Podcast
Questions and Answers
Which of the following conditions would most likely lead to an elevated hematocrit level due to dehydration?
Which of the following conditions would most likely lead to an elevated hematocrit level due to dehydration?
- A balanced diet with adequate electrolyte and fluid replacement.
- Administration of intravenous fluids at a controlled rate.
- Increased water intake combined with decreased sweating.
- Severe vomiting and diarrhea causing significant fluid loss. (correct)
In the context of postpartum care, what is the primary rationale behind the 'Unang Yakap' (First Embrace) initiative?
In the context of postpartum care, what is the primary rationale behind the 'Unang Yakap' (First Embrace) initiative?
- To prevent the transmission of infections by keeping the newborn in a sterile environment.
- To allow medical staff to conduct thorough assessments of the newborn in isolation.
- To promote immediate skin-to-skin contact between mother and newborn to facilitate bonding and breastfeeding. (correct)
- To expedite the mother's recovery by minimizing contact with the newborn.
A urinalysis result shows a high level of protein (albumin) in a pregnant woman's urine. Which condition does this result most strongly suggest?
A urinalysis result shows a high level of protein (albumin) in a pregnant woman's urine. Which condition does this result most strongly suggest?
- Pregnancy-Induced Hypertension (PIH). (correct)
- Urinary tract infection (UTI).
- Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM).
- Normal physiological change during pregnancy.
During a prenatal visit, a patient's Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) results are being evaluated. What is the primary purpose of conducting an OGTT during pregnancy?
During a prenatal visit, a patient's Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) results are being evaluated. What is the primary purpose of conducting an OGTT during pregnancy?
What is the key purpose of performing a Pap smear?
What is the key purpose of performing a Pap smear?
A pregnant woman's urinalysis reveals the presence of pus cells and bacteria. Which condition does this most likely indicate, and what is a potential complication if left untreated?
A pregnant woman's urinalysis reveals the presence of pus cells and bacteria. Which condition does this most likely indicate, and what is a potential complication if left untreated?
In blood glucose testing during prenatal care, what is the significance of performing an Oral Glucose Challenge Test (OGCT), and what does it primarily screen for?
In blood glucose testing during prenatal care, what is the significance of performing an Oral Glucose Challenge Test (OGCT), and what does it primarily screen for?
Compared to a standard abdominal ultrasound, what unique diagnostic advantage does a transvaginal ultrasound offer in early pregnancy?
Compared to a standard abdominal ultrasound, what unique diagnostic advantage does a transvaginal ultrasound offer in early pregnancy?
Considering the complexities of HIV transmission, which scenario presents the highest risk of transmitting HIV, assuming all individuals are unaware of their HIV status?
Considering the complexities of HIV transmission, which scenario presents the highest risk of transmitting HIV, assuming all individuals are unaware of their HIV status?
Given the limitations of diagnostic testing, what is the rationale for using a Western Blot test after two positive ELISA tests for HIV?
Given the limitations of diagnostic testing, what is the rationale for using a Western Blot test after two positive ELISA tests for HIV?
How does the size difference between the HIV virus and the pores in latex condoms impact the effectiveness of condoms in preventing HIV transmission?
How does the size difference between the HIV virus and the pores in latex condoms impact the effectiveness of condoms in preventing HIV transmission?
What critical factor necessitates ongoing encouragement for HIV-positive mothers to breastfeed their infants in resource-limited settings, despite the risk of HIV transmission through breast milk?
What critical factor necessitates ongoing encouragement for HIV-positive mothers to breastfeed their infants in resource-limited settings, despite the risk of HIV transmission through breast milk?
In what way do other sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) influence the risk of HIV transmission?
In what way do other sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) influence the risk of HIV transmission?
Which of the following practices is considered a negligible risk for HIV transmission in everyday scenarios?
Which of the following practices is considered a negligible risk for HIV transmission in everyday scenarios?
Which of these biological fluids does not transmit HIV?
Which of these biological fluids does not transmit HIV?
Which statement accurately describes the role of condoms in preventing HIV transmission, considering both their physical properties and real-world usage?
Which statement accurately describes the role of condoms in preventing HIV transmission, considering both their physical properties and real-world usage?
A pregnant patient at 27 weeks gestation has a fundal height of 22 cm. Based on this finding, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step?
A pregnant patient at 27 weeks gestation has a fundal height of 22 cm. Based on this finding, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step?
During Leopold's maneuvers, the second maneuver (umbilical grip) is used to determine which of the following?
During Leopold's maneuvers, the second maneuver (umbilical grip) is used to determine which of the following?
A pregnant woman's complete blood count (CBC) reveals a hemoglobin level of 115 g/L. Which of the following conditions is MOST likely influencing this result?
A pregnant woman's complete blood count (CBC) reveals a hemoglobin level of 115 g/L. Which of the following conditions is MOST likely influencing this result?
A client's CBC results indicate a low hematocrit level. Which of the following conditions could be a potential cause for this finding?
A client's CBC results indicate a low hematocrit level. Which of the following conditions could be a potential cause for this finding?
During a prenatal visit at 30 weeks gestation, a client reports experiencing decreased fetal movement over the past 24 hours. What is the MOST appropriate initial action?
During a prenatal visit at 30 weeks gestation, a client reports experiencing decreased fetal movement over the past 24 hours. What is the MOST appropriate initial action?
A pregnant patient who is Rh-negative asks about the importance of Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM). Which statement accurately describes the PRIMARY mechanism of action of RhoGAM?
A pregnant patient who is Rh-negative asks about the importance of Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM). Which statement accurately describes the PRIMARY mechanism of action of RhoGAM?
A pregnant patient is diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. Which hematological change is MOST characteristic of this condition?
A pregnant patient is diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. Which hematological change is MOST characteristic of this condition?
A pregnant patient has a blood type of A-negative. Her partner is AB-positive. What is the probability that their child will be Rh-negative?
A pregnant patient has a blood type of A-negative. Her partner is AB-positive. What is the probability that their child will be Rh-negative?
A 35-year-old woman is admitted with a suspected ectopic pregnancy. Considering the various risk factors, which of the following would least likely contribute to her condition?
A 35-year-old woman is admitted with a suspected ectopic pregnancy. Considering the various risk factors, which of the following would least likely contribute to her condition?
A patient diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy is experiencing referred shoulder pain. What physiological mechanism best explains this symptom?
A patient diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy is experiencing referred shoulder pain. What physiological mechanism best explains this symptom?
Which assessment finding would be the least expected in a patient presenting with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy?
Which assessment finding would be the least expected in a patient presenting with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy?
A patient presents with symptoms suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy. While awaiting diagnostic confirmation, which nursing intervention is the highest priority?
A patient presents with symptoms suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy. While awaiting diagnostic confirmation, which nursing intervention is the highest priority?
Following a confirmed ectopic pregnancy, a client expresses concerns about future fertility. Which response demonstrates the most comprehensive understanding of potential fertility outcomes?
Following a confirmed ectopic pregnancy, a client expresses concerns about future fertility. Which response demonstrates the most comprehensive understanding of potential fertility outcomes?
A client with a history of ectopic pregnancy is planning to conceive. What preconception recommendation is most important for the nurse to emphasize?
A client with a history of ectopic pregnancy is planning to conceive. What preconception recommendation is most important for the nurse to emphasize?
Which of the following signs and symptoms, if present together, most strongly suggest a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy rather than other possible conditions?
Which of the following signs and symptoms, if present together, most strongly suggest a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy rather than other possible conditions?
In managing a patient with a suspected ruptured ectopic pregnancy, after initiating fluid resuscitation, what is the next critical step in the immediate management plan?
In managing a patient with a suspected ruptured ectopic pregnancy, after initiating fluid resuscitation, what is the next critical step in the immediate management plan?
What is the underlying physiological mechanism by which stimulants can induce preterm labor?
What is the underlying physiological mechanism by which stimulants can induce preterm labor?
A pregnant woman's CBG result is 216 mg/dL. What is this value in mmol/L, and what does it indicate?
A pregnant woman's CBG result is 216 mg/dL. What is this value in mmol/L, and what does it indicate?
Which of the following mechanisms is most directly responsible for intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) in the context of gestational diabetes?
Which of the following mechanisms is most directly responsible for intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) in the context of gestational diabetes?
How does nicotine exposure during pregnancy increase the risk of placenta previa?
How does nicotine exposure during pregnancy increase the risk of placenta previa?
What is the primary reason that fetal pulmonary hypertension is associated with maternal smoking?
What is the primary reason that fetal pulmonary hypertension is associated with maternal smoking?
Which of the following mechanisms best connects opioid use during pregnancy to potential neonatal withdrawal symptoms after birth?
Which of the following mechanisms best connects opioid use during pregnancy to potential neonatal withdrawal symptoms after birth?
Which of the following facial characteristics is LEAST likely observed in a child with Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS)?
Which of the following facial characteristics is LEAST likely observed in a child with Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS)?
Cinnamon tea is suggested as a remedy for gestational diabetes. How might cinnamon potentially affect blood sugar levels?
Cinnamon tea is suggested as a remedy for gestational diabetes. How might cinnamon potentially affect blood sugar levels?
How does spontaneous abortion relate to stimulant use during pregnancy?
How does spontaneous abortion relate to stimulant use during pregnancy?
Why is monitoring blood sugar levels regularly a crucial aspect of managing gestational diabetes during pregnancy?
Why is monitoring blood sugar levels regularly a crucial aspect of managing gestational diabetes during pregnancy?
In managing ectopic pregnancy, why is the principle of 'Quick in and Quick Out' crucial during a laparotomy or laparoscopy?
In managing ectopic pregnancy, why is the principle of 'Quick in and Quick Out' crucial during a laparotomy or laparoscopy?
A patient presents with lower abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and a positive pregnancy test. Transvaginal ultrasound reveals no intrauterine pregnancy. What additional finding would most strongly suggest a ruptured ectopic pregnancy?
A patient presents with lower abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and a positive pregnancy test. Transvaginal ultrasound reveals no intrauterine pregnancy. What additional finding would most strongly suggest a ruptured ectopic pregnancy?
When would autotransfusion be considered in managing a patient with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy and significant blood loss?
When would autotransfusion be considered in managing a patient with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy and significant blood loss?
You are caring for a patient who underwent a salpingectomy for an ectopic pregnancy. Postoperatively, which nursing intervention is most critical in the immediate recovery period?
You are caring for a patient who underwent a salpingectomy for an ectopic pregnancy. Postoperatively, which nursing intervention is most critical in the immediate recovery period?
Following methotrexate administration for an unruptured ectopic pregnancy, what indicates the treatment's effectiveness?
Following methotrexate administration for an unruptured ectopic pregnancy, what indicates the treatment's effectiveness?
A patient is diagnosed with a complete hydatidiform mole. What is the most critical aspect of post-evacuation follow-up?
A patient is diagnosed with a complete hydatidiform mole. What is the most critical aspect of post-evacuation follow-up?
What is the underlying genetic mechanism that results in a complete hydatidiform mole?
What is the underlying genetic mechanism that results in a complete hydatidiform mole?
Which clinical finding is more indicative of a partial mole compared to a complete mole?
Which clinical finding is more indicative of a partial mole compared to a complete mole?
A patient with a hydatidiform mole reports feeling fetal movement. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action?
A patient with a hydatidiform mole reports feeling fetal movement. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action?
A patient has been undergoing HcG monitoring following evacuation of a hydatidiform mole. After six months, her HcG levels remain elevated. What is the most likely next step in her management?
A patient has been undergoing HcG monitoring following evacuation of a hydatidiform mole. After six months, her HcG levels remain elevated. What is the most likely next step in her management?
What is the primary rationale behind advising women to use contraception after treatment for a hydatidiform mole?
What is the primary rationale behind advising women to use contraception after treatment for a hydatidiform mole?
Following a salpingostomy for an ectopic pregnancy, what information is important to convey to the patient regarding future fertility?
Following a salpingostomy for an ectopic pregnancy, what information is important to convey to the patient regarding future fertility?
Which diagnostic finding is most indicative of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy as opposed to an unruptured one?
Which diagnostic finding is most indicative of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy as opposed to an unruptured one?
How does a partial hydatidiform mole typically originate?
How does a partial hydatidiform mole typically originate?
What is the rationale behind measuring the vesicles of a suspected hydatidiform mole specimen?
What is the rationale behind measuring the vesicles of a suspected hydatidiform mole specimen?
Flashcards
Fetal Heart Tones (FHT)
Fetal Heart Tones (FHT)
The baby is still alive and its movement.
Fetal Heart Tones Audible
Fetal Heart Tones Audible
Typically audible around 20 weeks of gestation.
Fundal Height
Fundal Height
Distance from the symphysis pubis to the top of the uterus (fundus).
Leopold’s Maneuver
Leopold’s Maneuver
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Fundal Grip
Fundal Grip
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Umbilical Grip
Umbilical Grip
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Pawlick’s Grip
Pawlick’s Grip
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Hemoglobin (Hgb)
Hemoglobin (Hgb)
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Unang Yakap
Unang Yakap
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Dehydration & Hematocrit
Dehydration & Hematocrit
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Urinalysis
Urinalysis
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Protein/Albumin in Urinalysis
Protein/Albumin in Urinalysis
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Sugar in Urinalysis
Sugar in Urinalysis
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Transvaginal Ultrasound
Transvaginal Ultrasound
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FBS Normal Range
FBS Normal Range
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OGTT
OGTT
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What is AIDS?
What is AIDS?
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How does HIV work?
How does HIV work?
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How is HIV transmitted?
How is HIV transmitted?
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What test initially screens for HIV?
What test initially screens for HIV?
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What does ELISA detect?
What does ELISA detect?
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What test confirms HIV after 2 positive ELISA results?
What test confirms HIV after 2 positive ELISA results?
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Why encourage breastfeeding even if the mother is HIV+?
Why encourage breastfeeding even if the mother is HIV+?
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How effective are condoms in preventing HIV?
How effective are condoms in preventing HIV?
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Normal Capillary Blood Glucose Level?
Normal Capillary Blood Glucose Level?
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Managing Gestational Diabetes?
Managing Gestational Diabetes?
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RhoGAM
RhoGAM
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STD Screening
STD Screening
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FAS Facial Characteristics?
FAS Facial Characteristics?
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Ectopic Pregnancy
Ectopic Pregnancy
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Intrauterine Growth Restriction?
Intrauterine Growth Restriction?
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Ampulla (Fallopian Tube)
Ampulla (Fallopian Tube)
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Preterm Delivery?
Preterm Delivery?
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Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)
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Stimulants effect on Fetus?
Stimulants effect on Fetus?
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Sharp One-Sided Abdominal Pain
Sharp One-Sided Abdominal Pain
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Preterm Labor?
Preterm Labor?
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Referred Shoulder Pain
Referred Shoulder Pain
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Placenta Abruptio?
Placenta Abruptio?
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Anti-Shock Treatment
Anti-Shock Treatment
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Fetal Hypertension?
Fetal Hypertension?
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Effects of Smoking in a Fetus?
Effects of Smoking in a Fetus?
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Ectopic Pregnancy Pain
Ectopic Pregnancy Pain
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Ectopic Pregnancy Bleeding
Ectopic Pregnancy Bleeding
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Ectopic Pregnancy Symptoms
Ectopic Pregnancy Symptoms
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Ruptured Ectopic Pregnancy Symptoms
Ruptured Ectopic Pregnancy Symptoms
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Methotrexate Action
Methotrexate Action
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Salpingectomy
Salpingectomy
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"Quick In and Quick Out" Principle
"Quick In and Quick Out" Principle
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Hydatidiform Mole
Hydatidiform Mole
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Complete Mole Characteristics
Complete Mole Characteristics
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Partial Mole Characteristics
Partial Mole Characteristics
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H-Mole Symptoms
H-Mole Symptoms
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H-Mole Diagnosis
H-Mole Diagnosis
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Ineffective Tissue Perfusion r/t
Ineffective Tissue Perfusion r/t
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Fluid Volume Deficit
Fluid Volume Deficit
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Study Notes
- This lecture will cover the care of mothers and children deemed at-risk
- This can include risk of problems
Maternal and Child Care Nursing
Course description
- This course addresses disturbances and pre-existing health issues in pregnant women and pathological changes during intrapartum and postpartum
Course objectivies
Upon completion, students can:
- Use the nursing process for holistic client care in community and hospital
- Assess client health and risk factors
- Identify actual and potential nursing diagnoses
- Plan appropriate client interventions
- Implement appropriate client interventions
- Evaluate client progress and outcomes
5 Branches of Maternal Health
- Nutrition: Baby's development relies on adequate nutrition for mother
- Prenatal Care: Maintain delivery safety and manage potential birth defects
- Safe Delivery
- Breastfeeding: Optional, depends on the understanding, perspective and desire of the mother
- Family Planning: Average, 2-3 years between pregnancies
Breastfeeding mnemonics
- Breastfeeding, B-R-E-A-S-T F-E-E-D-I-N-G, is:
- Best for baby and mommy, reduces allergies, economical (no waste), antibodies to protect baby from infection, sterile and pure
- Temperature always ideal, fresh milk (never goes off), easy to prepare and digest, eradicates feeding difficulties
- Develops mother and child bonding, immediately available, nutritionally optimal; gastro-enteritis greatly reduced
Prenatal care
- The goal of prenatal care is to ensure uncomplicated pregnancy, the delivery of a live, healthy baby
- Issues may arise before conception if the potential mother has pre-existing health conditions
Regular vs Early prenatal care
- Regular prenatal care improves healthy outcomes; check-ups should be completed
- Early congenital/birth defect detection through ultrasound as early as 8 weeks, 20 weeks, and 38-36 weeks
- Early detection checks baby movement, breech position if relevant, and all development
- Prenatal immunization prevents mother-to-child transmission
- Anti-tetanus vaccine and vitamin A administration
- Tetanus Toxoid: 5 lifetime doses, circulating to baby
DOH Standards For Prenatal care
- Addresses key components for thorough maternal assessment
Weight
- 5-pound weekly increase is expected to balance fetal and fluid weight gains
Height
Blood Pressure
- Methyldopa is the preferred medication if blood pressure elevated
Fetal Heart Tones (FHT)
- Evaluated to verify the baby's well-being and movement
- Typically audible at 5 months/20 weeks into pregnancy
Fundic Height
- Symphysis pubis to the fundus
- 5th month: 20 cm
- 6th month: 21-24 cm
- 7th month: 25-28 cm
- 8th month: 29-30 cm
- 9th month: 30-34 cm
Leopold's Maneuver
- Non-invasive fetal assessment (presentation, position, attitude)
- Fundal grip (presentation), umbilical grip (position), Pawlick’s grip (engagement), and pelvic grip (attitude)
TT Immunization
- Tetanus Toxoid schedule depends on prior vaccination status:
- TT1: Anytime during pregnancy
- TT2: 4 weeks after TT1
- TT3: 6 months after TT2
- TT4: 1 year after TT3
- TT5: 1 year after TT4
Diet
- Adequate calories, low carbs, more protein
Danger sign assessment
- Elevated blood sugar, unusual bleeding, premature uterine contraction, hypertension, PROM, dizziness, headache
Breastfeeding
- Early initiation
Family Planning
Postpartum Care
High Risk Pregnancy
- Due to multiple factors increasing poor maternal/fetal outcomes
- Can be medical, reproductive, psychosocial, and/or obstetrical causes
Diagnostic and Laboratory assessment
- Done for management with any abnormal result
Complete Blood Count
- Hemoglobin: 120-160 (female: 12-16; male: 12-18)
- Hematocrit: 36-48%
- Leukocyte: 4-11
- Thrombocytes: 350,000-450,000
- Blood Typing: a, b, ab, o
- Rhesus Factor: Rh (+) or (-)
- Erythrocytes/RBC: 4.5-6
Low Hematocrit causes
- Sickle cell anemia (crescent-shaped RBCs, inadequate oxygen transport)
- Leukemia (low WBC)
- Hemolytic anemia (ruptured RBCs)
- Iron/Folate/Vitamin B12 Deficiency (reduced RBC production)
- Bone marrow disease (impaired cell production)
- Chronic inflammatory disease (capillary dilation/rupture)
- Kidney failure (no erythropoietin, thus impaired RBC production)
Lymphoma
- Lymph vessel cancer (trapped fluid and blood)
High Hematocrit causes
- Polycythemia Vera (increased cells/blood)
- Kidney tumor (edema = more fluids + plasma)
- Congenital heart disease (left-to-right shunting)
- Dehydration (less water = hemoconcentration)
- Excessive diarrhea may make hematocrit high due to plasma loss
- Lung disease (pneumonia)
Urinalysis
- Assesses various factors in urine.
- Pus cells, bacteria, protein/albumin, and sugar
- Protein/albumin (PIH if +; +1 to +4 severity), sugar (GDM if +; (-) glucose = no GDM, (+) glucose = GDM)
- Squamous epithelial cells (normal)
Pap Smear
- Checks cervical secretion to get samples for biospy for cervical cancer
- Checks cervical secretion to get samples for STI
- Checks cervical secretion to check for RBOW or LBOW
Ultrasound
- Sonography determines baby status, amniotic fluid conditions, fetal anatomy, fetal heart measurements and placental placement
- Transabdominal: over the fundus
- Transvaginal: probe insertion into the vagina
Amniocentesis
- Aspiration of amniotic fluid
- Detects congenital anomalies, trisomy issues, and fetal defects.
Chorionic Villi Sampling
- Check for possible problem or defect inside of the probe
Maternal Alpha-Feto Protein
- Checks AFP level to detect neural tube defects (ex. spina bifada.)
- AFP (substance made in liver of fetus)
- Spina bifida is a neural tube dosorder
- Anencephaly if there is no skull
- Gastroschisis if intestines are outside the body = straight to NICU for surgery soon
Doppler Velocimetry
- Assesses of umbilical cord and placenta blood flow between the uterus and baby
- To see the contractions if the waves are strong while the baby is inside the mother's womb.
Percutaneous Umbilical Blood sampling
- Determines the position of the fetus + umbilical cord on a monitor.
Biophysical scoring assesses baby health
- 30 minutes of UZD observation with the following results
- 8-18 normal fetus
- 6 = chronic asphyxia which means repeat procedure after 24hrs
- 4 = abnormal result
- 2 = termination of pregnancy
- 5 markers
- Determines the response of the fetal HR vs Fetal movement at certain time
- Results in a grading scale from 0-2
- 2 = 2 or more FHT acclerations per moment
- 1 = <2 acclerations per movement
- 0 = no acceleration
Fetal Breathing
- 2 episode/30 mins lasting 30 secs
- 0 - no episode
Amniotic Fluid Index
- Normal AFI - 5-15 cm water (some books up to 20cm)
-Results given
- 2- fluid filled pocket of 1 cm or more
- 0- no amniotic fluid or less than 1 cm in every pocket
- Polyhydramnios- too much production of Amniotic fluid: intervention (less fluid intake)
- Oligohydramnios - less production: intervention ( more fluid intake)
Fetal Body Movement
- Assess if these there more moments and the way the movement feels:
- 3 or more discrete movement of limbs and body in 30 mins
- 1- less than 3 moments
- 0 - no movements
Fetal Hearth Tone
- 2-1 or more episodes of active extension with return to felxion of limbs and trunk
- 1 - slow extension with return
- -0 flexion
Hepatitis B Detemination
- SOP - protection against infection to get accurate result
Hepatitis B antigen
- reactive = is positive (isolate patient + nurses should double glove_
- Non-reactive = negative (patient should stay in the labor room)
- test that look for the antibodies that your immune system are making + will use the surface protein of the virus B)
- Qualitative vs Quantitave are the various reasons for that
- test that look for the antibodies that your immune system are making + will use the surface protein of the virus B)
Contraction stress test (CST)
- done after 32 weeks AOG Determine if the baby can tolerate contractions and use electronic fetal monitoring to see if the baby can tolerare the contractions Negative = normal, no fetal heart deceleration Positive = abnormal, with deceleration
Fetoscopy
- Direct visualization of the fetus through a scope . Is an endoscoopuc prceodure during pregnancy to allow. access to the fetus, the amniotic cavity, the umbilical. cord, and the fetal side of the placenta
May use to
- Obtain sampe tissues or blood. May perform intrauterine fetal surgery
Fetal Movement counting
Done after 27 weeks AOG + proof baby alive
- Twice daily for 20-30 minutes with the number of movemnts
- Normal - 5-6 movements in 20-30 minutes
- Abnormal - less done 3 movements in 1 hour
Cardiovascular disorders +
The blood increase is from about 49% - 50% increase on the blood to prepare and have reserves to prevent blood lose to accomodate increase cardiac output
Increase 15% size of Ventricular hamber
Pregnancy
- Increase Cardiac output - 40-50 %
- 5-6L of blood is ejected per minute
- 7.5L/min normal of pregnant
- Decrease BP during 1st trimester
- Increased size of Ventricular chamber
Ventricular Septal Defect - VSD
- left ventricular hypertrophy + pulmonary hypertension + Right ventricular hypertrophy
- MV
- AV
- Vagal
- Pulmonary Veing
- MV
- Left of the aorta IVC
LEFT TO RIGHT Shunting
- Devation betwwen the left and right side of the heart
- compromised with oxegtntation because of mix oxygenated ad d oxygented
-
Atrial Septal Defect ASD-
- asymptomatic. * incresed with flow *hypertenion+ Similar group A. beta Hemo Group+ infart Process Auto-immune disease + + +scars
Function Classifications Of Cardiac diseases
- CLASS I Asymptomatic
- CLASS II symptomatic but without normal activities
- CLASS III sympathetic with less and normal activities
- CLASS IV Synthesizing
Judagment Safety pregnancy
- Conception ovulation to implantation
- conception is should perventife if;
- Sereve heart Disease
- Functional Classification ; Class III - IV History of Heart Failure. Functional class
- can leads to Fetal distress Rehumatic Fever & combined Valued Discases
Managment Of Diaseses
- Check up with regular checkup.
- prevent Infection+
- monitor 1 and 0 +
Medical Compications During Pregancy
- Gestational diabetes MELLITUS
GDM Pathophysiology
- HPL = increase ATP in cells = mascrosonia
increase glucose present in the blood excessive with comes placenta to reach cycle
Gesttational Risk factors for getting GDM
- obseity More thean 33
- *Overweight 25 kgs
Diagnostic TEST
DURING pregnact weight 20-25 kgs+ History Sedentry live style
- HCI (1.80)
- ** OG TT
- PST - Prandial +++ELECTRO
DOH STANDARDS FOR PRENATAL CARE
weight +high weight + weight gain of + fetus and *Fluic
- Weight gain of plus size is equal to the expected weight gain of a pre pregnant woman.
•Kidney and failure = epoeitin = not stimulation
- Cancer- fluid and blood
HELLP syndrome occurs during
-
*Liver and blood +1 25-35
-
Low carb cal
==End of questions and notes==
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