192 Questions
What is the term for the total of all biochemical reactions occurring inside the cell for survival and reproduction?
Metabolism
What type of transport involves the use of energy to bring in nutrients?
Active transport
What is the process by which bacteria take in nutrients using a gradient?
Passive transport
What is the term for the breakdown of nutrients to produce energy?
Catabolism
What is the term for the synthesis of new molecules using energy?
Anabolism
What is the term for the process of growing bacteria in the laboratory?
Culture
What is the term for the process by which bacteria produce energy in the absence of oxygen?
Anaerobic respiration
What is the term for the process by which bacteria convert glucose into lactic acid?
Fermentation
What type of fermentation occurs in muscles?
Lactic acid fermentation
What is the primary mechanism of bacterial growth and replication?
Binary fission
What is the optimal temperature range for most bacteria?
37°C - 121°C
What type of bacteria require oxygen for growth?
Strict aerobes
What is the purpose of additives in culture media?
To enrich the growth of certain bacteria
What is the characteristic of defined culture media?
Exact composition is known
What is the primary source of energy for bacterial growth?
Cellular respiration
What is the term for bacteria that grow optimally in the absence of oxygen?
Strict anaerobes
What is the primary advantage of using solid media for growing bacteria in the lab?
Allows for the isolation of single colonies
Which of the following methods is used to quantify bacteria in the lab?
Cell counting under a microscope
What is the typical wavelength used to measure optical density in the lab?
600 nm
Which of the following media types is suitable for microaerophilic bacteria?
Semi-solid
What is the purpose of serial dilution and plating on agar in bacterial quantification?
To determine colony-forming units
What type of quantification can be achieved using qPCR?
Both relative and absolute quantification
Which part of the gut has few viable bacteria due to its high acidity?
Stomach
What is one of the functions of the gut microbiota?
Preventing pathogens from colonizing
What happens to the oral microbiota after tooth eruption?
It increases in anaerobes
What is one of the effects of the oral microbiota on human physiology?
Alteration of taste perception
Which of the following is a characteristic of the large intestine?
Huge diversity of bacteria
What is the relationship between the gut microbiota and pathogens?
The gut microbiota prevents pathogens from colonizing
What is the role of the gut microbiota in nutrient absorption?
It aids in the absorption of nutrients
What is the relevance of the study by Vanhatalo et al. to the oral microbiota?
It showed the oral microbiota affects blood pressure
What is one of the main functions of the microbiome?
To protect the host against pathogens
What is a characteristic of the microbiome composition?
It has huge diversity in composition
What is a challenge in studying the microbiome?
Some members are culturable, but most cannot be cultured
What is the significance of the 16S ribosomal RNA?
It is a highly-conserved gene between bacteria and archaea
What is shotgun metagenomics?
The sequencing of every nucleic acid within a given sample
When is the microbiome typically acquired?
In the first year of life
What is a term used to describe the healthy balance of microorganisms in the body?
Homeostasis
What is an example of a condition caused by microbiome dysbiosis?
All of the above
What was the finding in the study comparing germ-free and conventional mice?
Germ-free mice could eat more and gain less weight than conventional mice.
What is the term used to describe the collective microorganisms that live within and on the human body?
Microbiome
What is a characteristic of the human microbiome?
It is diverse across the human body.
What is the term for the state of infection where both the host and microbe benefit?
Symbiosis
What is the term used to describe an organism that consists of a host and its associated microorganisms?
Holobiont
What is an example of a disease that has been linked to dysbiosis of the microbiome?
All of the above
What is the term for the acquisition of micro-organisms by the host?
Infection/Colonization
What is the composition of the human body in terms of microbial and human cells?
10^14 microbial cells and 10^13 human cells
What is the role of the microbiome in regulating fat storage?
It regulates fat storage as an environmental factor.
What is the term for the 'normal' microbes present on the skin and in the oral, respiratory, and gastrointestinal tracts?
Commensals
Why do humans need their microbiome?
To protect against foreign substances and pathogens
What is the term for the combination of the host and microbiome?
Holobiont
Where are commensal microorganisms typically found in the human body?
Skin and oral, respiratory, and gastrointestinal tracts
What is the result of commensalism on the host?
No damage to the host
What can metagenomics be used for?
Insights into population dynamics
What is a characteristic of the skin microbiota?
Slightly acidic, high salt, low water content and inhibitory substances
What is a function of bacteria on superficial skin?
Partially degrading skin oil to volatile fatty acids
What is the result of bacteria partially degrading skin oil on superficial skin?
Body odour
What can metagenomics be used to characterise?
The community
What can be identified using metagenomics?
Subtyping, AMR genes, and virulence genes
What is the mechanism used by Streptococci to evade the host's immune system?
Coating with host protein called plasmin
What characterizes an acute infection?
Sudden onset, rapid progression, and often severe systemic symptoms
What is an example of a virulence factor?
All of the above
What is the term for the magnitude of harm caused by a pathogen?
Virulence
What type of toxin is typically produced by Gram-positive bacteria?
Exotoxin
What is an example of a long-term 'co-existence and subversion' infection?
Tuberculosis
What is the first step in the infective process?
Adherence
What is the term for the entry of pathogens into the bloodstream?
Bacteremia
What is the purpose of capsules in pathogen survival?
To hide from the host immune system
What is the term for the process of inhibiting phagocytosis?
Evasion
Which of the following is an example of camouflage or molecular 'mimicry'?
Coating with host macromolecules
What is the purpose of adhesins in pathogen adherence?
To facilitate adherence to host cells
What is the term for the infection disease in the blood?
Septicemia
What is the mechanism used by pathogens to actively penetrate the mucous membrane or epithelium?
Enzyme production
What is a characteristic of opportunistic pathogens?
They are typically members of the normal microbial flora
What is the ID50?
The number of micro-organisms required to cause disease in 50% of inoculated hosts
Which of the following is an example of an opportunistic infection?
Candida albicans
What is the relationship between virulence and host defenses?
The relationship between virulence and host defenses is complex and influenced by multiple factors
What is the term for the disease process in which the normal microbial flora causes disease?
Dysbiosis
What is an example of a niche that can be exploited by opportunistic pathogens?
Damaged heart valves
What is the term for the process by which pathogens evade the host's immune system?
Immune evasion
Which of the following is a characteristic of strict pathogens?
They always cause disease in a healthy individual
What is dental calculus formed from?
Calcified dental plaque
What inhibits the formation of dental calculus?
Pyrophosphates, zinc salts, and polyphosphonates
What is the characteristic of the microbiota found on the tongue?
Lower volume than on teeth
What type of bacteria is commonly found in the buccal region?
P. gingivalis
What factors can influence the formation of dental calculus?
All of the above
What is unique about the epithelium in the mucosal microbiota?
It is desquamated
During puberty, what happens to the oral microbiome?
It becomes more susceptible to periodontal disease pathogens
What is a characteristic of the saliva microbiome in adolescents?
It is more abundant in periodontal disease pathogens
What is a mechanism by which puberty influences the oral microbiome?
Hormones provide a nutrient source for gram-positive anaerobes
What is a factor that influences the composition of the saliva microbiome?
All of the above
What is a consequence of the shift in the oral microbiome during puberty?
Increased risk of periodontal disease
What is a study that has investigated the development of the saliva microbiome?
Holgerson et al.
What is the primary factor contributing to the increase in oral microbiome diversity during childhood?
Tooth eruption and establishment of solid foods
Which of the following bacteria is increasingly abundant during oral microbiome development in childhood?
Fusobacterium
What is the result of the changes in oral microbiome during childhood?
An increase in oral microbiome diversity, making it more adult-like
What is the potential consequence of an altered oral microbiome during childhood?
Increased risk of periodontal disease
At what age is the oral microbiome typically established?
6 months
What is the significance of the establishment of solid foods in oral microbiome development?
It provides a non-shedding tooth surface for biofilm maturation
What is the primary function of neutrophils?
To kill bacteria and make pus
What is the process by which microorganisms are coated before being engulfed by phagocytic cells?
Opsonisation
Which of the following types of white blood cells is responsible for specific immunity against viruses?
Lymphocytes
What is the term for the movement of cells towards a chemical stimulus, such as fMLP?
Chemotaxis
Which of the following types of white blood cells becomes macrophages?
Monocytes
What type of cells are relatively longer lived than granulocytes and include dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells?
Antigen Presenting Cells (APCs)
What is the term for the activation of the complement system by bacterial products such as peptidoglycan and lipopolysaccharide?
Opsonisation
What is the result of activating TLRs?
Cytokine production, chemokine production, and activation of bacterial killing mechanisms
Which of the following types of white blood cells is involved in immunity against parasitic infections, especially in the intestine?
Eosinophils
What is the function of gingipain in the oral cavity?
It corrupts adhesion complexes, allowing access of microbial products to underlying tissue
What is the role of Toll-like receptors in the immune system?
To recognise and respond to bacterial products
Which of the following is an oxygen-independent pathway used by phagocytic cells?
Lysosomal enzymes
What is the function of dendritic cells in the immune response?
To present antigens to T-cells
Which of the following is an example of a Pathogen-Associated Molecular Pattern (PAMP)?
Lipopolysaccharide
What is the primary function of opsonins in the immune response?
To increase the ability of phagocytes to adhere to microbes
What is the consequence of defective neutrophil function?
Inflammation and microbial accumulation
What is the primary function of myeloperoxidase?
To produce reactive oxygen species
What is the term for the process of engulfing and digesting foreign particles?
Phagocytosis
What is the consequence of neutropenia in the oral cavity?
Development of ulcer, gingivitis, and periodontitis
What is the role of chemokines in the immune response?
To attract neutrophils and macrophages to infected tissues
Which MHC class displays foreign antigens?
MHC class II
What is the primary function of CD28 in T-cell activation?
Binding to CD80 or CD86 to promote proliferation
What is the role of CTLA-4 in T-cell activation?
Limits T-cell expansion
What is the primary function of IL-12 in T-cell differentiation?
Directs T-cells towards Th1 phenotype
Which of the following is a characteristic of adaptive immunity?
Specificity to pathogen epitopes
What is the primary function of MHC class I?
Displays self-antigens
What is the role of CD4 and CD8 in T-cell activation?
Bind to MHC class II
What is the primary function of IL-2 in T-cell activation?
Promotes T-cell proliferation
What is the characteristic of antigen recognition by B cells?
Recognizes antigens in their native unprocessed forms
What is the role of CD40 in T-dependent antigen recognition?
It is a costimulatory molecule involved in T cell activation
What is the result of mass apoptosis of lymphocytes in the absence of antigen presentation?
Self-limitation is promoted
What is the characteristic of B1 cells?
They produce 'natural antibody' - IgM only
What is the result of affinity maturation in B cells?
Decrease in the dissociation constant (Kd)
What is the characteristic of T-independent antigens?
They do not require T cell help for activation
What is the primary function of immune memory in acquired immunity?
To enhance the immune response upon subsequent exposure to the same antigen
Which of the following is a characteristic of Class II MHC molecules?
Expressed on professional antigen-presenting cells
What is the role of antigen-presenting cells in the immune response?
To present antigens to T cells and activate an immune response
Which of the following is a characteristic of T cell activation?
Requires the presence of antigen-presenting cells
What is the role of co-stimulation in T cell activation?
To provide a secondary signal for T cell activation
Which of the following is a characteristic of B cell activation?
Results in the production of antibodies
What is the role of antigen presentation in the immune response?
To present antigens to T cells and activate an immune response
What is the relationship between antigen presentation and T cell activation?
Antigen presentation is required for T cell activation
What type of transport requires energy and moves against the concentration gradient?
Active transport
What type of proteins help in the movement of substances that cannot cross the lipid bilayer due to size, charge, or polarity?
Carrier proteins
What type of proteins allow passive movement of water through the membrane down its concentration gradient?
Aquaporins
What is the process by which cells transport substances out of the cell?
Exocytosis
What is the process by which cells take in substances from outside the cell?
Endocytosis
What is the term for the movement of water through a semi-permeable membrane to equalize the concentration of solutes on both sides?
Osmosis
What is the term for the pressure that opposes osmosis?
Hydrostatic pressure
What type of proteins form channels in the membrane to allow passive movement of solutes?
Channel proteins
What is the primary function of biological membranes?
To control the movement of substances into and out of cells
What is the characteristic of the phospholipid bilayer in the plasma membrane?
It has a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail
What is the purpose of selective permeability in the plasma membrane?
To allow certain molecules to enter the cell while keeping others out
What is the role of cell adhesion in biological membranes?
To recognize and adhere to other cells
What is the function of aquaporins in biological membranes?
To facilitate the transport of water molecules
What is the process by which cells release molecules into the extracellular environment?
Exocytosis
What is the process by which cells take in molecules from the extracellular environment?
Endocytosis
What is the term for the balance of fluid within the body?
Fluid balance
What is the primary function of Aquaporins in cells?
To form pores that allow the passage of water by osmosis
What type of transport involves the use of energy to move molecules against their concentration gradient?
Active transport
What is the term for the process by which cells release molecules into the extracellular space?
Exocytosis
What is the term for the process by which cells take in molecules from the extracellular space?
Endocytosis
What is the primary function of carriers or transporters in facilitated diffusion?
To bind specific molecules and transfer them across the cell membrane
What type of transport protein is responsible for the movement of ions across the cell membrane?
Pump
What is the term for the state of a cell in which the concentration of solutes is the same inside and outside the cell?
Isotonic
What is the result of a cell being placed in a hypertonic solution?
Water moves out of the cell
What is the purpose of intravenous fluid therapy?
To maintain body fluid and electrolyte balance
What is the term for the accumulation of excess water in the tissues?
Oedema
Which of the following is a neurotransmitter?
Glycine
What is the role of β-cyanoalanine synthase (β-CAS) pathway in cyanogenic plants?
Removal of cyanide from nature
Which of the following is a derivative of tyrosine?
Dopamine
What is the function of β-cyanoalanine?
All of the above
What is the role of histamine in the body?
Local mediator of allergic reactions
Which of the following is an intermediate in urea biosynthesis?
Ornithine
What is the use of azaserine?
Treating acute childhood leukemia
Which of the following is a glutamate decarboxylation product?
GABA
What is the primary function of antibodies in the immune system?
To defend the body from antigens
What is the role of carriers and transport proteins in the body?
To shuttle substances such as oxygen, nutrients, and waste products through the blood
What is the function of enzymes in the body?
To speed up reactions in the body
What is the role of structural and mechanical support proteins in the body?
To provide strength and flexibility to body tissues
What is the function of hormones in the body?
To direct specific activities, such as regulating blood glucose levels
What is the role of acid-base balance proteins in the body?
To act as buffers to maintain the pH of body fluids
What is the primary function of HSPs in cells?
To protect the cell from damage and stress
What is the role of fluid balance proteins in the body?
To ensure that body fluids are evenly dispersed
What is the start codon in mRNA translation?
AUG
What is the role of the small subunit in ribosomes?
Binds to the mRNA and links codon with anti-codon in tRNA
What is the result of peptide bonds formation in protein synthesis?
Amino acids are linked together
What is the role of tRNA in protein synthesis?
Act as adapter molecules
What is the consequence of reaching a stop codon in mRNA translation?
Protein synthesis is terminated
What is the term for the process of adding amino acids to a growing protein chain?
Elongation
What is the function of the large subunit of ribosomes?
Catalyses peptide bond formation
What is the result of post-translational modification?
Protein is modified
What is the term for the sequence of amino acids that make up a protein?
Peptide
How many different amino acids are known in animals, plants, fungi, and prokaryotes combined?
700
Study Notes
Bacterial Growth
- Bacterial growth occurs primarily by binary fission, where one bacterium splits into two, requiring energy.
Conditions Affecting Bacterial Growth
- Temperature: Most bacteria grow optimally at 37°C, but can vary from 0 to 121°C.
- pH: Most bacteria grow optimally between pH 7-8, but can vary from pH 0 to 11.
- Oxygen:
- Strict aerobes require oxygen for growth.
- Facultative aerobes prefer oxygen for growth.
- Facultative anaerobes prefer no oxygen for growth.
- Strict anaerobes cannot tolerate oxygen.
Growing Bacteria in the Lab
- Culture media is a substance that supports bacterial growth in the laboratory.
- Media can be:
- Defined (exact composition known)
- Complex (extracts from plants or animals; exact composition unknown)
- Additives can be incorporated to enrich or inhibit certain bacteria.
Bacterial Metabolism
- Metabolism is the total of all biochemical reactions occurring inside the cell for survival and reproduction.
- Defined as "from food to energy".
- Bacteria uptake nutrients through:
- Passive transport (involves nutrient gradient)
- Active transport (utilizes energy to bring in nutrients)
- Iron uptake is facilitated by siderophores.
Quantifying Bacterial Growth
- Methods for quantifying bacterial growth:
- Cell counting under a microscope
- Serial dilution and plating on agar (colony forming units)
- qPCR (relative or absolute quantification)
- Optical density measurement at 600 nm wavelength is used to interrogate growth dynamics in the lab.
Gut Microbiota
- The stomach has few viable bacteria due to its highly acidic environment
- The small intestine has few viable bacteria due to the presence of acid and bile juices
- The large intestine has a huge diversity of microbiota, with 10^12 cells per gram of stool
- Symbiotic relationships in the gut microbiota:
- Produce biotin and vitamin K
- Prevent pathogens from colonizing
- Aid in the absorption of nutrients
Oral Microbiota
- The mouth is colonized soon after birth
- After tooth eruption, there is an increase in anaerobes such as Porphymonas, Prevotella, and Fusobacterium
- Symbiotic relationship between oral microbiota and the host:
- Alters taste perception
- Differs between "super-tasters" and non-tasters
- Varied tongue microbiota
Changes to the Oral Microbiota
- Nitrate-responsive oral microbiome modulates nitric oxide homeostasis and blood pressure in humans
Homeostasis and Dysbiosis
- Example of dysbiosis: Obesity
- Germ-free mice vs. conventional mice:
- Same diet, but germ-free mice could eat more and gain less weight
- Microbiota affected caloric absorption
- Dental conditions caused by microbiome dysbiosis:
- Dental caries
- Periodontal disease
- Oral cancer
Microbe-Host Interaction
- Humans are holobionts, comprising the host and microbiome
- Microbes can either be beneficial or cause harm
- The microbiome across the human body is diverse
- The microbiome can be in flux
Host-Microbe Interactions
- Definitions:
- Infection/colonization: acquisition of micro-organisms by the host
- Commensalism: a state of infection that results in no damage to the host
- Symbiosis/mutualism: a state of infection where both the host and microbe benefit
Humans as Holobionts
- A holobiont consists of the host and microbiome
- The human microbiome includes all microbes that share our body space
- Humans carry 10^14 microbial cells and 10^13 human cells
- Humans need their microbiome for:
- Beneficial tasks
- Protection from foreign substances and pathogens
Microbiome - Commensals
- 'Normal' microbes present on the skin and in the oral, respiratory, and gastrointestinal tracts, but not in internal tissues
- Protect the host against pathogens
- Provide nutrients for the host
- Acquired in the first year of life
Microbiome Composition
- Huge diversity in composition, including:
- Bacteria
- Fungi
- Viruses
- Some members are culturable, but most cannot be cultured
- Culture-independent methods are used to study the microbiome
16S Ribosomal RNA Sequencing
- 16S rRNA is a subunit of the ribosome
- Slow rate of evolution
- Highly conserved between bacteria and archaea
- Hypervariable regions for studying diversity
Shotgun Metagenomics
- Sequencing of every nucleic acid within a given sample, including:
- DNA and/or RNA
- Bacteria
- Viruses
- Fungi
- Even host
- Allows for extended characterization of the "community", including:
- Subtyping
- AMR genes
- Virulence genes
Metagenomics Insight into Population Dynamics
- Metagenomics can be used to study population dynamics
Host Microbiome Varies with Body Site
- Skin microbiota:
- Environment: slightly acidic, high salt, low water content, and inhibitory substances
- Bacteria on superficial skin (dead cells) and sweat glands
- Bacteria partially degrade skin oil to volatile fatty acids, producing body odor
- Respiratory microbiota
Infection Process
- Adherence and invasion are the first steps in the infective process
- Entry sites for pathogens include skin, oral, gut, respiratory tract, and eyes
- Adherence can be non-specific or specific, with specific adhesins being pili, fimbriae, and capsules
Invasion Strategies
- Pathogens can actively or passively penetrate mucous membranes or epithelium
- Active invasion and spread involve enzyme production and microbial toxins
- Inhibition of phagocytosis is a key strategy for pathogens
- Bacteremia occurs when pathogens enter the blood, while septicemia is an infection disease in the blood
Surviving Host Defenses
- Pathogens must overcome innate and adaptive immune systems
- Protection strategies include hiding (within capsules, biofilms, or phagocytes), camouflage (coating with host macromolecules), and immune evasion (antigenic variation)
- Examples of hiding include Streptococcus pneumoniae capsules and intracellular pathogens like Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- Camouflage strategies include Streptococci producing streptokinase to coat bacteria with plasmin
Acute and Chronic Infections
- Acute infections are characterized by sudden onset, rapid progression, and severe systemic symptoms
- Chronic infections involve the continued presence of infectious agents following primary infection and may include chronic or recurrent disease
Virulence Factors
- Virulence is the magnitude of harm caused by a pathogen
- Virulence factors increase the pathogen's virulence, including rapid replication, integration of pathogen genome into host, and use of toxins
- Toxins include exotoxins (Gram +ve, heat sensitive) and endotoxins (LPS on Gram -ve, heat stable, causing fever and shock)
Pathogenicity
- Pathogens can cause disease through simple 'hit-and-run' infections or long-term 'co-existence and subversion'
- Strict pathogens always cause disease when present, while opportunistic pathogens only cause disease under certain conditions
- Examples of strict pathogens include Mycobacterium tuberculosis, while opportunistic pathogens include Candida albicans
Opportunistic Infections
- Opportunistic infections occur when the immune system is weakened, such as through frequent antibiotic usage
- Examples of opportunistic infections include oral thrush (Candida albicans) and bacterial endocarditis (Streptococcus viridans)
- Opportunistic infections can occur when a pathogen enters a new niche, such as when Streptococcus viridans infects damaged heart valves
Rate of Infection
- The rate of infection is influenced by virulence and host defenses
- ID50 is the number of micro-organisms required to cause disease in 50% of inoculated hosts
Dental Plaque/Biofilm Formation
- Mature plaque is calcified dental plaque with calcium phosphate mineral salts forming between and within viable microbes
- People with elevated salivary calcium levels form calculus quicker
- A biofilm layer covers the calculus
- Inhibition of calculus formation can be achieved using pyrophosphates, zinc salts, and polyphosphonates
Dental Calculus
- Calcified dental plaque
- Calcium phosphate mineral salts form between and within viable microbes
- People with elevated salivary calcium levels form calculus quicker
- Biofilm layer covers the calculus
Mucosal Microbiota
- Epithelium includes gingival, buccal, and palatal regions
- Desquamation occurs in mucosal microbiota
- Lower volume of microbiota present on mucosa compared to teeth
- Buccal region has P. gingivalis
- Tongue contains papillae, providing protected sites for bacterial colonization
- Tongue has S. mitis, S. salivarius, and medically compromised Candida albicans
Oral Microbiome Development
- At 6 months, tooth emergence and establishment of solid foods provide a non-shedding tooth surface for biofilm maturation and increased diversity of nutrients for the microbial community
- This leads to an increase in the diversity of the oral microbiome, causing it to become more adult-like
- Some of the increasingly abundant bacterial taxa emerging during this period include Fusobacterium, Lactobacillus, Neissera, Gemella, and Haemophillus
Puberty and the Oral Microbiome
- The later childhood oral microbiome is characterized by the further enrichment and increased abundance of bacterial taxa, including periodontal disease pathogens like Porphyromonas gingivalis
- Hormones during puberty provide a nutrient source for gram-negative anaerobes like P. gingivalis
Phagocytosis
- Phagocytosis is the capture and digestion of foreign particles
- Chemokines attract macrophages and neutrophils to infected tissues
- Opsonins attach to microbes to increase phagocyte adhesion (opsonization)
Oxygen Independent and Dependent Pathways
- Oxygen-independent pathway involves lysosomal enzymes (e.g. collagenase, gelatinase, phospholipases or serine proteases)
- Oxygen-dependent pathway involves oxidative burst, producing reactive oxygen and nitrogen species (RONS)
White Blood Cells (WBCs)
- Neutrophilic PMN (most common WBC): kills bacteria, makes pus
- Monocytic PMN (second most common WBC): kills bacteria, eats debris, attacks intracellular pathogens, becomes macrophages
- Lymphocytes (many types: T, B, NK): specific immunity, immunity against viruses, tumor protection
- Eosinophils (rarest variety of WBC): becomes mast cells, contributes to allergy
Chemotaxis and Opsonisation
- Chemotaxis: directional movement of neutrophils towards bacterial products (e.g. fMLP, peptidoglycan) detected by surface receptors
- Opsonisation: microorganisms must be coated before being bound and engulfed by phagocytic cells, using complement system or other coating agents
Innate Responses
- Cells involved: antigen-presenting cells (APCs), phagocytic cells (e.g. neutrophils, macrophages)
- Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)
- Effects of activating TLRs: cytokine production, chemokine production, activation of bacterial killing mechanisms, and activation of dendritic cells
MHC and Antigen Recognition
- MHC class I displays self-antigens, while MHC class II displays foreign antigens
- All nucleated cells display MHC class I, while immune cells display both MHC class I and II
- Each MHC displays one antigen at a time
- High expression levels of peptide-MHC complexes increase the propensity to activate T-cells
Characteristics of MHC
- MHC class I: 6-16 amino acids
- MHC class II: up to 30 amino acid residues
T-Cell Activation
- MHC-TCR engagement requires co-stimulation: T-cell coreceptors CD28 and CD80/B7.1 and CD86/B7.2 on the APC
- IL-2 is immediately released by T cells and promotes proliferation
- 3 signals for T-cell activation: TCR engages antigen on MHC, CD4 or CD8 binds MHC, and CD28 binds CD80 or CD86
- Further engagement with ICOS, 4-1BB, and OX40 strengthens activation
- 'Brakes' are applied through CD152, which limits expansion
Cytokines and T-Cell Identity
- Exposure to IL-12 from APC → Th1
- Exposure to IL-4 from APC → Th2
- Exposure to IL-6, IL-23 from APC → Th17
Adaptive (Specific) Immunity
- Specificity: every clone of T and B lymphocytes recognizes a different antigen
- Acquired immunity: has a memory, provides improved protection on next exposure, and is the basis for immunity against re-infection and immunization
Characteristics of Antigen-Presenting Cells
- Dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells, and Langerhans cells are professional APCs
- APCs express MHC class II and are highly effective at presenting antigens
Immune Responses
- Innate immune response: reduces pathogen load, immediate, and part of homeostasis
- Adaptive immune response: has a memory, provides improved protection on next exposure, and is the basis for immunity against re-infection and immunization
Antigen Presentation to T-Cells
- Antigen presentation on MHC is a fundamental link between innate and adaptive immunity
- Memory: accelerated and larger response, with fewer 'checkpoints' required for reactivation
Antigen Recognition and B-Cell Activation
- T-dependent antigens: require T-cell 'help', use costimulatory molecule CD40, and need cytokines
- T-independent antigens: do not require T-cell help
- BCRs recognize antigens in their native unprocessed forms (does not require peptide bound to MHC molecules)
- Each B-cell is decorated with IgM with a unique specificity, with 10 billion combinations
- Affinity maturation: decrease in the dissociation constant (Kd) following repeated stimulation, involving class switching from IgM to IgG
Fluid Balance and Osmosis
- Body fluid balance and distribution are crucial, and the movement of water in the body needs to be controlled to prevent swelling or dehydration.
- Biological membranes act as a barrier for water movement, controlling the movement of substances into and out of cells, and regulating the composition within individual cells.
Biological Membranes
- Functions of biological membranes:
- Control the movement of substances into and out of cells
- Regulate the composition within individual cells
- Control the flow of information between cells (recognizing or sending signals)
- Capture and release energy (e.g., mitochondria)
- Cell adhesion
- Synthesize steroids, etc.
- Structure and function of plasma membrane:
- Bi-layer of phospholipids (phosphate group and 2 chains of fatty acids)
- Amphipathic (head is hydrophilic, tail is hydrophobic)
- Selective permeability (some molecules are allowed in, while others are kept out)
- Permeable to lipid-soluble substances (e.g., O2)
- Impermeable to charged molecules (e.g., ions)
Body Fluid Compartments
- Intracellular fluid: ~25 L
- Interstitial fluid: ~12 L
- Plasma: ~3 L
- Extracellular fluid (ECF): plasma + interstitial fluid
Osmosis and Water Movement
- Osmosis: water moves through a semi-permeable membrane to equalize the concentration of a solution
- Osmotic pressure (OP): created by a concentration difference of dissolved substances between two sides of a bio-membrane
- Hydrostatic pressure: movement of water stops
- Equilibrium is reached once sufficient water has moved to equalize the solute concentration on both sides
Membrane Transport
- Passive movement: follows the concentration gradient, does not require energy
- Driving forces: concentration gradient, electrical potential
- Active transport: against the concentration gradient, requires energy
- Examples: endocytosis, exocytosis
- Diffusion: passive movement across membranes, forming equilibrium
- Facilitated diffusion: diffusion for substances that cannot cross lipid bi-layer due to size/charge/polarity, uses carrier proteins
Membrane Proteins
- Transport proteins: channels, pumps, and carriers
- Enzymes
- Intercellular junctions
- Cell-cell recognition
- Receptors
- Adhesion to extracellular matrix
Membrane Transport Proteins
- Channels: allow passive movement of solutes through the membrane down their concentration gradient
- Examples: ion channels, aquaporins
- Gated: open or closed in response to local changes (e.g., ligand-gated, voltage-gated)
- Pumps: active transport, against the concentration gradient, catalyze the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP
- Examples: Na+/K+-ATPase, important for controlling movement of water and electrolyte balances
- Carriers/Transporters: facilitate diffusion or active transport, bind specific molecules and transfer them across the membrane
- Examples: uniporter, symporter, antiporter
Cellular Transport
- Exocytosis: vesicles containing material for export, waste removal, secrete hormones
- Endocytosis: take in material, the reverse of exocytosis, white blood cell engulfing bacteria/viruses
Water Imbalance and Treatment
- Oedema: accumulation of excess water in the tissues, water leakage from capillaries
- Intravenous fluid therapy: maintain body fluid and electrolytes balance, various types of fluid for different purposes
Osmosis
- Isotonicity: concentration of dissolved substances is the same in the solution as in the cell, same OP for both sides
- Isotonic solution of animal cells: 0.9% w/v NaCl solution (saline)
- Hypotonicity: outside solution has lower OP (less solute) than cell interior, water moves into cell
- Example: 0.45% saline
- Hypertonicity: outside solution has higher OP (more solute) than cell interior, water moves out of cell
- Example: 3% saline
Function of Proteins
- Enzymes speed up reactions in the body
- Hormones direct specific activities, such as regulating blood glucose levels (insulin)
- Antibodies and complement system are involved in the immune system to defend the body from antigens (foreign invaders)
- Structural and mechanical support proteins provide strength and flexibility to body tissues
- Carrier proteins shuttle substances such as oxygen, nutrients (e.g., iron), and waste products through the blood and into and out of cells
- Proteins help maintain fluid balance and acid-base balance in the body
- Proteins provide energy when necessary
Specialized Roles of Amino Acids
- Glycine, GABA, and dopamine are chemical messengers (neurotransmitters)
- Histamine is a potent local mediator of allergic reactions
- Thyroxine is a thyroid hormone
- Citrulline, ornithine, and homocysteine are intermediates in various metabolic processes
Specialized Roles of Non-Standard Amino Acids
- Azaserine is an antimicrobial, antifungal, antineoplastic, and immunosuppressive agent
- β-Cyanoalanine is involved in the removal of cyanide from nature and is used in treating acute childhood leukemia
Central Dogma - Flow of Genetic Information
- The sequence of mRNA is translated into a sequence of amino acids
- mRNA reads the sequence of codons (AUG, AAG, CCG, etc.)
- tRNA reads the sequence of anti-codons and brings amino acids to the ribosome
- Ribosomes are composed of rRNA and ribosomal proteins and have two subunits (large and small)
Components of Translation
- mRNA carries the genetic information
- Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins
- tRNA is the adapter molecule that brings amino acids to the ribosome
- Ribosomes are the action stations where protein synthesis occurs
- Enzymes and energy are necessary for translation
Synthesis of Proteins from RNA
- Initiation: starts with the start codon AUG (methionine)
- Elongation: addition of amino acids by peptide bonds
- Termination: ends with the stop codon (UAA, UAG, or UGA)
This quiz covers the processes of bacterial growth, replication, and fermentation. It includes topics such as binary fission and laboratory assessment.
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