus formed in one location that detaches, traveling to a distant site Venous thromboembolism (VTE): DVT, PE, cerebral venous sinus thrombosis
- Embolus: Intravascular solid, liquid, or gaseous mass carried to a distant site
- Fat embolus: Fat emboli is released into circulation following fractures of long bones, soft tissue truama or burns and may result the following:
- Sudden onset
- Tachypnea, Dyspnea, Tachycardia
- Neurologic symptoms, which include Mental changes that progress to delirium or coma
- Diffuse widespread petechiae (20-50% of cases)
- Thrombocytopenia due to adherence of platelets to fat globules
- Appears 1-3 days after injury and mostly obstructs microcirculation (arterioles and capillaries)
- Usually is associated with Long bone fractures or Burns; trauma occurs in 90% of subjects with skeletal injury, but <10% of patients show clinical symptoms
- The Fat embolus syndrome is fatal in 10% of cases. -Mechanism of injury: Fat globules present in microvasculature of lungs (ARDS) and brain (cerebral edema and small hemorrhages), followed by platelet activation and granulocyte recruitment and Free fatty acids from fat globules causing local injury to endothelium
Air Embolus
- Requires 100mL.
- Pressurized air embolus (deep water scuba diving) is caused by ascending too quickly, leading to rapid decompression
Amniotic Fluid Embolism
- Characterized by amniotic fluid or tissue fluid leading to intense inflammatory response (RARE → HIGH mortality rate)
Virchow's Triad
- Virchow's Triad consists of Endothelial Injury, Circulatory Stasis and Hypercoagulability; that leads to thrombosis and are worsened by:
- Cancer, COVID, Pregnancy Circulatory status
- Turbulent flow leads to arterial thrombosis result of turbulence around an aneurysm or at bifurcation sites
- Stasis (slowed flow) is a major factor for venous thrombosis
- Venous stasis caused by Prolonged immobilization, Foreign bodies, CHF, Pregnancy, Dehydration, Atrial fibrillation, Valve stenosis, Ventricular dysfunction, Polycythemia/sickle cell Endothelial Injury
- Injury to the inner lining of blood vessels from surgery, trauma, or high blood pressure makes clot formation more likely.
- Caused by Atherosclerosis, Hyperlipidemia Phlebitis/vasculitis Foreign body, Trauma and Bacterial infection. Hypercoagulability
- Increased tendency for blood to clot due to genetic disorders, cancer, pregnancy, medications caused by:
- Factor V Leiden which is autosomal dominant, and occurs in 2-15% of Caucasians Mutation → abnormal factor V not deactivated by protein C. A heterozygous risk of DVT by 4–6-fold and homozygous Condition → single greatest risk factor 50- to 100- fold risk increase for DVT
- Protein C or S deficiency found in neonates, and occurs with: Severe congenital protein C deficiency → rare (1-2 neonates for every 1 million births) leading abnormally high numbers of clots → death. Symptoms appear soon after birth with a wide-spreading clot, that requires treatment with Protein C concentrate (Ceprotin)
Hyperhomocysteinemia
- Marked hyperhomocysteinemia has Plasma homocysteine level >100 µmol/L is found in Pediatrics
- Caused by Homozygous for cystathionine-beta-synthesis deficiency; that may lead to Severe developmental disability Lens and skeletal defects or Atherosclerotic and thromboembolic disease
- Moderate elevation: 16-100 µmol/L caused by Heterozygous enzyme deficiency of B12, Folic acid, or Pyridoxine (B6).
- Homocysteine is normally metabolized which, deficiencies in these vitamins lead to elevated homocsyteine levels, increasing cardiovascular disease.
- Mild/moderate shows Homocysteine toxicity results in direct damage to endothelium, increased loss of thrombolysis
- Homocysteine toxicity: direct damage to endothelium, increased platelet adhesion → loss of thrombolysis
- Homocysteine causes an Independent risk factor for CAD, PVD, DVT, and Antithrombin deficiency
VTE (Venous Thromboembolism)
The most common of VTE is; Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
- Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) (large vessels) enters right side of heart; and is - Asymptomatic in 50% cases or Impaired venous valve function.
- Results in Pulmonary Embolism(90% cases) (CT angiography) Risk Factor Advanced age, Sickle cell disease, Genetics + Males higher risk Obesity, Smoking, Immobilization, Prolonged bed rest, Flight travel
- Flight Travel Risks*:
- Asymptomatic(higher)
- 4hr: 1/4600
-
8hr: 1/200 risk factor Foreign body, Estrogen: hormone replacement therapy is a DVT RiskFactor
DVT (Deep Vein Thrombosis) Pathogenesis
DVT Causes:
- Stasis
- Injury
- Hypercoagulability, oral Contraceptivse and smoking
- Advanced Age
- Late pregnancy Clinical Findings:
- Majority (90%) =legs vs 10% pelvis Superficial
- *Thrombi →found in saphenous Symptoms
- Local congestion
- Swelling
- Pain
- Tenderness along venous course
- Rarely embolize
- Local edema
- Impaired venous drainage Deep
- Thrombi → larger veins popliteal, femoral, iliac Symptoms
- Swelling→ unilateral
- Pain, Erythema, & Tenderness Pulmonary Embolism
-
dyspnea + tachycardia
- R/o PE and VTE
- *90% case→emboli originate deep veins
- Lungs findings: 65% Bilateral vs 25% Right only and Left 10% and Lower > upper 4x
- Mech: Thrombi obstruction= Primary vs Vaso constriction(Low O), Secondary Severity
- Sig rise in P (>25mm)= 30-50% blocked
- RV->CO, central venous and right atrial pressure increase
Arterial Hypoxemia
Arterial Hypoxemia occurs due to ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) Exact Mechanisms:
- Increased alveolar dead space (vent present, perfusion absent
- "R to L Shunting
- *Right-to-left shunting can occur in lung regions:partial atelectasis
- Hypoxemia :improve with deep breathing
- Bronchoconstriction : Plate 5ht and PG Clinical Presentation:
- 60-80% Pulmonary eboli small and Symptomatic
- Undergo become and the Organized into vascular wall
- Symptoms*
- "chest pain and dyspnea and Tachypnea and syncope and 15% with Death"
Pulmonary Embolism:
- The Most Common Cardiovascular Collapse→≥60%
Scenarios:
- "PE in Hopitalized patients but was fine"
- Obstructive PE ( most cause Death)
- Chronic Heart and lung, inmmobilzaion→ PE → Death Saddle Lodged @ bifurcation pulmonary ( obstructed)
- 50% trunk blocked- > death
- Rt v→Rt Ventric Failure and Shock
- If not deadly PE*
- Symptoms include include*
Hypo Tension and impaired and pale Weaken and sweat IIPulmonary with fluid but not embolism
- "Pulmonary Infarction
-
15% of cases in chest
- *Plead effisun, pneumonia - Cough IIi Congestive Atelectasis
*Impaired lung Tachnea Chest CT ray shows and hypuxima Lab Tests:
- "If embolism suspected d-dimer
- Air
Air Embolism
Air embolism often casured bu Neck to the lung Quantities: 100 ml → Effect Phisycal → blood side lungs Gas dissolved rapid decent ascent Clincial presentation Thromboemblotic is dervived by tromobus Causes
- Pathways*→PE,
- asymto Symptoms:
- Ultrasound alteration
- 20-30 Classical symptoms
- Major patient at risks
- *Surgery (trauma) with old patient:
- High chance without surgery
Surgery Considerations
- Clinical Checklist*
high<+ * Ultrasound and low * Doppler.
Other factors:
-
Plasma: d-dimer elevation
- Contrast more accurate>
- Patient likely will have it
- Dye hypertonic
Heparin, Pulmonary, and Anticoagulation
Hepatotoxic
-
Pulmonary: movement the lungs, and lodges
- "Dvt Is lower
- PE is 20% cases
- Other sources are less with pelvus Risk Factors:
- Heart Failure and women: Chemical
- 5ht 40%
Clinical features
- "Can Asymptomatic
- *Acute dyspnea often"
- Symptoms: Acute pain"
Benign White Blood Cell Disorders
- Benign White Blood Cell disorders*: Absolute *→ ↓ Neutrophil (Bands+ANC < 1500)
- B1= Low or No Disease or Immune
- Infect*:
- -gram fungal*
- 1= History/Diagnosis* =
- w differential*
- BM* Markers
Drug Causes
- Drug Causes*:
- *Sulfonamides drugs, GI medicine (citi), Anti
- Deficiency (vitamine B12) and Auto or infections
- Causes of hyper= viral or lung
- Lymphocytopenia
Infectious and inflammatory and CML:
- test 1: -Peripheral test abnormal Wbc (blast)
- -phylly 1 :genetic testing*
-
- Bone is if high etc* L: *platelet ↓<150K *platelet
→Causes Risk bleeding increases = causes ↓ production and Increase in the spleen
- BM (Bone Marrow)* Impaired
- *Genetic and abornmitaes -Increase in storage and auto.
Infection-Induced TPO
Infection can attack trans
- Diagnosis*
- History, with BM Treatment:
- IVIG and
- Anti-p > can causes infection
- Can cuase Spleen removals. Infection with a
Anemia HUS
- Causes E Coli Infection
DIC:
- auto
- Derminty Diagnosis:
- History and Physical
- Test ANA. and HIV is SH
- PT PTT -If it doesn’t go with the other is dis-chord-
. Summary
- Acute/Chronic is the leukemia -Proliferation or my-Loid is the plasma related
Benign White Blood Cell Disorders
- Benign White Blood Cell disorders
- absolute count 600
- Causes of Neutropenia
- -gram is can test drug induced with infection etc*
- L= lymphocyte↑ and Causes increase virous bone* L is the platelet and
- It’ is* thrombocytopenia
- -- auto increases spleen.
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Description
Overview of indications for transfusions of red blood cells, plasma, and platelets. Includes transfusion guidelines based on hemoglobin levels, clotting factors, and platelet counts. Also covers usage in hemorrhage and surgical procedures.