Blood Composition and Key Parameters
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Questions and Answers

What role does RAG recombinase play in the B cell development process?

  • Facilitates heavy chain assembly
  • Helps in recombination of B cell receptors (correct)
  • Promotes B cell survival
  • Ensures lineage commitment

What is the primary outcome for immature B cells that remain reactive during negative selection?

  • They are eliminated through apoptosis (correct)
  • They are transformed into T cells
  • They migrate to peripheral circulation
  • They undergo receptor editing

Which B cell type is predominantly T-dependent and responds to diverse protein antigens?

  • Memory B Cells
  • B-1 Cells
  • Mature Naïve B Cells (correct)
  • Marginal Zone B Cells

What is the consequence of a defective Btk in B cell development?

<p>Progression to mature B cells is halted (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is associated with autoreactive B cells that escape the bone marrow?

<p>Short half-life of 1-5 days (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What begins with the rearrangement of the λ light chain locus in the pre-B cell stage?

<p>Light chain rearrangement (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which B cell type is characterized by high CD21 levels and a rapid response to blood-borne pathogens?

<p>Marginal Zone B Cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What initiates the survival signaling during the pre-B cell stage?

<p>Pairing of surrogate light chain with heavy chain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary issue in Selective IgA Deficiency?

<p>B cells expressing surface IgA fail to develop into plasma or memory cells. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of V(D)J recombination in T cells?

<p>To generate diversity and specificity for antigen recognition. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment is commonly associated with Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID)?

<p>IVIG and antibiotics. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which chains are involved in the somatic recombination of T cell receptors?

<p>α and β chains. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a life-threatening condition in infancy associated with SCID?

<p>Recurrent severe infections. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which genetic mutation accounts for approximately 12% of SCID cases?

<p>JAK3 tyrosine kinase mutation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the class I MHC molecule consist of?

<p>α-heavy chain, β2-microglobulin, and a peptide. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What organ defect is commonly associated with DiGeorge Syndrome?

<p>Thymus. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of CD4 in MHC class II interactions?

<p>To bind the β2 domain of MHC class II. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does AID play in somatic hypermutation?

<p>Converts cytosine to uracil in single-stranded DNA. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the consequence of a deficiency in complement proteins such as C1, C2, or C4?

<p>Decreased removal of immune complexes, leading to autoimmunity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is primarily processed in the endocytic pathway for MHC class II presentation?

<p>Extracellular proteins. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main outcome of class switching mediated by AID?

<p>Adaptation of antibodies to perform diverse immune functions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is specifically prevented by defects in complement regulatory proteins?

<p>Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about the classes of TCRs is correct?

<p>α:β T cells account for 95% of T cells. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common symptom of typical SCID?

<p>Failure to thrive. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of enzymes are involved in the joining phase of V(D)J recombination?

<p>Double-strand break repair enzymes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes CD40L deficiency in terms of clinical symptoms?

<p>Elevated levels of IgM and enlarged lymph nodes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is true regarding AID deficiency?

<p>It results in disabled somatic hypermutation and class switching. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a function of professional antigen-presenting cells (APCs)?

<p>Activate and differentiate naïve T cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What key function is associated with TH2 cells in the immune response?

<p>Eosinophil activation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which autoimmune disorder risk is associated with errors in affinity maturation?

<p>Increased production of self-reactive antibodies. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the implications of germinal centers in B-cell lymphomas?

<p>They are areas of high proliferation that can lead to malignancies. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cytokine is primarily associated with the activation of macrophages?

<p>IFN-γ (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What differentiates Central Memory T Cells from Effector Memory T Cells?

<p>Effector Memory T Cells lack CCR7 and CD62L (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the structure of a T cell receptor (TCR), what domain is specifically known for high variability?

<p>Vβ domain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do T cell receptors (TCRs) compare to B cell receptors (BCRs)?

<p>TCRs share structural similarities with the Fab region of immunoglobulins. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of memory T cells in the secondary immune response?

<p>They ensure faster clonal expansion upon re-exposure to antigen. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding antibody dynamics is correctly described in the context of the immune response?

<p>IgM initiates the response but has low-affinity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which key cytokines do TFH cells secrete to regulate B cell development?

<p>IL-21 and IL-6 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly explains a function of TH17 cells?

<p>Epithelial barrier maintenance and inflammation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of CD45 isoforms in T cell differentiation?

<p>They distinguish between naïve, effector, and memory T cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of effector T cells in relation to macrophages and B cells?

<p>They stimulate macrophages and B cells to produce cytokines or antibodies. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are MHC genes expressed in offspring?

<p>MHC genes are co-dominantly expressed from both parents. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What initiates T-cell lineage commitment during development?

<p>Interaction with thymic stromal cells and IL-7. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the fate of the majority of thymocytes during T-cell development?

<p>They undergo apoptosis due to unsuccessful TCR rearrangement. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs during positive selection in T-cell development?

<p>Weak binding may result in further α chain rearrangement. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the impact of successful β chain rearrangement in T-cell development?

<p>It halts γδ rearrangement and initiates CD4/CD8 expression. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the AIRE transcription factor during negative selection?

<p>It induces tissue-specific antigen expression in medullary epithelial cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes Class II MHC expression?

<p>Expressed on antigen-presenting cells (APCs). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Fate of the Pro-B Cell

Rearrangement of the immunoglobulin gene segments, a critical step in B cell development. If successful, the cell survives and progresses to the Pre-B cell stage. Failure results in apoptosis.

RAG Recombinase

The enzyme that catalyzes the recombination of immunoglobulin gene segments in the Pro-B cell. It's crucial for generating the diverse antibody repertoire.

Pax-5

A protein that ensures B cell commitment, promoting the development of B cells and suppressing other cell lineages.

Pre-B Cell Receptor (pre-BCR)

A checkpoint during Pre-B cell development. This receptor, comprised of a surrogate light chain and a heavy chain, assesses if the newly assembled heavy chain is functional. It's essential for cell survival.

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Light Chain Rearrangement

The process of rearranging the light chain immunoglobulin gene segments in Pre-B cells. This occurs after the heavy chain has successfully assembled and provides a chance to create a functional antibody by combining both chains.

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X-linked Agammaglobulinemia

A genetic disorder where a defect in the Bruton's Tyrosine Kinase (Btk) protein prevents Pre-B cells from maturing. This results in an inability to produce antibodies.

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Negative Selection

The process where immature B cells are tested against self-antigens within the bone marrow. It ensures B cells don't produce antibodies against the body's own tissues.

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Anergy

B cells that encounter self-antigens in the periphery and become unresponsive, thereby preventing autoimmunity. These cells are characterized by high IgD expression and a short lifespan.

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Rearrangement of Antigen Receptor Genes

The process of generating a diverse and specific repertoire of antigen receptors by rearranging gene segments during lymphocyte development.

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RAG Complex

The key enzyme complex responsible for cutting and joining DNA segments during V(D)J recombination, specifically the RAG-1 and RAG-2 proteins.

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Recombination Signal Sequences (RSS)

The specific DNA sequences that flank the variable, diversity, and joining gene segments, guiding the RAG enzymes during recombination.

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Terminal Deoxynucleotidyl Transferase (TdT)

This enzyme adds random nucleotides to the ends of the cut DNA fragments during V(D)J recombination, further increasing diversity.

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CD4+ T Cells (Helper T cells)

A type of T cell that recognizes antigens presented by MHC class II molecules and helps activate other immune cells.

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CD8+ T cells (Cytotoxic T Cells)

A type of T cell that recognizes antigens presented by MHC class I molecules, and directly kills infected or cancerous cells.

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Professional Antigen-Presenting Cells (APCs)

A specialized type of immune cell (like dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells) that captures and processes antigens, presenting them to T cells to initiate an immune response.

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Proteasome

A specialized compartment within cells where proteins are broken down into smaller peptides, preparing them for MHC presentation.

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Macrophages

Specialized cells that engulf and destroy pathogens and cellular debris. They can also present antigens to T cells, initiating an immune response.

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B Cells

WBCs that produce antibodies, which specifically target and neutralize pathogens. They are crucial for humoral immunity.

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MHC Genes

A group of genes responsible for encoding proteins that present antigens to T cells. They are highly diverse, ensuring a wide range of immune responses.

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T-Cell Selection

The process by which T cells learn to distinguish between self and non-self antigens in the thymus.

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CD8+ T Cells

A type of T cell that is restricted to recognizing antigens presented by MHC class I molecules. They are involved in killing infected cells.

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CD4+ T Cells

A type of T cell that is restricted to recognizing antigens presented by MHC class II molecules. They help activate other immune cells, like macrophages and B cells.

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Cytokines

A signaling molecule produced by immune cells that can influence the activity of other cells. They are important for coordinating the immune response.

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Immune Tolerance

The ability of the immune system to recognize and destroy pathogens without harming the body's own cells.

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AID (Activation-Induced Deaminase)

An enzyme that converts cytosine to uracil in single-stranded DNA, leading to mutations during repair, primarily affecting the complementary determining regions (CDRs) of antibody genes.

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Affinity Maturation

The process of enhancing the affinity of antibodies for their antigen via mutations introduced by AID. It ensures antibodies become progressively more effective in binding and neutralizing their target.

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Class Switching

A mechanism that allows B cells to switch their antibody class (e.g., IgM to IgG, IgA, or IgE) by recombining switch regions upstream of different constant region genes.

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Hyper-IgM Syndrome (CD40L Deficiency)

A genetic disorder caused by a deficiency in CD40 ligand, preventing B cell activation and class switching. It results in elevated IgM levels and recurrent infections.

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Hyper-IgM Syndrome (AID Deficiency)

A genetic disorder characterized by an inability to undergo somatic hypermutation and class switching, leading to low antibody affinity and diversity. It is caused by a deficiency in AID.

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Complementary Determining Regions (CDRs)

The regions within the variable domains of antibody genes that are particularly prone to mutations during affinity maturation. These mutations directly impact antibody-antigen binding.

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Follicular Lymphoma

Follicular lymphoma is a type of cancer that arises from B cells in the germinal centers, the sites of rapid proliferation and high mutation rates. It's one example of how uncontrolled proliferation can lead to malignancy.

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Autoimmune Implications of Affinity Maturation

A potential consequence of errors in the selection process of B cells during affinity maturation. Self-reactive B cells may escape elimination, leading to autoimmune disorders.

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TH1 Cells

A subset of CD4+ T cells that primarily activate macrophages and promote the production of IgG antibodies, crucial for controlling intracellular pathogens.

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TH2 Cells

A subset of CD4+ T cells that primarily drive humoral immunity, activating B cells to produce antibodies and stimulating eosinophils to combat parasites.

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TH17 Cells

A subset of CD4+ T cells that promote inflammation and maintain epithelial barrier integrity, crucial for protecting against extracellular pathogens.

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TFH Cells

A subset of CD4+ T cells that help regulate B cell development and antibody production, crucial for a balanced immune response.

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Treg Cells

A subset of CD4+ T cells that suppress the activation of self-reactive T cells and promote immune tolerance, effectively preventing autoimmune responses.

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Secondary Immune Response

The immune response upon secondary exposure to an antigen, characterized by faster activation, greater magnitude, and enhanced antibody production compared to the initial response.

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Memory T Cells

Long-lived T cells that retain specificity for a particular antigen, allowing the immune system to mount a rapid and robust response upon re-exposure.

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Central Memory T Cells

A type of memory T cell that expresses CCR7 and L-selectin, allowing them to reside in lymph nodes and readily proliferate upon antigen encounter.

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Selective IgA Deficiency

A condition where B cells fail to differentiate into plasma cells or memory B cells despite expressing surface IgA.

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Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID)

A condition where B cells fail to mature properly, resulting in impaired immunoglobulin (Ig) production, especially of IgG, IgA, and IgM.

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SCID

A severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) that affects both T and B cell function. It's often life-threatening in infancy.

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Complement Deficiency (C1, C2, C4)

A condition caused by a deficiency or a defect in complement proteins C1, C2, or C4. This leads to decreased C3b and C4b, which are crucial for removing immune complexes.

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Deficiency in Complement Regulatory Proteins (CRPs)

A condition resulting from deficiencies in complement regulatory proteins (CRPs) like DAF, CD59, and HRF.

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Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH)

A rare inherited disorder resulting from defects in the gene responsible for anchoring complement regulatory proteins (CRPs) to cell membranes.

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DiGeorge Syndrome

A genetic condition characterized by the absence or malformation of the thymus, often accompanied by other organ defects like heart, head, and neck abnormalities, and parathyroid problems.

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SCID (various causes)

A rare genetic disorder affecting both T and B cell function. Various causes exist, including mutations in genes for IL-2Rγ, ADA, JAK3, and other factors.

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Study Notes

Blood Composition and Key Parameters

  • Erythrocytes (red blood cells) make up 45% of blood volume. They are anucleate and lack organelles, mainly transporting oxygen and carbon dioxide via hemoglobin. They have a lifespan of about 120 days. Genetic diseases like hereditary spherocytosis or elliptocytosis are associated with mutations affecting their shape and flexibility.

  • Leukocytes (white blood cells) represent 1-2% of blood volume. They are categorized as granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils) or agranulocytes (lymphocytes, monocytes). A complete blood count (CBC) provides information about cell counts, including mean corpuscular volume (MCV), mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH), mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC), and red cell distribution width (RDW).

  • Plasma constitutes 53-54% of blood volume and is the liquid portion of blood. Hematocrit measures the percentage of red blood cells in the blood volume. Values vary by sex.

Leukocytes (WBCs)

  • Neutrophils (PMNs) are multi-lobed granulocytes, with primary (azurophilic), secondary (specific), and tertiary granules. They are first responders to infection, exhibit diapedesis (exiting blood vessels), and phagocytose pathogens. Synthesis of reactive oxygen species (ROS) contributes to killing pathogens. The phagocyte oxidase and myeloperoxidase systems are involved.

  • Eosinophils are bilobed granulocytes; they are involved in defense against parasites and allergic reactions, and release enzymes like histaminase.

  • Basophils contain granules that stain with basic dyes, masking their bilobed nuclei. Basophils contain heparin, histamine, and cytokines; involved in hypersensitivity and anaphylaxis.

  • Lymphocytes are agranulocytes; T-cells are involved in cellular immunity and CD3 positive. CD8+ T cells are cytotoxic and recognize MHC I. CD4+ T cells are helper cells that recognize MHC II, and regulate tolerance via regulatory T cells (Tregs). γδ T cells mediate epithelial defense, while B-cells mediate humoral immunity, differentiate into plasma cells, and produce antibodies. NK cells recognize and kill virally infected cells and tumors.

  • Monocytes are the largest leukocytes; they are agranular and have indented nuclei. They circulate for 3 days before becoming macrophages in tissues, mediating phagocytosis and antigen presentation.

Hematopoiesis

  • Erythropoiesis (red blood cell production) proceeds through stages, including proerythroblast, basophilic erythroblast, polychromatophilic erythroblast (normoblast), polychromatophilic erythrocyte (reticulocyte), and finally, erythrocyte.

  • Granulopoiesis (granulocyte production) involves stages from CMP (common myelocytic progenitor) to myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, and mature granulocytes. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils stem from the GMP (granulocyte/monocyte progenitor).

  • Monopoiesis begins with GMP → MoP (monocyte precursor) to develop mature monocytes, which circulate for 3 days before differentiation into macrophages.

  • Thrombopoiesis: CMP differentiates into MEP (megakaryocyte-erythroid progenitor) to megakaryoblast and megakaryocyte, eventually shedding platelets into the circulation. Platelets are involved in clot formation and wound repair.

Stem Cells

  • Stem cells: Totipotent (e.g., zygote), pluripotent (e.g., embryonic stem cells), multipotent (e.g., hematopoietic stem cells), and unipotent (e.g., testis stem cells) are capable of generating different cell types

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Description

This quiz focuses on the composition of blood, specifically erythrocytes, leukocytes, and plasma. You'll explore the functions, characteristics, and key parameters associated with these blood components. Test your understanding of blood volume percentages and related genetic conditions.

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