Podcast
Questions and Answers
Which mycobacterium species is primarily associated with infections through unpasteurized milk?
Which mycobacterium species is primarily associated with infections through unpasteurized milk?
- M.canettii
- M.tuberculosis
- M.africanum
- M.bovis (correct)
What environment is M.marinum primarily associated with?
What environment is M.marinum primarily associated with?
- Dairy farms
- Tropical rainforests
- Soil contaminated with animal urine
- Aquatic environments (correct)
Which of the following characteristics is true for Scotochromogens?
Which of the following characteristics is true for Scotochromogens?
- Has no visible pigment in any conditions
- Produces pigment in both light and dark conditions (correct)
- Only grows in the presence of light
- Produces pigment only in the dark
Which statement is correct about Chlamydia trachomatis?
Which statement is correct about Chlamydia trachomatis?
What disease is caused by Rickettsiaceae prowazekii?
What disease is caused by Rickettsiaceae prowazekii?
Which organism is a rapid grower that can cause postoperative skin infections?
Which organism is a rapid grower that can cause postoperative skin infections?
Which of the following species cannot be cultured in vitro?
Which of the following species cannot be cultured in vitro?
What vector is primarily responsible for transmitting Ehrlichia chaffeensis?
What vector is primarily responsible for transmitting Ehrlichia chaffeensis?
Which Mycoplasma species is known to cause pelvic inflammatory disease?
Which Mycoplasma species is known to cause pelvic inflammatory disease?
Which disease is associated with the organism Borrelia burgdorferi?
Which disease is associated with the organism Borrelia burgdorferi?
Which antibiotic is known for its resistance to beta-lactamase and is effective against Gram-positive bacteria?
Which antibiotic is known for its resistance to beta-lactamase and is effective against Gram-positive bacteria?
What is the primary mechanism of action for aminoglycosides?
What is the primary mechanism of action for aminoglycosides?
Which of the following is a narrow therapeutic index antibiotic that requires close monitoring to prevent toxicity?
Which of the following is a narrow therapeutic index antibiotic that requires close monitoring to prevent toxicity?
Which generation of cephalosporins is indicated for treating central nervous system infections?
Which generation of cephalosporins is indicated for treating central nervous system infections?
Which agent is specifically indicated for the treatment of infections caused by Mycobacterium species?
Which agent is specifically indicated for the treatment of infections caused by Mycobacterium species?
Which ribosomal binding target is associated with macrolides, specifically erythromycin?
Which ribosomal binding target is associated with macrolides, specifically erythromycin?
Which of the following beta-lactam antibiotics has the broadest spectrum of activity?
Which of the following beta-lactam antibiotics has the broadest spectrum of activity?
Which drug is characterized by its ability to cause 'grey baby syndrome' and is reserved for serious infections?
Which drug is characterized by its ability to cause 'grey baby syndrome' and is reserved for serious infections?
What type of antibiotic is Metronidazole, and what side effect is commonly reported?
What type of antibiotic is Metronidazole, and what side effect is commonly reported?
Which organism is most commonly isolated as an anaerobe associated with intra-abdominal infections?
Which organism is most commonly isolated as an anaerobe associated with intra-abdominal infections?
Which mycobacterium species is primarily associated with infections in patients with AIDS?
Which mycobacterium species is primarily associated with infections in patients with AIDS?
What is the characteristic feature of the elementary body in Chlamydiaceae?
What is the characteristic feature of the elementary body in Chlamydiaceae?
Which organism is known for causing inflammation of the lymph nodes?
Which organism is known for causing inflammation of the lymph nodes?
Which of the following antibiotics is primarily effective against Gram-positive bacteria and has a mode of action that involves inhibiting cell wall synthesis?
Which of the following antibiotics is primarily effective against Gram-positive bacteria and has a mode of action that involves inhibiting cell wall synthesis?
Which feature distinguishes the Rickettsiaceae family from other bacterial families?
Which feature distinguishes the Rickettsiaceae family from other bacterial families?
Which generation of cephalosporins is indicated for coverage against third-generation resistant bacteria?
Which generation of cephalosporins is indicated for coverage against third-generation resistant bacteria?
What defines the characteristic of scotochromogens?
What defines the characteristic of scotochromogens?
What is the primary mechanism of action for the aminoglycoside class of antibiotics?
What is the primary mechanism of action for the aminoglycoside class of antibiotics?
Which of the following conditions can caused by excessive use of the antibiotic Chloramphenicol?
Which of the following conditions can caused by excessive use of the antibiotic Chloramphenicol?
Which spirochete is known for causing severe health complications if left untreated?
Which spirochete is known for causing severe health complications if left untreated?
Which of the following antibiotics belongs to the category of folic acid inhibitors and is commonly used to treat chronic UTIs?
Which of the following antibiotics belongs to the category of folic acid inhibitors and is commonly used to treat chronic UTIs?
What common trait do non-photochromogens share?
What common trait do non-photochromogens share?
Which antimicrobial agent primarily targets the synthesis of mycolic acid and is known to potentially cause hepatitis?
Which antimicrobial agent primarily targets the synthesis of mycolic acid and is known to potentially cause hepatitis?
Which organism is specifically linked to cardiovascular infections due to heater-cooler contamination?
Which organism is specifically linked to cardiovascular infections due to heater-cooler contamination?
Which of the following is characteristic of Coxiella burnetii?
Which of the following is characteristic of Coxiella burnetii?
Which antibiotic disrupts the outer membrane and is effective against Gram-negative bacteria?
Which antibiotic disrupts the outer membrane and is effective against Gram-negative bacteria?
What is a defining characteristic of Mycoplasma species?
What is a defining characteristic of Mycoplasma species?
What is the term for a test that assesses the presence of the mecA gene in MRSA strains?
What is the term for a test that assesses the presence of the mecA gene in MRSA strains?
Which of the following spore-forming Gram-positive bacilli is associated with gas gangrene?
Which of the following spore-forming Gram-positive bacilli is associated with gas gangrene?
Which organism is known for causing antibiotic-related diarrhea and is characterized by a distinctive odor?
Which organism is known for causing antibiotic-related diarrhea and is characterized by a distinctive odor?
Which antibiotic class primarily inhibits cell wall synthesis by interfering with peptidoglycan?
Which antibiotic class primarily inhibits cell wall synthesis by interfering with peptidoglycan?
What is the primary use of Vancomycin in antimicrobial therapy?
What is the primary use of Vancomycin in antimicrobial therapy?
Which generation of cephalosporins is specifically used for central nervous system infections?
Which generation of cephalosporins is specifically used for central nervous system infections?
Which agent is known to be effective against Mycobacterium infections?
Which agent is known to be effective against Mycobacterium infections?
What does the presence of the mecA gene indicate in a bacterial strain?
What does the presence of the mecA gene indicate in a bacterial strain?
Which of the following antibiotics is specifically designed for chronic UTI treatment?
Which of the following antibiotics is specifically designed for chronic UTI treatment?
Which organism is most commonly isolated as an anaerobe from intra-abdominal infections?
Which organism is most commonly isolated as an anaerobe from intra-abdominal infections?
What characteristic distinguishes Clostridium botulinum among spore-forming bacteria?
What characteristic distinguishes Clostridium botulinum among spore-forming bacteria?
Which of the following is a common side effect of Tetracyclines?
Which of the following is a common side effect of Tetracyclines?
Which spore-forming Gram-positive bacillus is linked to antibiotic-related diarrhea?
Which spore-forming Gram-positive bacillus is linked to antibiotic-related diarrhea?
Which mycobacterium species is primarily associated with chronic pulmonary infections and is identified by its yellow bacillus?
Which mycobacterium species is primarily associated with chronic pulmonary infections and is identified by its yellow bacillus?
What feature distinguishes Non-Photochromogens from other mycobacterial species?
What feature distinguishes Non-Photochromogens from other mycobacterial species?
Which of the following species is known to cause inflammation of lymph nodes and is associated with scotochromogen characteristics?
Which of the following species is known to cause inflammation of lymph nodes and is associated with scotochromogen characteristics?
What is the primary characteristic of the reticulate body in the Chlamydiaceae family?
What is the primary characteristic of the reticulate body in the Chlamydiaceae family?
Which spirochete is transmitted through deer tick bites and can lead to nervous system complications?
Which spirochete is transmitted through deer tick bites and can lead to nervous system complications?
Which organism is responsible for causing Q fever and requires Biosafety Level 3 for handling?
Which organism is responsible for causing Q fever and requires Biosafety Level 3 for handling?
Which of the following diseases is primarily caused by Rickettsiaceae rickettsii?
Which of the following diseases is primarily caused by Rickettsiaceae rickettsii?
What defines the unique feature of Mycoplasma pneumoniae when compared to other bacterial species?
What defines the unique feature of Mycoplasma pneumoniae when compared to other bacterial species?
Which of the following features is true for Ichthyophthirius multifiliis?
Which of the following features is true for Ichthyophthirius multifiliis?
What type of infection is primarily associated with Anaplasma phagocytophilum?
What type of infection is primarily associated with Anaplasma phagocytophilum?
Flashcards
Beta-Lactam Antibiotics
Beta-Lactam Antibiotics
A class of antibiotics that inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by interfering with peptidoglycan.
Penicillin G and V
Penicillin G and V
Beta-lactam antibiotics effective against Gram-positive bacteria, often used to treat streptococcal infections.
Methicillin/Oxacillin
Methicillin/Oxacillin
Beta-lactam antibiotics that are resistant to bacterial enzymes called beta-lactamases, used against Gram-positive bacteria.
Ampicillin/Carbenicillin
Ampicillin/Carbenicillin
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Carbapenems
Carbapenems
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Vancomycin
Vancomycin
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Cephalosporins
Cephalosporins
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Aminoglycosides
Aminoglycosides
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MRSA
MRSA
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Anaerobes
Anaerobes
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Gram-Negative Bacilli
Gram-Negative Bacilli
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Bacteroides Fragilis
Bacteroides Fragilis
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Biosafety Level 3
Biosafety Level 3
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Lowenstein-Jensen Media
Lowenstein-Jensen Media
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Middlebrook Agar
Middlebrook Agar
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Ziehl-Neelsen Stain
Ziehl-Neelsen Stain
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Kinyoun Stain
Kinyoun Stain
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Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
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Mycobacterium bovis
Mycobacterium bovis
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Photochromogens
Photochromogens
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Scotochromogens
Scotochromogens
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Non-Photochromogens
Non-Photochromogens
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Rapid Growers
Rapid Growers
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Chlamydiaceae Family
Chlamydiaceae Family
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Elementary Body
Elementary Body
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Reticulate Body
Reticulate Body
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Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
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Obligate Intracellular Parasite
Obligate Intracellular Parasite
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Biosafety Level 3
Biosafety Level 3
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Beta-Lactam Antibiotics
Beta-Lactam Antibiotics
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Lowenstein-Jensen Media
Lowenstein-Jensen Media
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Penicillin G/V
Penicillin G/V
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Methicillin/Oxacillin
Methicillin/Oxacillin
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Middlebrook Agar
Middlebrook Agar
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Ampicillin/Carbenicillin
Ampicillin/Carbenicillin
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Ziehl-Neelsen Stain
Ziehl-Neelsen Stain
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Carbapenems
Carbapenems
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Kinyoun Stain
Kinyoun Stain
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Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
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Vancomycin
Vancomycin
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1st Gen Cephalosporins
1st Gen Cephalosporins
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Mycobacterium bovis
Mycobacterium bovis
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Photochromogens
Photochromogens
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2nd Gen Cephalosporins
2nd Gen Cephalosporins
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3rd Gen Cephalosporins
3rd Gen Cephalosporins
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Scotochromogens
Scotochromogens
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4th Gen Cephalosporins
4th Gen Cephalosporins
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Non-Photochromogens
Non-Photochromogens
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Rapid Growers
Rapid Growers
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5th Gen Cephalosporins
5th Gen Cephalosporins
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Chlamydiaceae Family
Chlamydiaceae Family
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Bacitracin
Bacitracin
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Elementary Body
Elementary Body
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Aminoglycosides
Aminoglycosides
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MRSA
MRSA
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Reticulate Body
Reticulate Body
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Obligate Intracellular Parasite
Obligate Intracellular Parasite
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Anaerobes
Anaerobes
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Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
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Gram-Negative Bacilli
Gram-Negative Bacilli
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Bacteroides Fragilis
Bacteroides Fragilis
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Rickettsiaceae Family
Rickettsiaceae Family
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Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium perfringens
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Mycobacterium
Mycobacterium
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Amphotericin B
Amphotericin B
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Biosafety Level 3
Biosafety Level 3
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Lowenstein-Jensen Media
Lowenstein-Jensen Media
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Middlebrook Agar
Middlebrook Agar
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Ziehl-Neelsen Stain
Ziehl-Neelsen Stain
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Kinyoun Stain
Kinyoun Stain
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Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
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Mycobacterium bovis
Mycobacterium bovis
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Photochromogens
Photochromogens
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Scotochromogens
Scotochromogens
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Non-Photochromogens
Non-Photochromogens
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Rapid Growers
Rapid Growers
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Chlamydiaceae Family
Chlamydiaceae Family
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Elementary Body
Elementary Body
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Reticulate Body
Reticulate Body
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Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
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Obligate Intracellular Parasite
Obligate Intracellular Parasite
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Chlamydia trachomatis
Chlamydia trachomatis
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Trachoma
Trachoma
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Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)
Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)
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Beta-Lactam Antibiotics
Beta-Lactam Antibiotics
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Penicillin G and V
Penicillin G and V
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Methicillin/Oxacillin
Methicillin/Oxacillin
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Ampicillin/Carbenicillin
Ampicillin/Carbenicillin
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Carbapenems
Carbapenems
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Vancomycin
Vancomycin
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Cephalosporins
Cephalosporins
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1st Gen Cephalosporins
1st Gen Cephalosporins
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2nd Gen Cephalosporins
2nd Gen Cephalosporins
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3rd Gen Cephalosporins
3rd Gen Cephalosporins
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4th Gen Cephalosporins
4th Gen Cephalosporins
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5th Gen Cephalosporins
5th Gen Cephalosporins
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Aminoglycosides
Aminoglycosides
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MRSA
MRSA
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Anaerobes
Anaerobes
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Gram-Negative Bacilli
Gram-Negative Bacilli
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Bacteroides Fragilis
Bacteroides Fragilis
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Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium perfringens
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Mycobacterium
Mycobacterium
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Amphotericin B
Amphotericin B
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Study Notes
Beta-Lactam Antibiotics
- Inhibit cell wall synthesis by inhibiting peptidoglycan.
- Penicillin G and V: Effective against Gram-positive bacteria, treating streptococcal infections.
- Methicillin/Oxacillin: Gram-positive, resistant to beta-lactamases.
- Ampicillin/Carbenicillin: Broad-spectrum antibiotics.
- Carbapenems: Broadest spectrum, used for severe infections.
- Vancomycin: Glycopeptide, interferes with cross-linking; narrow therapeutic index.
- Cephalosporins (generations):
- 1st: Cephalexin/Cephalothin, Gram-positive spectrum.
- 2nd: Cefuroxime, extended spectrum for Gram-negative.
- 3rd: Ceftriaxone/Cefotaxime, CNS infections.
- 4th: Cefepime, covers third-generation resistant bacteria.
- 5th: Ceftaroline, covers MRSA.
Cell Membrane Disruptors
- Bacitracin: Gram-positive, inhibits peptidoglycan addition.
- Polymyxins: Gram-negative, disrupts outer membrane.
Protein Synthesis Inhibitors
- Aminoglycosides: Broad-spectrum, bind 30S; narrow therapeutic index.
- Tobramycin/Gentamicin: Require careful monitoring to prevent toxicity.
- Tetracyclines: Broad-spectrum, 30S binding; dental deposits.
- Macrolides: Bind 50S, alternative for penicillin-allergic patients.
- Erythromycin: Treats streptococcal infections.
- Chloramphenicol: 50S binding, reserved for severe infections; risk of "grey baby syndrome".
Folic Acid Inhibitors
- Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole: Treats chronic UTIs, inhibits folic acid synthesis.
DNA Synthesis Inhibitors
- Nalidixic Acid: Treats UTIs, inhibits DNA synthesis.
- Fluoroquinolones: Inhibits DNA gyrase, stopping replication.
- Nitrofurantoin: UTI treatment, targets multiple cellular processes.
- Rifampin: Inhibits DNA polymerase; used for Mycobacterium.
- Metronidazole: Causes DNA breaks under anaerobic conditions; metallic taste side effect.
Antimycobacterial Agents
- Isoniazid: Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis, potential hepatitis.
- Ethambutol: Inhibits cell wall formation, possible optic neuritis.
- Pyrazinamide: Lowers pH, GI upset.
Antifungal Agents
- Amphotericin B: Drug of choice for severe fungal infections; nephrotoxicity.
- Azoles: Inhibit sterol synthesis.
- 5-Fluorocytosine: Effective against Cryptococcus, bone marrow depression.
- Caspofungin: Effective against Candida and Aspergillus; ineffective against Cryptococcus.
Antiviral Agents
- Acyclovir: Effective against Herpes.
- Ribavirin: Effective against Respiratory Syncytial.
- M2 Inhibitor: Inhibits Influenza A.
- Neuraminidase Inhibitors: Inhibit Influenza A and B.
Antimicrobial Resistance Testing
- MRSA: mecA gene produces altered PBP2a.
- VRSA: Tested with Etest.
- ESBL: Tested with and without clavulanic acid.
- Clindamycin: erm gene.
- Carbapenemase: Modified Hodge Test.
- Glycopeptides: van A PCR.
- Oxacillin: Cefoxitin Disk test.
- Penicillin: Beta-lactamase.
Anaerobes and Growth Requirements
- Anaerobes lack oxidative enzymes (superoxide dismutase/catalase).
- Intra-abdominal abscesses are common endogenous infections.
- Anaerobic Media:
- Requires vitamin K and hemin.
- Thioglycollate Broth: Medium for anaerobes.
- Phenylethyl Alcohol: Selective for Gram-positive and Gram-negative anaerobes.
- Kanamycin-Vancomycin: Selective for Gram-negative anaerobes.
- Bile-Esculin: Selective for Bacteroides fragilis.
- Egg Yolk: Identifies anaerobes breaking down fats.
Selective Antibiotic Disks (Species Resistance)
- Data provided in a table format.
Gram-Negative Bacilli
- Bacteroides fragilis: Commonly isolated anaerobe, GI tract, abdominal infections.
- Fusobacterium nucleatum: Pointed, spindle-shaped; biofilm infections.
- Fusobacterium necrophorum: Pleomorphic; Lemierre's syndrome, Vincent's angina.
Pigmented Gram-Negative Bacilli
- Prevotella melaninogenica: Respiratory and periodontal infections.
- Prevotella intermedia: Gingivitis and oropharyngeal infections.
- Porphyromonas asaccharolyticus: Genital infections.
- Porphyromonas gingivalis: Gingivitis and chronic periodontitis.
Spore-Forming Gram-Positive Bacilli
- Clostridium perfringens: Double zone beta-hemolysis; gas gangrene, food poisoning.
- Clostridium tetani: Drumstick-shaped spores; tetanus (muscle spasms).
- Clostridium botulinum: Botulism (nervous system).
- Clostridiodes difficile: "Horse manure" odor; antibiotic-related diarrhea, pseudomembranous colitis.
- Clostridium septicum: Gas gangrene in malignancies.
Non-Spore-Forming Gram-Positive Bacilli
- Actinomyces israelii: Branching rods, actinomycosis (sulfur granules).
- Cutibacterium (Propionibacterium acnes): Acne, medical device infections.
- Lactobacillus: Rarely pathogenic, endocarditis.
- Bifidobacterium: "Dog bone" shaped; probiotic.
Gram-Positive Cocci
- Finegoldia magna: Highly virulent; skin, bone, and joint infections.
- Peptostreptococcus anaerobius: Abdominal, pelvic, brain abscesses.
- Peptoniphilus asaccharolyticus: Yellow colonies, musty odor; soft tissue infections.
- Microaerophilic Streptococcus: Butterscotch odor, beta-hemolytic; endocarditis, dental, respiratory infections.
Gram-Negative Cocci
- Veillonella: Very sensitive to oxygen, glove box.
Mycobacterium Overview
- Acid-Fast Bacilli: Unique cell wall, obligate aerobes; biosafety level 3.
- Media and Stains:
- Lowenstein-Jensen: Egg-based, malachite green, slow-growing.
- Middlebrook Agar: Faster colony detection.
- Ziehl-Neelsen Stain: Heating required.
- Kinyoun Stain: High phenol, no heating.
Mycobacterium Tuberculosis Complex Species
- M. tuberculosis: Tuberculosis in humans, respiratory droplets.
- M. bovis: Primarily cattle; unpasteurized milk.
- M. africanum: West Africa.
- M. canettii: East Africa.
- M. caprae/microti: Primarily animals.
Photochromogens
- Develop pigment with light.
- M. kansasii: Chronic pulmonary infection, yellow bacillus.
- M. marinum: Skin infections from aquatic environments.
- M. simiae: Rare respiratory infection.
- M. asiaticum: Rare pulmonary infection.
Scotochromogens
- Produce pigment in both light and dark conditions.
- M. scrofulaceum: Lymphadenitis.
- M. szulgai: Pulmonary infection; pigment dependent on temperature.
- M. gordonae: "Tap water bacillus".
Non-Photochromogens
- Non-pigmented in both light and dark conditions.
- M. avium: AIDS patients, resistant to TB drugs.
- M. ulcerans: Buruli ulcers.
- M. malmoense: Chronic pulmonary infections.
- M. haemophilium: Skin and subcutaneous infections, hemin.
- M. gastri: Nonpathogenic, gastric washings.
Rapid Growers
- Non-pigmented, grows within seven days.
- M. fortuitum: Postoperative skin infections, contaminated water.
- M. chelonae: Wound infections, especially post-cosmetic procedures, lacks iron uptake.
- M. abscessus: Opportunistic, underlying lung disease.
Other Species
- M. leprae: Leprosy (Hansen's disease), cannot be cultured in vitro.
- M. chimaera: Part of M. avium complex, cardiovascular infections.
Chlamydiaceae Family
- Obligate intracellular parasites, Gram-negative-like cell wall.
- Use host ATP, binary fission.
- Elementary Body: Infectious form.
- Reticulate Body: Metabolically active, non-infectious.
- Chlamydia trachomatis: Infects epithelial cells, trachoma (blindness), Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)
- Chlamydia pneumoniae
Rickettsiaceae Family
- Obligate intracellular parasites, vector-borne.
- Incubation 3-14 days, multiplies in endothelial cells.
- Rickettsia rickettsii: Rocky Mountain spotted fever, tick vector.
- Rickettsia prowazekii: Epidemic typhus, human body lice.
- Rickettsia typhi: Endemic typhus, flea vector.
Anaplasmataceae Family
- Diagnosis by observing morulae in leukocytes.
- Ehrlichia chaffeensis: Human monocytic ehrlichiosis, lone star tick.
- Anaplasma phagocytophilum: Human granulocytic anaplasmosis.
Coxiella
- Immunofluorescence, biosafety level 3.
- Coxiella burnetii: Q fever, aerosols, ticks, survives outside hosts.
Mycoplasmataceae Family
- Small, lack a cell wall.
- Mycoplasma pneumoniae: Tracheobronchitis ("walking pneumonia").
- Mycoplasma hominis: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), postpartum fever.
- Mycoplasma genitalium/urealyticum: Nongonococcal urethritis (NGU).
Spirochetes
- Helically coiled, motile, Gram-negative-like periplasmic flagella.
- Borrelia burgdorferi: Lyme disease, deer tick.
- Stages: Erythema migrans (bull's-eye rash), disseminated (CNS, heart), chronic (arthritis).
- Other Borrelia Species: Relapsing fever.
- Treponema pallidum: Syphilis.
- Stages: Primary (chancre), secondary (rash), tertiary (gummas).
- Subspecies: pertenue (yaws), bejel, carateum.
- Leptospira interrogans: Leptospirosis (animal urine, soil/water), Weil's disease.
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