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Questions and Answers

Which of the following conditions would most likely lead to an elevated hematocrit level due to dehydration?

  • A balanced diet with adequate electrolyte and fluid replacement.
  • Administration of intravenous fluids at a controlled rate.
  • Increased water intake combined with decreased sweating.
  • Severe vomiting and diarrhea causing significant fluid loss. (correct)

In the context of postpartum care, what is the primary rationale behind the 'Unang Yakap' (First Embrace) initiative?

  • To prevent the transmission of infections by keeping the newborn in a sterile environment.
  • To allow medical staff to conduct thorough assessments of the newborn in isolation.
  • To promote immediate skin-to-skin contact between mother and newborn to facilitate bonding and breastfeeding. (correct)
  • To expedite the mother's recovery by minimizing contact with the newborn.

A urinalysis result shows a high level of protein (albumin) in a pregnant woman's urine. Which condition does this result most strongly suggest?

  • Pregnancy-Induced Hypertension (PIH). (correct)
  • Urinary tract infection (UTI).
  • Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM).
  • Normal physiological change during pregnancy.

During a prenatal visit, a patient's Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) results are being evaluated. What is the primary purpose of conducting an OGTT during pregnancy?

<p>To screen for and diagnose Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key purpose of performing a Pap smear?

<p>To collect samples for cervical biopsy and STI screening. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant woman's urinalysis reveals the presence of pus cells and bacteria. Which condition does this most likely indicate, and what is a potential complication if left untreated?

<p>Urinary Tract Infection (UTI); potential for preterm labor and kidney infection. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In blood glucose testing during prenatal care, what is the significance of performing an Oral Glucose Challenge Test (OGCT), and what does it primarily screen for?

<p>To screen for gestational diabetes by measuring the body's response to glucose. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Compared to a standard abdominal ultrasound, what unique diagnostic advantage does a transvaginal ultrasound offer in early pregnancy?

<p>Improved imaging of pelvic structures and early detection of intrauterine or ectopic pregnancies. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the complexities of HIV transmission, which scenario presents the highest risk of transmitting HIV, assuming all individuals are unaware of their HIV status?

<p>Engaging in unprotected anal intercourse with multiple partners. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Given the limitations of diagnostic testing, what is the rationale for using a Western Blot test after two positive ELISA tests for HIV?

<p>To confirm the presence of HIV antibodies and rule out false positives. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the size difference between the HIV virus and the pores in latex condoms impact the effectiveness of condoms in preventing HIV transmission?

<p>The HIV virus is smaller than the pores, but condoms still provide a barrier when used correctly and consistently. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What critical factor necessitates ongoing encouragement for HIV-positive mothers to breastfeed their infants in resource-limited settings, despite the risk of HIV transmission through breast milk?

<p>The nutritional and immunological benefits of breast milk outweigh the risk of HIV transmission when replacement feeding is unsafe or unavailable. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what way do other sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) influence the risk of HIV transmission?

<p>STDs can increase the risk of HIV transmission due to inflammation and lesions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following practices is considered a negligible risk for HIV transmission in everyday scenarios?

<p>Sharing utensils with an HIV-positive individual. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these biological fluids does not transmit HIV?

<p>Tears (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the role of condoms in preventing HIV transmission, considering both their physical properties and real-world usage?

<p>While not foolproof, consistent and correct condom use significantly reduces the risk of HIV transmission. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant patient at 27 weeks gestation has a fundal height of 22 cm. Based on this finding, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step?

<p>Schedule a fetal ultrasound to assess fetal growth and amniotic fluid volume. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During Leopold's maneuvers, the second maneuver (umbilical grip) is used to determine which of the following?

<p>Fetal position (location of the fetal back). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant woman's complete blood count (CBC) reveals a hemoglobin level of 115 g/L. Which of the following conditions is MOST likely influencing this result?

<p>Normal physiological hemodilution of pregnancy. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client's CBC results indicate a low hematocrit level. Which of the following conditions could be a potential cause for this finding?

<p>Iron deficiency anemia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a prenatal visit at 30 weeks gestation, a client reports experiencing decreased fetal movement over the past 24 hours. What is the MOST appropriate initial action?

<p>Schedule a non-stress test (NST) to assess fetal well-being. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant patient who is Rh-negative asks about the importance of Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM). Which statement accurately describes the PRIMARY mechanism of action of RhoGAM?

<p>It binds to fetal Rh-positive red blood cells in the maternal circulation, preventing maternal sensitization. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant patient is diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. Which hematological change is MOST characteristic of this condition?

<p>Presence of crescent-shaped red blood cells. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant patient has a blood type of A-negative. Her partner is AB-positive. What is the probability that their child will be Rh-negative?

<p>50% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 35-year-old woman is admitted with a suspected ectopic pregnancy. Considering the various risk factors, which of the following would least likely contribute to her condition?

<p>History of uncomplicated vaginal deliveries (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy is experiencing referred shoulder pain. What physiological mechanism best explains this symptom?

<p>Irritation of the phrenic nerve due to intra-abdominal bleeding. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which assessment finding would be the least expected in a patient presenting with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy?

<p>Elevated blood pressure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with symptoms suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy. While awaiting diagnostic confirmation, which nursing intervention is the highest priority?

<p>Initiating an IV line with crystalloid solution (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a confirmed ectopic pregnancy, a client expresses concerns about future fertility. Which response demonstrates the most comprehensive understanding of potential fertility outcomes?

<p>&quot;Future fertility depends on the extent of damage to the fallopian tubes and the treatment required.&quot; (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client with a history of ectopic pregnancy is planning to conceive. What preconception recommendation is most important for the nurse to emphasize?

<p>Schedule an early ultrasound to confirm intrauterine pregnancy. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following signs and symptoms, if present together, most strongly suggest a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy rather than other possible conditions?

<p>Delayed menstruation, spotting, and sharp one-sided abdominal pain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In managing a patient with a suspected ruptured ectopic pregnancy, after initiating fluid resuscitation, what is the next critical step in the immediate management plan?

<p>Preparing the patient for blood transfusion and immediate surgical intervention (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying physiological mechanism by which stimulants can induce preterm labor?

<p>Vasoconstriction in the fetal circulation, leading to fetal distress and triggering preterm labor. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant woman's CBG result is 216 mg/dL. What is this value in mmol/L, and what does it indicate?

<p>12 mmol/L, indicating hyperglycemia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following mechanisms is most directly responsible for intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) in the context of gestational diabetes?

<p>Maternal hyperglycemia induces fetal hyperglycemia and hyperinsulinemia, disrupting normal fetal growth patterns. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does nicotine exposure during pregnancy increase the risk of placenta previa?

<p>Nicotine-induced vasoconstriction promotes abnormal placental implantation and development. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason that fetal pulmonary hypertension is associated with maternal smoking?

<p>Nicotine exposure causes chronic constriction of the fetal pulmonary vessels. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following mechanisms best connects opioid use during pregnancy to potential neonatal withdrawal symptoms after birth?

<p>Opioids readily cross the placenta, leading to fetal dependence and withdrawal symptoms upon cessation at birth. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following facial characteristics is LEAST likely observed in a child with Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS)?

<p>Wide-set eyes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cinnamon tea is suggested as a remedy for gestational diabetes. How might cinnamon potentially affect blood sugar levels?

<p>Cinnamon enhances the sensitivity of cells to insulin, improving glucose uptake from the bloodstream. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does spontaneous abortion relate to stimulant use during pregnancy?

<p>Stimulants lead to vasoconstriction and reduced blood flow to the uterus, increasing the risk of spontaneous abortion. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is monitoring blood sugar levels regularly a crucial aspect of managing gestational diabetes during pregnancy?

<p>To promptly adjust diet, exercise, or medication to maintain optimal glucose levels and minimize fetal complications. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In managing ectopic pregnancy, why is the principle of 'Quick in and Quick Out' crucial during a laparotomy or laparoscopy?

<p>To quickly identify and address the source of bleeding, reducing the risk of hypovolemic shock. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with lower abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and a positive pregnancy test. Transvaginal ultrasound reveals no intrauterine pregnancy. What additional finding would most strongly suggest a ruptured ectopic pregnancy?

<p>Shoulder pain accompanied by dizziness and a sudden drop in blood pressure. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When would autotransfusion be considered in managing a patient with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy and significant blood loss?

<p>When donated blood is unavailable or limited, and the patient is hemodynamically unstable. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You are caring for a patient who underwent a salpingectomy for an ectopic pregnancy. Postoperatively, which nursing intervention is most critical in the immediate recovery period?

<p>Monitoring vital signs and assessing for signs of continued bleeding or shock. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following methotrexate administration for an unruptured ectopic pregnancy, what indicates the treatment's effectiveness?

<p>A progressive decline in HcG levels, indicating the cessation of cell growth. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with a complete hydatidiform mole. What is the most critical aspect of post-evacuation follow-up?

<p>Serial monitoring of HcG levels to detect potential development of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying genetic mechanism that results in a complete hydatidiform mole?

<p>A diploid karyotype resulting from fertilization of an empty egg by a sperm that duplicates its chromosomes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which clinical finding is more indicative of a partial mole compared to a complete mole?

<p>The presence of an abnormal fetus or embryonic tissue on ultrasound. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a hydatidiform mole reports feeling fetal movement. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action?

<p>Explain that fetal movement is not possible in a molar pregnancy and prepare the patient for an ultrasound to evaluate the pregnancy. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has been undergoing HcG monitoring following evacuation of a hydatidiform mole. After six months, her HcG levels remain elevated. What is the most likely next step in her management?

<p>Initiating chemotherapy due to the risk of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary rationale behind advising women to use contraception after treatment for a hydatidiform mole?

<p>To avoid confusion in monitoring HcG levels, as pregnancy can falsely elevate these levels. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a salpingostomy for an ectopic pregnancy, what information is important to convey to the patient regarding future fertility?

<p>The risk of another ectopic pregnancy in the future is increased. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic finding is most indicative of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy as opposed to an unruptured one?

<p>Free fluid in the abdomen on ultrasound accompanied by hemodynamic instability. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does a partial hydatidiform mole typically originate?

<p>Fertilization of a normal egg by two sperm. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale behind measuring the vesicles of a suspected hydatidiform mole specimen?

<p>To aid in differentiating between complete and partial moles and to guide further management. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Fetal Heart Tones (FHT)

The baby is still alive and its movement.

Fetal Heart Tones Audible

Typically audible around 20 weeks of gestation.

Fundal Height

Distance from the symphysis pubis to the top of the uterus (fundus).

Leopold’s Maneuver

Non-invasive method assessing fetal presentation, position, and attitude.

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Fundal Grip

Determines the fetal part in the upper uterus (head or breech).

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Umbilical Grip

Determines the location of the fetal back.

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Pawlick’s Grip

Determines the fetal engagement in the pelvis.

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Hemoglobin (Hgb)

Normal range is 12-16 g/dL for females and 12-18 g/dL for males.

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Unang Yakap

Early skin-to-skin contact and breastfeeding initiation immediately after birth.

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Dehydration & Hematocrit

Excessive vomiting or diarrhea can cause dehydration, leading to a higher concentration of red blood cells.

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Urinalysis

Examination of urine for abnormalities.

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Protein/Albumin in Urinalysis

May indicate Pregnancy-Induced Hypertension if present in urine.

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Sugar in Urinalysis

May indicate Gestational Diabetes Mellitus if present in urine.

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Transvaginal Ultrasound

A procedure where a probe is inserted into the vagina to visualize the uterus and ovaries.

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FBS Normal Range

Fasting Blood Sugar: Normal range is 100-120 mg/dL.

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OGTT

Oral Glucose Tolerance Test; used to diagnose gestational diabetes.

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What is AIDS?

Infection caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus.

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How does HIV work?

HIV attacks the immune system, making individuals susceptible to opportunistic infections and cancers.

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How is HIV transmitted?

Blood, blood products, semen, vaginal fluid, and breast milk.

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What test initially screens for HIV?

ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay).

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What does ELISA detect?

Detects HIV antibodies in the blood.

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What test confirms HIV after 2 positive ELISA results?

Western blot test.

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Why encourage breastfeeding even if the mother is HIV+?

The benefit of breast milk outweighs the risk of transmission.

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How effective are condoms in preventing HIV?

Although not 100% effective, they significantly reduce the risk. Use condoms made for HIV patients.

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Normal Capillary Blood Glucose Level?

80-120 mg/dl or 4.44-6.66 mmol/L (CBG/18)

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Managing Gestational Diabetes?

Monitoring blood sugar, healthy eating, prescribed medicine, and regular sleep.

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RhoGAM

A medication given to prevent Rh sensitization in Rh-negative mothers exposed to Rh-positive fetal blood.

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STD Screening

Screening tests performed to detect sexually transmitted diseases.

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FAS Facial Characteristics?

Epicanthal folds, small eye openings, upturned nose, smooth philtrum, flat midface and thin upper lip.

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Ectopic Pregnancy

Implantation of the fertilized ovum outside the uterus.

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Intrauterine Growth Restriction?

Reduced blood flow to the fetus due to uteroplacental insufficiency.

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Ampulla (Fallopian Tube)

The most common location for an ectopic pregnancy, where fertilization typically happens.

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Preterm Delivery?

Early separation of the placenta from the uterine wall.

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Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)

Inflammation of the female reproductive organs, often caused by STDs.

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Stimulants effect on Fetus?

Vasoconstriction leads to decreased blood flow to the fetal circulation.

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Sharp One-Sided Abdominal Pain

Sharp abdominal pain, often one-sided, that can occur with an ectopic pregnancy.

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Preterm Labor?

Labor that occurs before the normal term.

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Referred Shoulder Pain

A type of pain felt in the shoulder, resulting from irritation of the diaphragm due to internal bleeding (ruptured ectopic pregnancy).

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Placenta Abruptio?

The placenta separates from the uterus prematurely.

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Anti-Shock Treatment

Emergency treatment to stabilize a patient in shock, focusing on reversing the effects of hypovolemia and poor perfusion.

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Fetal Hypertension?

Hypertension in the fetus.

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Effects of Smoking in a Fetus?

Higher rates of spontaneous abortion, preterm labor, and low birth weight.

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Ectopic Pregnancy Pain

Lower abdominal pain increasing over time, often with lower back pain.

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Ectopic Pregnancy Bleeding

Bleeding that differs from a normal period; may be heavier or lighter, and dark in color..

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Ectopic Pregnancy Symptoms

Weakness, pale skin, and fainting due to internal bleeding.

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Ruptured Ectopic Pregnancy Symptoms

Sudden, severe abdominal/pelvic pain, dizziness/fainting, shoulder pain, and lower back pain.

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Methotrexate Action

Stopping cell growth to dissolve existing cells.

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Salpingectomy

Surgical removal of the fallopian tube(s).

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"Quick In and Quick Out" Principle

Rapid assessment and intervention to stabilize the patient.

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Hydatidiform Mole

A pregnancy in which the placenta contains grapelike vesicles.

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Complete Mole Characteristics

Diploid; absent fetus/embryo; diffuse swelling of villi; high hCG levels.

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Partial Mole Characteristics

Triploid; abnormal fetus/embryo; focal swelling of villi; hCG levels less elevated than complete mole.

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H-Mole Symptoms

Bleeding, larger than expected uterus, high hCG, hyperemesis, no fetal heartbeat or movement.

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H-Mole Diagnosis

hCG test and ultrasound.

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Ineffective Tissue Perfusion r/t

Tissue perfusion

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Fluid Volume Deficit

Volume of fluid in the body

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Study Notes

  • This lecture will cover the care of mothers and children deemed at-risk
  • This can include risk of problems

Maternal and Child Care Nursing

Course description

  • This course addresses disturbances and pre-existing health issues in pregnant women and pathological changes during intrapartum and postpartum

Course objectivies

Upon completion, students can:

  • Use the nursing process for holistic client care in community and hospital
  • Assess client health and risk factors
  • Identify actual and potential nursing diagnoses
  • Plan appropriate client interventions
  • Implement appropriate client interventions
  • Evaluate client progress and outcomes

5 Branches of Maternal Health

  • Nutrition: Baby's development relies on adequate nutrition for mother
  • Prenatal Care: Maintain delivery safety and manage potential birth defects
  • Safe Delivery
  • Breastfeeding: Optional, depends on the understanding, perspective and desire of the mother
  • Family Planning: Average, 2-3 years between pregnancies

Breastfeeding mnemonics

  • Breastfeeding, B-R-E-A-S-T F-E-E-D-I-N-G, is:
  • Best for baby and mommy, reduces allergies, economical (no waste), antibodies to protect baby from infection, sterile and pure
  • Temperature always ideal, fresh milk (never goes off), easy to prepare and digest, eradicates feeding difficulties
  • Develops mother and child bonding, immediately available, nutritionally optimal; gastro-enteritis greatly reduced

Prenatal care

  • The goal of prenatal care is to ensure uncomplicated pregnancy, the delivery of a live, healthy baby
  • Issues may arise before conception if the potential mother has pre-existing health conditions

Regular vs Early prenatal care

  • Regular prenatal care improves healthy outcomes; check-ups should be completed
  • Early congenital/birth defect detection through ultrasound as early as 8 weeks, 20 weeks, and 38-36 weeks
  • Early detection checks baby movement, breech position if relevant, and all development
  • Prenatal immunization prevents mother-to-child transmission
  • Anti-tetanus vaccine and vitamin A administration
    • Tetanus Toxoid: 5 lifetime doses, circulating to baby

DOH Standards For Prenatal care

  • Addresses key components for thorough maternal assessment

Weight

  • 5-pound weekly increase is expected to balance fetal and fluid weight gains

Height

Blood Pressure

  • Methyldopa is the preferred medication if blood pressure elevated

Fetal Heart Tones (FHT)

  • Evaluated to verify the baby's well-being and movement
  • Typically audible at 5 months/20 weeks into pregnancy

Fundic Height

  • Symphysis pubis to the fundus
  • 5th month: 20 cm
  • 6th month: 21-24 cm
  • 7th month: 25-28 cm
  • 8th month: 29-30 cm
  • 9th month: 30-34 cm

Leopold's Maneuver

  • Non-invasive fetal assessment (presentation, position, attitude)
  • Fundal grip (presentation), umbilical grip (position), Pawlick’s grip (engagement), and pelvic grip (attitude)

TT Immunization

  • Tetanus Toxoid schedule depends on prior vaccination status:
    • TT1: Anytime during pregnancy
    • TT2: 4 weeks after TT1
    • TT3: 6 months after TT2
    • TT4: 1 year after TT3
    • TT5: 1 year after TT4

Diet

  • Adequate calories, low carbs, more protein

Danger sign assessment

  • Elevated blood sugar, unusual bleeding, premature uterine contraction, hypertension, PROM, dizziness, headache

Breastfeeding

  • Early initiation

Family Planning

Postpartum Care

High Risk Pregnancy

  • Due to multiple factors increasing poor maternal/fetal outcomes
  • Can be medical, reproductive, psychosocial, and/or obstetrical causes

Diagnostic and Laboratory assessment

  • Done for management with any abnormal result

Complete Blood Count

  • Hemoglobin: 120-160 (female: 12-16; male: 12-18)
  • Hematocrit: 36-48%
  • Leukocyte: 4-11
  • Thrombocytes: 350,000-450,000
  • Blood Typing: a, b, ab, o
  • Rhesus Factor: Rh (+) or (-)
  • Erythrocytes/RBC: 4.5-6

Low Hematocrit causes

  • Sickle cell anemia (crescent-shaped RBCs, inadequate oxygen transport)
  • Leukemia (low WBC)
  • Hemolytic anemia (ruptured RBCs)
  • Iron/Folate/Vitamin B12 Deficiency (reduced RBC production)
  • Bone marrow disease (impaired cell production)
  • Chronic inflammatory disease (capillary dilation/rupture)
  • Kidney failure (no erythropoietin, thus impaired RBC production)

Lymphoma

  • Lymph vessel cancer (trapped fluid and blood)

High Hematocrit causes

  • Polycythemia Vera (increased cells/blood)
  • Kidney tumor (edema = more fluids + plasma)
  • Congenital heart disease (left-to-right shunting)
  • Dehydration (less water = hemoconcentration)
  • Excessive diarrhea may make hematocrit high due to plasma loss
  • Lung disease (pneumonia)

Urinalysis

  • Assesses various factors in urine.
  • Pus cells, bacteria, protein/albumin, and sugar
  • Protein/albumin (PIH if +; +1 to +4 severity), sugar (GDM if +; (-) glucose = no GDM, (+) glucose = GDM)
  • Squamous epithelial cells (normal)

Pap Smear

  • Checks cervical secretion to get samples for biospy for cervical cancer
  • Checks cervical secretion to get samples for STI
  • Checks cervical secretion to check for RBOW or LBOW

Ultrasound

  • Sonography determines baby status, amniotic fluid conditions, fetal anatomy, fetal heart measurements and placental placement
  • Transabdominal: over the fundus
  • Transvaginal: probe insertion into the vagina

Amniocentesis

  • Aspiration of amniotic fluid
  • Detects congenital anomalies, trisomy issues, and fetal defects.

Chorionic Villi Sampling

  • Check for possible problem or defect inside of the probe

Maternal Alpha-Feto Protein

  • Checks AFP level to detect neural tube defects (ex. spina bifada.)
  • AFP (substance made in liver of fetus)
    • Spina bifida is a neural tube dosorder
  • Anencephaly if there is no skull
  • Gastroschisis if intestines are outside the body = straight to NICU for surgery soon

Doppler Velocimetry

  • Assesses of umbilical cord and placenta blood flow between the uterus and baby
  • To see the contractions if the waves are strong while the baby is inside the mother's womb.

Percutaneous Umbilical Blood sampling

  • Determines the position of the fetus + umbilical cord on a monitor.

Biophysical scoring assesses baby health

  • 30 minutes of UZD observation with the following results
    • 8-18 normal fetus
    • 6 = chronic asphyxia which means repeat procedure after 24hrs
    • 4 = abnormal result
    • 2 = termination of pregnancy
  • 5 markers
    • Determines the response of the fetal HR vs Fetal movement at certain time
    • Results in a grading scale from 0-2
    • 2 = 2 or more FHT acclerations per moment
    • 1 = <2 acclerations per movement
    • 0 = no acceleration

Fetal Breathing

  • 2 episode/30 mins lasting 30 secs
  • 0 - no episode

Amniotic Fluid Index

  • Normal AFI - 5-15 cm water (some books up to 20cm) -Results given
    • 2- fluid filled pocket of 1 cm or more
    • 0- no amniotic fluid or less than 1 cm in every pocket
    • Polyhydramnios- too much production of Amniotic fluid: intervention (less fluid intake)
    • Oligohydramnios - less production: intervention ( more fluid intake)

Fetal Body Movement

  • Assess if these there more moments and the way the movement feels:
    • 3 or more discrete movement of limbs and body in 30 mins
    • 1- less than 3 moments
    • 0 - no movements

Fetal Hearth Tone

  • 2-1 or more episodes of active extension with return to felxion of limbs and trunk
    • 1 - slow extension with return
    • -0 flexion

Hepatitis B Detemination

  • SOP - protection against infection to get accurate result

Hepatitis B antigen

  • reactive = is positive (isolate patient + nurses should double glove_
  • Non-reactive = negative (patient should stay in the labor room)
    • test that look for the antibodies that your immune system are making + will use the surface protein of the virus B)
      • Qualitative vs Quantitave are the various reasons for that

Contraction stress test (CST)

  • done after 32 weeks AOG Determine if the baby can tolerate contractions and use electronic fetal monitoring to see if the baby can tolerare the contractions Negative = normal, no fetal heart deceleration Positive = abnormal, with deceleration

Fetoscopy

  • Direct visualization of the fetus through a scope . Is an endoscoopuc prceodure during pregnancy to allow. access to the fetus, the amniotic cavity, the umbilical. cord, and the fetal side of the placenta

May use to

  • Obtain sampe tissues or blood. May perform intrauterine fetal surgery

Fetal Movement counting

Done after 27 weeks AOG + proof baby alive

  • Twice daily for 20-30 minutes with the number of movemnts
    • Normal - 5-6 movements in 20-30 minutes
    • Abnormal - less done 3 movements in 1 hour

Cardiovascular disorders +

The blood increase is from about 49% - 50% increase on the blood to prepare and have reserves to prevent blood lose to accomodate increase cardiac output

Increase 15% size of Ventricular hamber

Pregnancy
  • Increase Cardiac output - 40-50 %
  • 5-6L of blood is ejected per minute
  • 7.5L/min normal of pregnant
  • Decrease BP during 1st trimester
  • Increased size of Ventricular chamber

Ventricular Septal Defect - VSD

  • left ventricular hypertrophy + pulmonary hypertension + Right ventricular hypertrophy
  • MV
  • AV
  • Vagal
  • Pulmonary Veing
  • MV
  • Left of the aorta IVC

LEFT TO RIGHT Shunting

  • Devation betwwen the left and right side of the heart
  • compromised with oxegtntation because of mix oxygenated ad d oxygented

Atrial Septal Defect ASD-

  • asymptomatic. * incresed with flow *hypertenion+ Similar group A. beta Hemo Group+ infart Process Auto-immune disease + + +scars

Function Classifications Of Cardiac diseases

  • CLASS I Asymptomatic
  • CLASS II symptomatic but without normal activities
  • CLASS III sympathetic with less and normal activities
  • CLASS IV Synthesizing

Judagment Safety pregnancy

  • Conception ovulation to implantation
  • conception is should perventife if;
  1. Sereve heart Disease
  2. Functional Classification ; Class III - IV History of Heart Failure. Functional class
  • can leads to Fetal distress Rehumatic Fever & combined Valued Discases

Managment Of Diaseses

  • Check up with regular checkup.
  • prevent Infection+
  • monitor 1 and 0 +

Medical Compications During Pregancy

  • Gestational diabetes MELLITUS

GDM Pathophysiology

  • HPL = increase ATP in cells = mascrosonia

increase glucose present in the blood excessive with comes placenta to reach cycle

Gesttational Risk factors for getting GDM

  • obseity More thean 33
  • *Overweight 25 kgs

Diagnostic TEST

DURING pregnact weight 20-25 kgs+ History Sedentry live style

  • HCI (1.80)
  • ** OG TT
  • PST - Prandial +++ELECTRO

DOH STANDARDS FOR PRENATAL CARE

weight +high weight + weight gain of + fetus and *Fluic

  • Weight gain of plus size is equal to the expected weight gain of a pre pregnant woman.

•Kidney and failure = epoeitin = not stimulation

  • Cancer- fluid and blood

HELLP syndrome occurs during

  • *Liver and blood +1 25-35

  • Low carb cal

==End of questions and notes==

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