ATPL Departure Procedures Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What defines a low visibility take-off?

  • A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 50m
  • A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 125m
  • A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 200m
  • A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 400m (correct)
  • What action is required after a delay of 30 minutes or more beyond the estimated EOBT for a controlled flight?

  • No action required because the air traffic system accommodates delays of up to 60 minutes
  • A new flight plan must be submitted if required by ATC
  • The flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan should be submitted and the old flight plan cancelled, whichever is applicable (correct)
  • None, because ATC will automatically amend the current flight plan
  • In an instrument departure procedure where the track is published, how should the pilot respond to wind conditions?

  • To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace (correct)
  • To request from ATC different heading for wind correction
  • To ignore the wind and proceed on a heading equal to the track
  • To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction
  • What should a pilot do during a take-off from an airport with poor weather conditions when the closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours away?

    <p>Delay the take-off until weather conditions improve.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true regarding the responsibility of ATC during a delay in a controlled flight?

    <p>ATC will inform the pilot whether a new flight plan submission is required.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum Runway Visual Range (RVR) for a take-off to be classified as low visibility?

    <p>400 meters</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of the runway?

    <p>0 ft</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What height must be reached before turning onto the desired track during an omni-directional departure?

    <p>120 m (394 ft)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who is primarily responsible for establishing contingency procedures for engine failure after takeoff?

    <p>The Operator</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor primarily influences the design of an instrument departure procedure?

    <p>Terrain surrounding the aerodrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A turning departure is required if a departure route necessitates a turn of more than what degree?

    <p>15º</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Departure routes are based upon track guidance acquired within what distance after completing turns?

    <p>10 km</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What altitude or height can turns during a turning departure be specified at?

    <p>At an altitude, fix, or facility</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the required obstacle clearance before specifying turns greater than 15º during an omni-directional departure?

    <p>90 m</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What temperature is used when constructing a turning area departure?

    <p>ISA + 15ºC</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a straight departure, the initial departure track must align within how many degrees of the runway centerline?

    <p>15º</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum visibility requirement at departure airfield for take-off when there is a landing procedure available?

    <p>Horizontal visibility equal to or greater than that required for landing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component is least likely required in the design of an Instrument Departure Procedure?

    <p>The transition altitude</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In an instrument departure procedure, what is the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of the runway?

    <p>0 ft</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When can a required noise abatement procedure be overlooked?

    <p>At the discretion of the pilot in command due to safety</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum track divergence allowed for a straight departure?

    <p>More than 15 degrees from runway alignment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What climb gradient is generally assumed while establishing instrument departure procedures?

    <p>3.3% with all engines operating</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who is primarily responsible for creating contingency procedures for engine failure during an instrument departure after V1?

    <p>The aircraft operator</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the procedure design gradient (PDG) consist of in terms of obstacle clearance margin?

    <p>2.5% OIS with a 0.8% margin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum ceiling requirement for take-off procedures involving horizontal visibility and a landing procedure?

    <p>Equal to or greater than DH/MDH</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which standard instrument departure is considered not straight due to track divergence?

    <p>More than 20 degrees</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Low Visibility Take-Off

    • Defined as a take-off on a runway with Runway Visual Range (RVR) less than 400m.

    Delay Procedures

    • If a controlled flight experiences a delay exceeding 30 minutes past Estimated Off-Block Time (EOBT), the flight plan must be amended or canceled, as applicable.

    Instrument Departure Procedures

    • Pilots must correct for known wind to remain within protected airspace if the track is published.
    • Minimum obstacle clearance at departure end of the runway is zero feet.

    Take-Off Minima

    • For poor weather conditions, minimum take-off criteria require ceiling to be equal to Decision Height (DH) or Minimum Decision Height (MDH) and visibility meeting landing criteria.

    Turning Departures and Track Guidance

    • Turning departures provide accurate track guidance within 10 km after completing turns.

    Factors in Departure Procedure Design

    • Terrain is the primary factor in designing Instrument Departure Procedures (IDPs), while the transition altitude is less significant.

    Standard Instrument Departures (SID)

    • A standard SID is characterized as straight if initial track deviation from runway alignment is less than 15 degrees.

    Contingency Procedures

    • Operators are responsible for developing contingency plans for engine failures during an instrument departure after V1.

    Procedure Design Gradient (PDG)

    • PDG is typically set at 3.3%, accounting for an obstacle identification slope and any necessary margin.

    Engine Failure Responsibilities

    • The operator has sole responsibility for establishing procedures regarding engine failure after take-off.

    Departure Route Characteristics

    • Turning routes require a turn greater than 15 degrees from the departure heading.
    • For omni-directional departures, a minimum of 90m obstacle clearance is needed prior to initiating turns greater than 15 degrees.

    Temperature Factors

    • Standard temperature conditions applied during analysis of turning area departures are ISA + 15°C, tailored to the corresponding altitude.

    Maximum Track Guidance Distance

    • The maximum distance for acquiring track guidance during turning departures extends to 10 km after completing the turn.

    Reporting in IMC

    • In Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC), pilots should report to Departure Control immediately after becoming airborne.

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    Description

    Test your knowledge on departure procedures for ATPL, including low visibility take-offs and protocol during flight delays. This quiz focuses on critical regulations and definitions necessary for aspiring pilots. Assess your readiness for real-world flying scenarios.

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