BIOS222 Exam 4 Study Guide

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Questions and Answers

What function do synaptic vesicles primarily serve in neural communication?

  • Cell adhesion
  • Regulated secretion (correct)
  • Signal amplification
  • Electrical signaling

Where do synaptic vesicles release their contents during synaptic transmission?

  • The axon
  • The postsynaptic cell cytoplasm
  • The presynaptic cell cytoplasm
  • The synaptic cleft (correct)

In epithelial cells, where are microvilli primarily located?

  • Lateral domain
  • Apical domain (correct)
  • Basal domain
  • Basolateral domain

Which cell junction prevents molecules from diffusing between cells in epithelial tissues?

<p>Tight junction (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of cell junction is associated with a belt of actin filaments?

<p>Adherens junction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of transmembrane protein binds to the same domain on adjacent cells?

<p>Homophilic (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of gap junctions between cells?

<p>Communication via small molecules (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of cell nucleus can be replaced to clone a frog according to John Gurdon's research?

<p>Adult skin cell (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What part of the receptor is phosphorylated on tyrosine upon activation of a receptor tyrosine kinase?

<p>The cytoplasmic domain of the receptor (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does Viagra affect cellular signaling?

<p>Delaying the end of the activated state of signaling (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which signaling pathway is influenced by the action of Viagra?

<p>Nitric oxide signaling (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ras is identified as an intermediary in which signaling pathway?

<p>Tyrosine kinase signaling (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which process is NOT involved in resetting or turning off a signaling pathway?

<p>A G alpha trimeric G protein replacing GDP with GTP (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Protein kinase A serves as an effector for which signaling pathway?

<p>GPCR signaling through adenylyl cyclase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is true about both oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes in human populations?

<p>Both tend to exhibit a gain of function in the mutant state (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Sound transduction by the outer hair cells of the inner ear occurs via which type of channels?

<p>Mechanically gated ion channels (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does Ross Cagans' research using transgenic flies demonstrate?

<p>Expressing genes with mutations that cause cancer in humans also cause cancer in flies (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Oncogenes are mutant forms of which type of genes?

<p>Genes that promote cell growth and division in normal cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cell types is not considered pluripotent?

<p>Adult skin cell (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What describes a stem cell that can only give rise to one specific differentiated cell type?

<p>Unipotent (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about induced pluripotent stem (iPS) cells is false?

<p>Require destruction of human embryos to produce them (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

From where did Texas Governor Rick Perry's injected stem cells originate?

<p>Fat tissue removed from his own body (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why do defects in the retinoblastoma gene not always lead to cancer?

<p>One copy of the gene is defective at birth, and the other copy mutates later. (A), The gene alone determines cancer onset. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does Viagra impact signal transduction?

<p>It blocks a negative regulator of nitric oxide. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant risk associated with introducing embryonic stem cells into an adult human body?

<p>all of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the result of tyrosine kinase receptor activation?

<p>Phosphotyrosine residues appear in the cytoplasmic domain. (A), Phosphotyrosine residues appear in downstream signaling pathway components. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When are small GTP-binding proteins like Ras and Ran considered active?

<p>When bound to GTP. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which scenario does ligand binding lead to a change in enzyme activity inside the cell?

<p>True in both pathways. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which pathway could the second messenger potentially be cAMP?

<p>True in pathway 1. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can we infer about the nature of the ligand in pathway 1?

<p>It is a dimer. (A), It is a monomer. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Does the receptor in pathway 1 have 7 transmembrane domains?

<p>Yes, pathway 1 notably has 7 domains. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of molecules are known to normally put the brakes on the cell cycle?

<p>Tumor suppressors (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which molecule's binding to its receptor initiates the removal of the Rb block against cell cycle entry?

<p>Mitogen (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a ligand?

<p>A thing that binds to a thing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

cohesins are agents thaat link

<p>sister chromatds to each other (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Phosphorylation by wee1 kinase has what kind of effect on the activity of M-CDK?

<p>Negative (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Is it true that every signaling pathway requires its own unique ligand and receptor?

<p>No, they can share ligands (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the role of the p53 protein?

<p>Tumor suppressor (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the likely outcome for an animal cell that is receiving no signals?

<p>Is likely to die (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main role of licensing factors in DNA replication?

<p>Limits it to once per cycle (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Gbeta and Ggamma are typically found in what state?

<p>Bound to Galpha in the resting state (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of condensins in cellular processes?

<p>Chromatin condensation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of a dimeric ligand?

<p>Specifically activating enzyme coupled receptors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which aspect of kinetochore microtubules changes during anaphase?

<p>Get shorter as anaphase proceeds (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does a receptor tyrosine kinase primarily function?

<p>Phosphorylating itself upon ligand binding (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which substance was the first messenger in Earl Sutherland's work with cAMP?

<p>Epinephrine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is required for a receptor tyrosine kinase to return to its resting state?

<p>Removal of phosphate by phosphatase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

treating a cell with an antibody against a receptor tyrosine kinase can cause it to form dimers leading to receptor

<p>Activation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

M-CDK is most active when its

<p>bound to cyclin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Wee1 kinase

<p>Adds an inhibitory phosphate to M-CDK (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

phosphorylation of nuclear lamins is responsible for disassembly of the nuclear envelope at the start of mitosis. The kinase that is responsible is

<p>M-CDK (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After replication of DNA, sister chromatids are held together by

<p>Cohesins (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Retinoblastoma protein is a

<p>Tumor suppressor (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

DNA damage

<p>Causes a pause in progress through the cell cycle (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Force production to segregate chromosomes at mitosis is provided through

<p>Polar microtubules (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

polar microtubules

<p>get longer as anaphase proceeds (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At which of the following sites would you expect to see a plus-end-directed kinesin family member that contributes to anaphase chromosome movements

<p>Polar microtubule overlapping region (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

p53 is activated in response to DNA damage

<p>By phosphorylation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A chromosome can be plucked out of the spindle of a live cell undergoing mitosis. As a result:

<p>division will be halted by spindle assembly checkpoint (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After replication of DNA, sister chromatids are held together by

<p>Cohesins (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Astral microtubules contribute to

<p>anaphase B chromosome movements (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A cell’s karyotype is best observed and evaluated at

<p>Metaphase of mitosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An action potential begins with

<p>the opening of voltage-dependent Na+ channels (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The chromosome movements of anaphase A of mitosis are based on

<p>Shortening of population 6 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The time it takes to reset an action potential is

<p>in the millisecond range (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Voltage gated calcium ion channels in the presynaptic membrane are responsible for

<p>Release of neurotransmitter from the presynaptic cell (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Neurotransmitter gated ion channels

<p>regenerate an action potential in the post synaptic cell (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Oncogenes arise by mutations in genes

<p>That make growth stimuli uncontrolled (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A cell junction that attaches bundles of actin filaments to sites of cell-cell adhesion

<p>Adherens junction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Yamanaka looked for genes that would bestow “stemness” on cells that would express them. He found a combination of ____ genes.

<p>4 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these has the most potency (ie produces the most different differentiated cell types

<p>totipoten (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Blood cells like erythrocytes are derived from the same stem cell progenitor as neutrophils and macrophages

<p>true (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Ligand definition

A molecule that binds to a receptor, triggering a response in the cell.

Signaling pathway ligand/receptor uniqueness

Different signaling pathways have unique ligands and receptors; one ligand won't activate any receptor. Each pathway is specialized.

Cell without signals

A cell not receiving signals will likely survive, not die.

Gßγ function

Gβ and Gγ are parts of G protein complexes; they become active when detached from Gα.

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Dimeric ligand receptor activation

Dimeric ligands activate enzyme-coupled receptors, not GPCRs or ion channels.

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Receptor Tyrosine Kinase (RTK) self-phosphorylation

RTKs can phosphorylate themselves as part of activation, crucial for downstream signaling.

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First messenger in Sutherland's cAMP discovery

Epinephrine was the first messenger in Earl Sutherland's cAMP discovery.

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RTK antibody treatment effect

Treating a cell with an antibody against an RTK can cause dimerization and activate the receptor.

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Tumor Suppressors

Molecules that prevent uncontrolled cell growth by putting brakes on the cell cycle

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Mitogen

A molecule that triggers the cell cycle by binding to its receptor and releasing the Rb block

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M-CDK

Cyclin-dependent kinase crucial in mitosis, causing nuclear envelope disassembly by phosphorylating lamins.

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Cohesins

Proteins that hold sister chromatids together after DNA replication.

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Wee1 kinase

A kinase that negatively affects M-CDK activity by phosphorylating it.

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Tumor Suppressor protein (P53)

A protein that stops the cell cycle if DNA damage is detected, preventing cell division with damaged DNA.

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Retinoblastoma protein (Rb)

A protein that blocks the cell cycle until mitogen binds to its receptor to allow entry to the cell cycle.

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Licensing Factor

A molecule that ensures DNA replication happens only once per cell cycle.

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Ligand-gated ion channels

Protein channels in cell membranes that open or close in response to a specific molecule (ligand), allowing ions to flow through.

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Voltage-gated potassium channels

Protein channels that open or close in response to changes in membrane potential, allowing potassium ions to flow.

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Synaptic vesicles

Small sacs in nerve cells that store and release neurotransmitters, the chemical messengers of the nervous system.

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Synaptic vesicles release into

The synaptic cleft, the gap between two nerve cells where neurotransmitters are released to communicate.

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Tight junction (ZO)

A cell-cell junction that prevents the passage of molecules between cells.

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Adherens junction

A type of cell-cell junction that connects cells together by linking actin filaments.

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Homophilic interaction

A type of cell-cell interaction where identical molecules on neighboring cells bind to one another.

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Gap junctions function

Allow small molecules to pass freely between two connected cells directly.

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Retinoblastoma Gene Defect

A mutation in the Retinoblastoma gene, causing an increased risk of developing retinoblastoma but not necessarily guaranteeing cancer.

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Viagra's Mechanism

Viagra enhances signal transduction by inhibiting the breakdown of nitric oxide, leading to increased blood flow and relaxation of smooth muscle in the penis.

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Tyrosine Kinase Receptor Activation

Phosphorylation of tyrosine residues occurs in the cytoplasmic domain of the receptor tyrosine kinase, which is activated by ligand binding.

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Small GTP Binding Proteins

Small GTP-binding proteins, like Ras and Ran, are active when bound to GTP (Guanosine Triphosphate).

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Ligand-Induced Enzyme Activation

In some signaling pathways, binding of a ligand outside the cell triggers a change in enzyme activity inside the cell.

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Second Messenger: cAMP

Cyclic AMP (cAMP) can act as a second messenger in some signaling pathways, relaying the initial signal from the ligand.

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Dimeric Ligands and Receptors

Some signaling pathways involve dimeric ligands, which bind to receptors that also form dimers.

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7 Transmembrane Domains

Some receptors, known as G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs), have seven transmembrane domains, spanning the cell membrane.

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What are oncogenes?

Oncogenes are mutated forms of genes that promote cell growth and division in normal cells. These mutations can lead to uncontrolled cell growth, a hallmark of cancer.

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What are the key features of tumor suppressor genes?

Tumor suppressor genes normally prevent uncontrolled cell growth by regulating cell cycle progression and apoptosis (programmed cell death). Mutations in these genes can lead to cancer development.

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What is the difference between pluripotent and totipotent stem cells?

Pluripotent stem cells can differentiate into any cell type in the body EXCEPT for the placenta and other extraembryonic tissues. Totipotent stem cells can differentiate into any cell type, including those of the placenta.

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How are iPS cells generated?

Induced pluripotent stem (iPS) cells are generated from adult cells by artificially driving the expression of a set of specific genes. This process essentially reprograms the adult cells to become pluripotent, much like embryonic stem cells.

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What is the main risk associated with using embryonic stem cells in treatments?

One of the main risks of introducing embryonic stem cells into the human body is that they might develop into a tumor. This is due to their potential for uncontrolled growth and differentiation.

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What are transgenic flies?

Transgenic flies are genetically modified flies that carry and express genes from other organisms, such as humans. These flies are often used as models to study the function of genes and the development of diseases.

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Why are transgenic flies useful in cancer research?

Transgenic flies can be used to model cancer by expressing human genes, including those associated with cancer. This allows researchers to study the effects of these genes on fly development and identify potential cancer-causing mechanisms.

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What does the term ‘gain of function’ mutation refer to?

A gain of function mutation refers to a change in a gene that results in a new or enhanced function for the gene product. In the context of cancer, this can lead to uncontrolled cell growth.

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GTPase activity and signaling

GTPase activity terminates the activated state of a signaling pathway by hydrolyzing GTP to GDP, returning the signaling molecule to its inactive form.

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Phosphorylation in receptor tyrosine kinases

When a receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) is activated, its cytoplasmic domain gets phosphorylated on tyrosine residues, initiating downstream signaling.

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Sound transduction: Mechanically gated channels

Sound vibrations in the inner ear are sensed by mechanically gated ion channels in the outer hair cells, initiating auditory signal transduction.

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Viagra: Signaling effect

Viagra delays the termination of signaling by inhibiting the breakdown of cGMP, a signaling molecule involved in erectile function.

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Viagra: Pathway target

Viagra's effect involves nitric oxide signaling (NO), which triggers the production of cGMP.

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Ras: Intermediate in signaling

Ras is a small GTP-binding protein that acts as an intermediate in various signaling pathways including tyrosine kinase, Akt, and MAPK signaling.

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Turning off signaling pathways

Signaling pathways terminate by removing phosphate groups, hydrolyzing GTP, or degrading signaling molecules, returning the system to its resting state.

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Protein kinase A activity

Protein kinase A (PKA) is an effector protein activated by the GPCR signaling pathway through adenylyl cyclase, mediating a variety of cellular responses.

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Study Notes

Exam 4 Study Guide - BIOS222

  • Ligand: A molecule that binds to a receptor, initiating a signaling pathway.
  • Signaling Pathway Characteristics: Every signaling pathway requires a unique ligand and receptor.
  • Animal Cell Response to No Signals: A cell receiving no signals is likely to die, unless it's a stem cell.
  • G-protein subunits (Gβγ): Active when bound to GTP. They are bound to Gα in the resting state.
  • Dimeric Ligands: Important for activating enzyme-coupled receptors, specifically affecting GPCRs.
  • Receptor Tyrosine Kinase (RTK): Can phosphorylate itself.
  • 2nd Messenger Discovery: Earl Sutherland discovered cAMP as a 2nd messenger.
  • Receptor Tyrosine Kinase Inhibition: Antibodies against receptor tyrosine kinases can lead to receptor dimer formation, activation, and downstream effects.
  • Inactivation (RTK): The return to the resting state is dependent on preventing further kinase activity, preventing further ligand binding, and removal of phosphates by phosphatases.
  • M-CDK Activity: Most active when its not phosphorylated at inhibitory sites, yet it's also bound to cyclin within the S phase of the cell cycle.
  • Wee1 Kinase: Adds an inhibitory phosphate to M-CDK.
  • Cell Cycle Brakes: Tumor suppressors put brakes on the cell cycle.
  • Cell Cycle Trigger: Mitogens initiate cell cycle events.
  • Nuclear Lamins Disassembly: Phosphorylation of nuclear lamins leads to nuclear envelope disassembly, a key aspect of mitosis initiation.
  • Sister Chromatid Connection: Cohesins hold sister chromatids together after DNA replication.
  • Phosphorylation Effect on M-CDK: Phosphorylation by Wee1 kinase has a negative effect on M-CDK activity.
  • P53 Protein: A tumor suppressor.
  • Retinoblastoma Protein (Rb): A tumor suppressor protein.
  • Licensing Factor Effect: A licensing factor limits DNA replication to one cycle per cell cycle.
  • Cohesins: Link sister chromatids to each other.
  • Condensing Agents (Condins): Responsible for chromatin condensation, which is crucial in apoptosis and cell division.
  • DNA Damage Response: DNA damage leads to cell cycle arrest and can induce apoptosis. P53's activation is a crucial part of the response.
  • Mitosis Force Production: Astral, kinetochore, and polar microtubules all contribute to chromosome segregation during mitosis.
  • Kinetochore Microtubules: Shorten during anaphase.
  • Polar Microtubules: Lengthen during anaphase.
  • Action Potential Reset: The resetting of an action potential occurs in the millisecond timescales.
  • Presynaptic Calcium and Neurotransmission: Voltage-gated calcium channels in the presynaptic membrane are crucial for neurotransmitter release.
  • Neurotransmitter Ions: Neurotransmitter gated ion channels are required to trigger action potentials.
  • Induced Pluripotent Stem (iPS) Cells: Stem cells that can be generated from adult cells and can develop into many different adult cell types without using embryonic stem cells.
  • Tyrosine Kinase Receptor Activation: Occurs via phosphotyrosine residues and the signaling pathway's downstream cytoplasmic components
  • Small GTP-Binding Proteins (GTPases): Active when bound to GTP. Inactive when bound to GDP.
  • Ligand Binding and Enzyme Activity: Ligand binding outside a cell can influence enzyme activity inside.
  • Second Messengers: Small molecules like cAMP, can act as second messengers within pathways.
  • Receptor Complexity: Certain receptors feature multiple transmembrane domains, important components of their signaling.
  • GTPase Activity: Inactivates the pathway's activity.
  • Cell-Cell Contact Proteins: Tight Junction (ZO), Adheren Junction (ZA), Desmosome influence cell-cell structure and communication.
  • Signal Transduction: The process by which a cell receives and interprets a signal.
  • Sounds and Inner Ear Hair Cells: Outer hair cells transduce sound via mechanically gated ion channels.
  • Viagra's Effect: Alters nitric oxide signaling pathways.

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