Podcast
Questions and Answers
What role does RAG recombinase play in the B cell development process?
What role does RAG recombinase play in the B cell development process?
- Facilitates heavy chain assembly
- Helps in recombination of B cell receptors (correct)
- Promotes B cell survival
- Ensures lineage commitment
What is the primary outcome for immature B cells that remain reactive during negative selection?
What is the primary outcome for immature B cells that remain reactive during negative selection?
- They are eliminated through apoptosis (correct)
- They are transformed into T cells
- They migrate to peripheral circulation
- They undergo receptor editing
Which B cell type is predominantly T-dependent and responds to diverse protein antigens?
Which B cell type is predominantly T-dependent and responds to diverse protein antigens?
- Memory B Cells
- B-1 Cells
- Mature Naïve B Cells (correct)
- Marginal Zone B Cells
What is the consequence of a defective Btk in B cell development?
What is the consequence of a defective Btk in B cell development?
Which characteristic is associated with autoreactive B cells that escape the bone marrow?
Which characteristic is associated with autoreactive B cells that escape the bone marrow?
What begins with the rearrangement of the λ light chain locus in the pre-B cell stage?
What begins with the rearrangement of the λ light chain locus in the pre-B cell stage?
Which B cell type is characterized by high CD21 levels and a rapid response to blood-borne pathogens?
Which B cell type is characterized by high CD21 levels and a rapid response to blood-borne pathogens?
What initiates the survival signaling during the pre-B cell stage?
What initiates the survival signaling during the pre-B cell stage?
What is the primary issue in Selective IgA Deficiency?
What is the primary issue in Selective IgA Deficiency?
What is the purpose of V(D)J recombination in T cells?
What is the purpose of V(D)J recombination in T cells?
Which treatment is commonly associated with Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID)?
Which treatment is commonly associated with Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID)?
Which chains are involved in the somatic recombination of T cell receptors?
Which chains are involved in the somatic recombination of T cell receptors?
Which of the following is a life-threatening condition in infancy associated with SCID?
Which of the following is a life-threatening condition in infancy associated with SCID?
Which genetic mutation accounts for approximately 12% of SCID cases?
Which genetic mutation accounts for approximately 12% of SCID cases?
What does the class I MHC molecule consist of?
What does the class I MHC molecule consist of?
What organ defect is commonly associated with DiGeorge Syndrome?
What organ defect is commonly associated with DiGeorge Syndrome?
What is the role of CD4 in MHC class II interactions?
What is the role of CD4 in MHC class II interactions?
What role does AID play in somatic hypermutation?
What role does AID play in somatic hypermutation?
What is the consequence of a deficiency in complement proteins such as C1, C2, or C4?
What is the consequence of a deficiency in complement proteins such as C1, C2, or C4?
What is primarily processed in the endocytic pathway for MHC class II presentation?
What is primarily processed in the endocytic pathway for MHC class II presentation?
What is the main outcome of class switching mediated by AID?
What is the main outcome of class switching mediated by AID?
Which condition is specifically prevented by defects in complement regulatory proteins?
Which condition is specifically prevented by defects in complement regulatory proteins?
Which statement about the classes of TCRs is correct?
Which statement about the classes of TCRs is correct?
What is a common symptom of typical SCID?
What is a common symptom of typical SCID?
What type of enzymes are involved in the joining phase of V(D)J recombination?
What type of enzymes are involved in the joining phase of V(D)J recombination?
What characterizes CD40L deficiency in terms of clinical symptoms?
What characterizes CD40L deficiency in terms of clinical symptoms?
Which statement is true regarding AID deficiency?
Which statement is true regarding AID deficiency?
Which of the following is a function of professional antigen-presenting cells (APCs)?
Which of the following is a function of professional antigen-presenting cells (APCs)?
What key function is associated with TH2 cells in the immune response?
What key function is associated with TH2 cells in the immune response?
Which autoimmune disorder risk is associated with errors in affinity maturation?
Which autoimmune disorder risk is associated with errors in affinity maturation?
What are the implications of germinal centers in B-cell lymphomas?
What are the implications of germinal centers in B-cell lymphomas?
Which cytokine is primarily associated with the activation of macrophages?
Which cytokine is primarily associated with the activation of macrophages?
What differentiates Central Memory T Cells from Effector Memory T Cells?
What differentiates Central Memory T Cells from Effector Memory T Cells?
In the structure of a T cell receptor (TCR), what domain is specifically known for high variability?
In the structure of a T cell receptor (TCR), what domain is specifically known for high variability?
How do T cell receptors (TCRs) compare to B cell receptors (BCRs)?
How do T cell receptors (TCRs) compare to B cell receptors (BCRs)?
What is the significance of memory T cells in the secondary immune response?
What is the significance of memory T cells in the secondary immune response?
Which statement regarding antibody dynamics is correctly described in the context of the immune response?
Which statement regarding antibody dynamics is correctly described in the context of the immune response?
Which key cytokines do TFH cells secrete to regulate B cell development?
Which key cytokines do TFH cells secrete to regulate B cell development?
Which of the following correctly explains a function of TH17 cells?
Which of the following correctly explains a function of TH17 cells?
What is the role of CD45 isoforms in T cell differentiation?
What is the role of CD45 isoforms in T cell differentiation?
What is the role of effector T cells in relation to macrophages and B cells?
What is the role of effector T cells in relation to macrophages and B cells?
How are MHC genes expressed in offspring?
How are MHC genes expressed in offspring?
What initiates T-cell lineage commitment during development?
What initiates T-cell lineage commitment during development?
What is the fate of the majority of thymocytes during T-cell development?
What is the fate of the majority of thymocytes during T-cell development?
What occurs during positive selection in T-cell development?
What occurs during positive selection in T-cell development?
What is the impact of successful β chain rearrangement in T-cell development?
What is the impact of successful β chain rearrangement in T-cell development?
What is the role of the AIRE transcription factor during negative selection?
What is the role of the AIRE transcription factor during negative selection?
What characterizes Class II MHC expression?
What characterizes Class II MHC expression?
Flashcards
Fate of the Pro-B Cell
Fate of the Pro-B Cell
Rearrangement of the immunoglobulin gene segments, a critical step in B cell development. If successful, the cell survives and progresses to the Pre-B cell stage. Failure results in apoptosis.
RAG Recombinase
RAG Recombinase
The enzyme that catalyzes the recombination of immunoglobulin gene segments in the Pro-B cell. It's crucial for generating the diverse antibody repertoire.
Pax-5
Pax-5
A protein that ensures B cell commitment, promoting the development of B cells and suppressing other cell lineages.
Pre-B Cell Receptor (pre-BCR)
Pre-B Cell Receptor (pre-BCR)
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Light Chain Rearrangement
Light Chain Rearrangement
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X-linked Agammaglobulinemia
X-linked Agammaglobulinemia
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Negative Selection
Negative Selection
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Anergy
Anergy
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Rearrangement of Antigen Receptor Genes
Rearrangement of Antigen Receptor Genes
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RAG Complex
RAG Complex
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Recombination Signal Sequences (RSS)
Recombination Signal Sequences (RSS)
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Terminal Deoxynucleotidyl Transferase (TdT)
Terminal Deoxynucleotidyl Transferase (TdT)
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CD4+ T Cells (Helper T cells)
CD4+ T Cells (Helper T cells)
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CD8+ T cells (Cytotoxic T Cells)
CD8+ T cells (Cytotoxic T Cells)
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Professional Antigen-Presenting Cells (APCs)
Professional Antigen-Presenting Cells (APCs)
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Proteasome
Proteasome
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Macrophages
Macrophages
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B Cells
B Cells
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MHC Genes
MHC Genes
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T-Cell Selection
T-Cell Selection
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CD8+ T Cells
CD8+ T Cells
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CD4+ T Cells
CD4+ T Cells
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Cytokines
Cytokines
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Immune Tolerance
Immune Tolerance
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AID (Activation-Induced Deaminase)
AID (Activation-Induced Deaminase)
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Affinity Maturation
Affinity Maturation
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Class Switching
Class Switching
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Hyper-IgM Syndrome (CD40L Deficiency)
Hyper-IgM Syndrome (CD40L Deficiency)
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Hyper-IgM Syndrome (AID Deficiency)
Hyper-IgM Syndrome (AID Deficiency)
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Complementary Determining Regions (CDRs)
Complementary Determining Regions (CDRs)
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Follicular Lymphoma
Follicular Lymphoma
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Autoimmune Implications of Affinity Maturation
Autoimmune Implications of Affinity Maturation
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TH1 Cells
TH1 Cells
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TH2 Cells
TH2 Cells
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TH17 Cells
TH17 Cells
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TFH Cells
TFH Cells
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Treg Cells
Treg Cells
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Secondary Immune Response
Secondary Immune Response
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Memory T Cells
Memory T Cells
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Central Memory T Cells
Central Memory T Cells
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Selective IgA Deficiency
Selective IgA Deficiency
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Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID)
Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID)
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SCID
SCID
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Complement Deficiency (C1, C2, C4)
Complement Deficiency (C1, C2, C4)
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Deficiency in Complement Regulatory Proteins (CRPs)
Deficiency in Complement Regulatory Proteins (CRPs)
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Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH)
Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH)
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DiGeorge Syndrome
DiGeorge Syndrome
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SCID (various causes)
SCID (various causes)
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Study Notes
Blood Composition and Key Parameters
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Erythrocytes (red blood cells) make up 45% of blood volume. They are anucleate and lack organelles, mainly transporting oxygen and carbon dioxide via hemoglobin. They have a lifespan of about 120 days. Genetic diseases like hereditary spherocytosis or elliptocytosis are associated with mutations affecting their shape and flexibility.
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Leukocytes (white blood cells) represent 1-2% of blood volume. They are categorized as granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils) or agranulocytes (lymphocytes, monocytes). A complete blood count (CBC) provides information about cell counts, including mean corpuscular volume (MCV), mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH), mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC), and red cell distribution width (RDW).
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Plasma constitutes 53-54% of blood volume and is the liquid portion of blood. Hematocrit measures the percentage of red blood cells in the blood volume. Values vary by sex.
Leukocytes (WBCs)
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Neutrophils (PMNs) are multi-lobed granulocytes, with primary (azurophilic), secondary (specific), and tertiary granules. They are first responders to infection, exhibit diapedesis (exiting blood vessels), and phagocytose pathogens. Synthesis of reactive oxygen species (ROS) contributes to killing pathogens. The phagocyte oxidase and myeloperoxidase systems are involved.
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Eosinophils are bilobed granulocytes; they are involved in defense against parasites and allergic reactions, and release enzymes like histaminase.
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Basophils contain granules that stain with basic dyes, masking their bilobed nuclei. Basophils contain heparin, histamine, and cytokines; involved in hypersensitivity and anaphylaxis.
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Lymphocytes are agranulocytes; T-cells are involved in cellular immunity and CD3 positive. CD8+ T cells are cytotoxic and recognize MHC I. CD4+ T cells are helper cells that recognize MHC II, and regulate tolerance via regulatory T cells (Tregs). γδ T cells mediate epithelial defense, while B-cells mediate humoral immunity, differentiate into plasma cells, and produce antibodies. NK cells recognize and kill virally infected cells and tumors.
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Monocytes are the largest leukocytes; they are agranular and have indented nuclei. They circulate for 3 days before becoming macrophages in tissues, mediating phagocytosis and antigen presentation.
Hematopoiesis
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Erythropoiesis (red blood cell production) proceeds through stages, including proerythroblast, basophilic erythroblast, polychromatophilic erythroblast (normoblast), polychromatophilic erythrocyte (reticulocyte), and finally, erythrocyte.
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Granulopoiesis (granulocyte production) involves stages from CMP (common myelocytic progenitor) to myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, and mature granulocytes. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils stem from the GMP (granulocyte/monocyte progenitor).
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Monopoiesis begins with GMP → MoP (monocyte precursor) to develop mature monocytes, which circulate for 3 days before differentiation into macrophages.
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Thrombopoiesis: CMP differentiates into MEP (megakaryocyte-erythroid progenitor) to megakaryoblast and megakaryocyte, eventually shedding platelets into the circulation. Platelets are involved in clot formation and wound repair.
Stem Cells
- Stem cells: Totipotent (e.g., zygote), pluripotent (e.g., embryonic stem cells), multipotent (e.g., hematopoietic stem cells), and unipotent (e.g., testis stem cells) are capable of generating different cell types
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Description
This quiz focuses on the composition of blood, specifically erythrocytes, leukocytes, and plasma. You'll explore the functions, characteristics, and key parameters associated with these blood components. Test your understanding of blood volume percentages and related genetic conditions.