Assessment of Male Genitalia

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Questions and Answers

What is the essential goal of gender-affirming nursing care?

  • Promoting societal gender norms
  • Discouraging personal narratives
  • Minimizing patient involvement in care decisions
  • Affirming personal identity of the patient (correct)

What must be considered when conducting cancer screenings for individuals with a specific body part?

  • Their hormone use
  • The individual's personal preferences
  • The presence of particular risk factors (correct)
  • The individual's gender identity

Which statement best describes a transgender male?

  • Assigned male sex at birth and identifies as neither male nor female
  • Assigned male sex at birth and identifies as gender fluid
  • Assigned female sex at birth and identifies as female
  • Assigned female sex at birth and identifies as male (correct)

What term describes an individual who identifies as neither male nor female?

<p>Gender nonbinary (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is part of the holistic well-being considerations for patients?

<p>Considering social, emotional, and physiological factors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first assessment to establish breastfeeding in newborns?

<p>Breastfeeding assessment of latch (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best defines constipation in infants?

<p>At least 2 of 3 specific symptoms occurring over 3 months (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is a neonate defined in terms of age?

<p>0 to 28 days (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term for an individual whose gender identity fluctuates over time?

<p>Gender fluid (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When delivering gender-affirming care, how important is it to respect patients' preferred names and pronouns?

<p>Essential for trust and rapport (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cardiovascular condition could result from constant SNS activation in homeless individuals?

<p>Hypertension (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor is most directly related to nutritional deficiencies in homeless individuals?

<p>Limited access to nutritious food (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which common condition is associated with both homelessness and poor dental hygiene?

<p>Ear problems (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of Tanner staging in pediatric assessments?

<p>It assesses sexual maturity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a high-risk condition for homeless individuals due to the risk of sexual assault?

<p>Sexually transmitted infections (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of hearing loss is associated with problems in the ear's structure or nerves?

<p>Sensorineural hearing loss (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which psychosocial aspect is crucial to assess when working with homeless individuals?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which vaccination is particularly important for homeless individuals to receive?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which psychosocial developmental stage, according to Erikson, is characterized by a child developing a sense of independence?

<p>Toddler (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is described as webbing between digits?

<p>Syndactyly (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What lifestyle modification may be discussed instead of medication for managing hypertension in homeless individuals?

<p>Stress reduction techniques (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common acute illness in children that may lead to conductive hearing loss?

<p>Otitis media (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common neurological concern for homeless individuals due to substance abuse?

<p>Seizures due to alcohol withdrawal (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does a power of attorney (POA) play in the context of healthcare decision-making?

<p>Makes decisions if the patient is incapacitated (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of violence is characterized by control over a victim's financial resources?

<p>Economic violence (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to Kohlberg’s theory, which stage refers to how children progress through moral development?

<p>None of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor may contribute to a homeless individual's low self-esteem?

<p>Experiences of victimization (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'hyperresonance' refer to in the context of respiratory assessment in young children?

<p>Excessive sound during percussion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following refers to the development of sexual motivations returning during adolescence according to Freud’s theory?

<p>Genital stage (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of women experience physical violence from an intimate partner according to statistics?

<p>1 in 5 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most important risk factor for cervical cancer?

<p>HPV infection (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by a tight foreskin that cannot be retracted?

<p>Phimosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What positioning is recommended for vaginal inspection?

<p>Dorsal lithotomy position (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common symptom of prostate cancer?

<p>Increased urination frequency (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms could indicate a risk of cancer during intercourse?

<p>Bleeding associated with intercourse (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of a syphilitic chancre?

<p>Firm, round red dot (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common sign of a gonorrheal infection?

<p>Lesions on the external genitalia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential consequence of untreated varicocele?

<p>Low sperm production (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended age to start screening with a PAP smear for cervical cancer?

<p>Age 21 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What symptom is associated with the transition to menopause?

<p>Irregular menses (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of hernia is most likely in children?

<p>Indirect hernia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition indicates the presence of abnormal tissue growth in the rectum?

<p>Rectal polyps (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which dietary factor poses a risk for colorectal cancer?

<p>High fat and protein diet (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common characteristic of a hydrocele?

<p>Enlarged scrotal sac (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which healthcare issue commonly affects transgender and gender-diverse individuals?

<p>Refusal of care due to gender identity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Valsalva maneuver evaluate during a physical examination?

<p>Abnormalities of the anal opening (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is considered a risk factor for prostate cancer?

<p>Age over 60 years (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which abnormality presents with intense pain and bleeding in the anal area?

<p>Anal fissure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common consequence of aging related to estrogen production in women?

<p>Vaginal dryness (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of cervical tissue may be examined during a gynecological assessment?

<p>Vaginal mucosa (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How often should a colonoscopy be performed for colorectal cancer screening?

<p>Every ten years (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the condition called where the urinary meatus is located underneath the glans?

<p>Hypospadias (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a critical component of gender-affirming care?

<p>Showing sensitivity and respect for the individual's identity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which infection is often associated with the condition of epididymitis?

<p>Chlamydia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is dyspareunia?

<p>Pain during intercourse (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom indicates a potential issue with the prostate?

<p>Blood in urine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one strategy to reduce the risk of cervical cancer?

<p>Receiving the HPV vaccine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is associated with benign prostate hyperplasia (BPH)?

<p>Sexual dysfunction (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT considered a red flag in subjective data for assessing IPV?

<p>Unexplained genital infections (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary role of a forensic nurse examiner in cases of IPV?

<p>Collect evidence and document findings (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following health conditions is NOT a result of long-term IPV abuse?

<p>Improved mental health (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an important step in safety planning for a victim of IPV?

<p>Creating a hidden code word with trusted individuals (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of chronically homeless individuals?

<p>Disabling conditions with prolonged homelessness (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is NOT typically associated with the causes of homelessness?

<p>High income levels (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the suggested approach when assessing a patient who is homeless?

<p>Focus on immediate problems rather than future needs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which behavior in a patient may indicate potential IPV when observed objectively?

<p>Nervousness around certain individuals (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an appropriate way for nurses to document findings related to suspected IPV?

<p>Providing detailed, accurate descriptions of physical assessments (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is commonly a misconception regarding victims of IPV when they seek medical help?

<p>They often report their abuse directly (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the APGAR score?

<p>To evaluate adaptation to life outside the womb (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which vaccination is recommended within the first hour of a newborn's life?

<p>Hepatitis B immunization (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what age should a baby be able to walk backwards according to developmental milestones?

<p>16 months (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is characterized by excessive gassiness and projectile vomiting in infants?

<p>Pyloric stenosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What developmental milestone occurs around 18 months?

<p>Baby feeds themselves (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which reflex disappears at three months of age?

<p>Moro reflex (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a score of 8 on the APGAR indicate?

<p>Good adaptation to life (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a recognized risk factor for Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)?

<p>Being placed on a soft surface (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the normal heart rate for infants measured for one minute?

<p>120 - 160 beats/min (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is indicated by a positive Ortolani's sign?

<p>Developmental Hip Dysplasia (DHD) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended care for a newborn's eyes immediately after birth?

<p>Antibiotic ointment (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic of infantile jaundice that occurs pathologically?

<p>Present within the first 24 hours of birth (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a developmental parameter area assessed by the Denver developmental screening tool?

<p>Sensory development (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of palliative care?

<p>Managing pain and ensuring comfort (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which vital signs are expected to show a gradual decrease as death approaches?

<p>Blood pressure, pulse, and pulse oxygen saturation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In assessing a dying patient, which of the following may be a non-verbal cue indicating distress?

<p>Restlessness and agitation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be the nursing priority when caring for a patient experiencing discomfort in the dying process?

<p>Ensuring the patient's comfort and pain management (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes Cheyne-Stokes breathing?

<p>Long pauses between breaths with varying depth (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is commonly associated with the late stages of dying?

<p>Decreased oxygen saturation levels (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be considered when caring for the family after a patient’s death?

<p>Support family preferences for religious or spiritual rituals (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does rigor mortis involve?

<p>Stiffening of the body post-death (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is important to remember when assessing for psychological or emotional violence?

<p>Always prioritize the safety of the patient (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the expected findings in a dying patient?

<p>Hypotension and compensatory tachycardia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which approach is recommended when interviewing homeless patients?

<p>Explain the purpose of questions clearly (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'Algor mortis' refer to?

<p>The cooling of the body after death (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following should be documented for a patient requiring end-of-life care?

<p>Family's assistance with bathing the body (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Phimosis

A condition where the foreskin of the penis cannot be retracted.

Paraphimosis

A condition where the foreskin of the penis is too tight to return to its normal position after retraction.

Hydrocele

Swelling of the scrotum due to fluid buildup.

Epididymitis

Inflammation of the epididymis, a tube that carries sperm.

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Cryptorchidism

A condition where one or both testicles fail to descend into the scrotum.

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Hypospadias

A birth defect where the opening of the urethra is located on the underside of the penis.

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Epispadias

A birth defect where the opening of the urethra is located on the top of the penis.

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Anal Fissure

A tear in the lining of the anus.

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Prostate Cancer

Cancer in the prostate gland.

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Testicular Cancer

Cancer in the testicle.

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Dysmenorrhea

Painful menstruation period.

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Menorrhagia

Heavier or prolonged menstrual bleeding.

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Amenorrhea

Absence of menstruation.

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Genital Warts

Warts on the genitals, STI caused by HPV.

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Hernias

Abnormal protrusion of an organ or tissue through a weak spot in a surrounding muscle or membrane.

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What is the most important risk factor for cervical cancer?

Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is the primary cause of cervical cancer.

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What is the key preventive measure for cervical cancer?

The HPV vaccine is the most effective way to prevent cervical cancer.

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What is the recommended age to start cervical cancer screening?

Pap smears are recommended to start at age 21 for cervical cancer screening.

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What are the risk factors for colorectal cancer?

Age over 50, African American or Eastern European descent, inflammatory bowel disease, family history of colorectal cancer, diet high in fat and low in fiber, smoking and alcohol use, and low physical activity are all risk factors.

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What are some preventative screenings for colorectal cancer?

Yearly fecal occult tests, sigmoidoscopy every 5 years, and colonoscopy every 10 years are recommended for colorectal cancer screening.

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What is gender-affirming care?

Gender-affirming care is a holistic approach to healthcare that respects and supports a person's gender identity.

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What are some health disparities faced by transgender individuals?

Transgender individuals often face discrimination, lack of access to healthcare, and higher rates of mental health conditions due to social stigma.

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What is a nurse's role in providing transgender care?

Nurses play a critical role in providing compassionate and culturally sensitive care to transgender individuals, ensuring they feel safe and supported.

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What is the impact of transgender discrimination on individuals?

Transgender individuals experience higher rates of poverty, suicide attempts, and harassment in various settings due to societal discrimination.

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What are signs of perimenopause?

Spotting, irregular menses, fatigue, trouble sleeping, hot flashes, night sweats, mood swings, decreased appetite, and vaginal dryness are all signs of perimenopause.

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What is a rectocele?

A rectocele is a bulging of the rectum into the vaginal canal.

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What is a cystocele?

A cystocele is a bulging of the bladder into the vaginal canal.

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What is a uterine prolapse?

A uterine prolapse is when the uterus descends into the vagina.

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What is vaginal dryness?

Vaginal dryness is a common symptom of menopause, caused by declining estrogen levels.

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What is binding and tucking in gender-affirming care?

Binding involves compressing the chest with a binder, while tucking involves concealing the genitals with a tuck.

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Gender-affirming care

Nursing care that is free from bias, especially regarding gender identity, and affirms the patient's self-identified gender.

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Transgender Male

A person whose gender identity is male, but who was assigned female sex at birth. They may prefer male or gender-neutral pronouns.

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Transgender Female

A person whose gender identity is female, but who was assigned male sex at birth. They may prefer female or gender-neutral pronouns.

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Gender Nonbinary

A person whose gender identity does not fit within the traditional categories of male or female. They may prefer gender-neutral pronouns.

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Gender Fluid

A person whose gender identity and pronoun preferences fluctuate over time.

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Gender Queer

A person whose gender identity may align with both male and female identities, or neither. They may identify as somewhere in between or outside these categories.

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Gender Nonconforming

A person who does not identify with any particular gender.

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Preterm Newborn

A baby born between 32 and 37 weeks of gestation.

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Term Newborn

A baby born between 37 and 41 weeks of gestation.

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Post-term Newborn

A baby born after week 42 of gestation.

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Tanner Stage 1

The first stage of sexual development characterized by the absence of pubic hair and no signs of puberty.

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Tanner Stage 5

The final stage of sexual development, indicating full pubic hair growth and adult-sized genitals.

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What is Kohlberg's Theory?

A theory explaining how children develop their understanding of right and wrong through different stages.

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Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt

Erikson's stage for toddlers, where they develop a sense of independence or feel shame and doubt about their abilities.

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Industry vs. Inferiority

Erikson's stage for school-aged children, focusing on building skills and confidence or feeling inferior.

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What is IPV?

Intimate Partner Violence refers to threatening behavior, violence, or abuse between individuals who are or have been in a close relationship.

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Types of IPV

IPV can manifest in various forms including physical assault, psychological abuse, economic control, and sexual violence.

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Psychopathology Theory of IPV

This theory suggests that childhood trauma can lead individuals to perpetuate the same abusive behaviors in their own relationships.

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Social Learning/ Family Systems Theory of IPV

This theory emphasizes that witnessing or experiencing violence in a family can lead to a normalized acceptance of violence, continuing the cycle.

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Why is IPV a Health Concern?

IPV has severe physical and mental health consequences for victims, including injuries, PTSD, and depression.

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What is APGAR used for?

The APGAR score is a quick assessment of a newborn's physical condition at 1 and 5 minutes after birth. It helps determine how well the baby is adapting to life outside the womb.

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What are the 4 developmental areas assessed by the Denver II?

The Denver II screening tool evaluates a child's development in four areas: Gross Motor, Fine Motor, Language, and Personal/Social. It helps identify potential delays.

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What is the purpose of the M-CHAT?

The Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT) is a screening tool used to identify potential autism spectrum disorder in children between 18 and 24 months.

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What are some developmental milestones at 2 months?

At 2 months, a baby can coo (make sounds like 'ooh' and 'ah'), hold their head up briefly, and follow moving objects with their eyes.

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What are some developmental milestones at 8 months?

At 8 months, a baby can sit up without support, crawl, and make sounds like 'mama' or 'dada'.

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What is the Moro reflex?

The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is a normal newborn reflex. It involves throwing the arms out and arching the back in response to a sudden noise or movement.

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What is the rooting reflex?

The rooting reflex helps a baby find food. When something touches their cheek, they turn their head in that direction and open their mouth.

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What is the stepping reflex?

The stepping reflex is present at birth and disappears around 2 months. It involves taking steps when held upright.

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What is the Babinski reflex?

The Babinski reflex is a normal newborn reflex that disappears around 2 years old. It involves the toes fanning out when the bottom of the foot is stroked.

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What is a normal heart rate for an infant?

A normal heart rate for an infant is between 120 and 160 beats per minute.

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What is a normal respiratory rate for a 1-year-old?

A normal respiratory rate for a 1-year-old is between 20 and 40 breaths per minute.

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What is considered a normal weight loss after birth?

A newborn can lose between 5% and 10% of their birth weight after birth, which is considered normal and temporary.

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What is caput succedaneum?

Caput succedaneum is a harmless swelling on the baby's head caused by pressure during birth.

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What is cephalohematoma?

Cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between the skull bone and the periosteum in a newborn.

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What are Mongolian spots?

Mongolian spots are blue, dark spots that often appear on the back and buttocks of newborns. They are harmless and usually fade over time.

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IPV Red Flags: Subjective Data

Information provided by the patient that suggests potential IPV, often inconsistent with physical findings or conflicting with caregiver accounts.

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IPV Red Flags: Objective Data

Observable physical signs and symptoms that indicate potential IPV, such as bruises, lacerations, or behavioral changes.

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Nurse's Role in Assessing IPV

Creating a safe environment, using screening tools, asking open questions, reporting suspected abuse, documenting findings, connecting patients with resources, and advocating for their safety.

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Mandated Reporter

A professional legally obligated to report suspected child abuse or neglect, and in some cases, abuse of vulnerable adults.

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Forensic Nurse Examiner

A specialized nurse trained to conduct comprehensive assessments, collect evidence, provide care, and advocate for victims of sexual assault and other crimes.

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Safety Planning

Strategies to help victims of IPV create a safe plan to leave their abuser, including gathering essential items, identifying a safe place, and developing warning signals.

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Chronically Homeless

An individual who has experienced homelessness for at least a year or has had four episodes of homelessness within a three-year period.

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Intermittently Homeless

Someone who experiences short, repeated periods of homelessness, often due to temporary setbacks.

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In-Crisis Homelessness

Homelessness triggered by a major event like a natural disaster, health crisis, or economic hardship.

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Assessing Homeless Patients

Approaching homeless patients with empathy, sensitivity, and understanding their unique needs and circumstances.

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Palliative Care Focus

Palliative care focuses on providing comfort and symptom management for the patient and their family, not just on curing the illness.

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Single Point of Contact

In palliative care, it's important to identify one person in the family who will be the primary contact for receiving information from the healthcare team.

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Pain Management in Palliative Care

The primary focus of pain management in palliative care is not to eliminate pain but to ensure the patient's comfort.

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Decreasing Vital Signs

As a patient approaches death, their blood pressure, pulse, and oxygen saturation will gradually decrease.

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Skin Assessment in Dying

Expect cool, mottled skin in the extremities of a dying patient, a sign that circulation is decreasing.

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Dry Mouth Care

Provide oral care to keep the patient's mouth moist, as dry mouth is common in the dying process.

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Cheyne-Stokes Breathing

A pattern of breathing characterized by periods of rapid breaths followed by pauses is called Cheyne-Stokes breathing.

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Agonal Respirations

Agonal respirations are irregular, gasping breaths that occur shortly before death.

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Death Rattle

Death rattle is a rattling sound produced by mucus in the airway of a dying person.

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Reduced Appetite and Fluids

As a dying patient's body systems shut down, they may not be able to tolerate food or fluids, so avoid forcing them.

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Muscle Weakness and Atrophy

Muscle weakness and atrophy are expected findings in a dying patient due to the body's declining function.

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Neurological Changes in Dying

A dying patient may experience decreased consciousness, delirium, and confusion, sometimes with a brief improvement.

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Hypotension and Tachycardia

In the early stages of dying, the patient may experience hypotension (low blood pressure) and tachycardia (fast heart rate) as the body tries to compensate.

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Late Stage Dying Signs

Late stage signs of dying include agonal respirations, mottled skin, decreased oxygen saturation, and continued decrease in blood pressure and pulse.

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Care of Deceased Patient

Following death, it's important to follow cultural and religious practices, manage belongings, and handle the body with respect.

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What is a major concern for a homeless person's skin?

Homeless individuals are at risk for skin problems due to exposure to harsh weather conditions, crowded living spaces, and lack of access to hygiene resources, leading to conditions like lesions, scabies, lice, bed bugs, and poor wound healing.

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How can poor dental hygiene affect homeless individuals?

Poor dental hygiene can significantly impact a homeless person's ability to eat comfortably and maintain proper nutrition. It can also contribute to chronic health problems and lead to further complications.

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Why are homeless people more susceptible to respiratory infections?

Homelessness exposes individuals to crowded shelters, lack of hygiene resources, and poor living conditions, leading to a higher risk of contracting upper respiratory infections (URIs) and even tuberculosis (TB).

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How can homelessness impact cardiovascular health?

Chronic stress from homelessness can lead to increased blood pressure (HTN) and cardiovascular problems due to constant fight-or-flight response. Lack of access to nutritious food and medications also contributes to these risks.

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Why are homeless people more likely to have GI issues?

Limited access to nutritious food can lead to nutritional deficiencies. Alcohol and drug use is common among homeless individuals, which further contributes to GI complications like cirrhosis and pancreatitis.

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Why is homelessness associated with a higher risk of STIs?

Homeless individuals often lack access to safe and stable housing, which can lead to increased vulnerability to sexual assault and a higher risk of contracting STIs.

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What are some key aspects of a psychosocial assessment for a homeless patient?

A psychosocial assessment focuses on understanding the patient's health patterns, daily routines, social support, access to resources, living conditions, self-concept, cultural influences, and overall well-being to provide tailored care and help them access needed resources.

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What is essential for a realistic treatment plan for a homeless patient?

It's crucial to consider the homeless patient's lifestyle and access to resources when developing a treatment plan. Providing medications that are challenging to obtain or maintain, like blood pressure medication, might not be effective in the long run.

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What are some key health promotion strategies for homeless people?

These include annual TB screening, Pap smears and STI testing, vaccinations (influenza, pneumonia, hepatitis), and contraception to address communicable diseases and prevent further health issues.

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What are the stages of grief according to the Kubler-Ross model?

These stages include denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. It's important to note that these stages are not linear; people experience grief in different ways and may cycle through these stages.

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Study Notes

Assessing the Penis, Rectum, Prostate

  • Internal Genitalia: Includes the penis, scrotum, testes, and spermatic cord. The inguinal area is a common location for hernias.
  • Male Chief Concerns: Pain, hematuria (blood in urine), voiding symptoms (difficulty urinating, increased/decreased frequency), and erectile dysfunction are common complaints.
  • Penis Abnormalities: Ulcers (chancres – syphilis sores), genital warts (caused by HPV), phimosis (tight foreskin), paraphimosis (foreskin trapped), hypospadias (urethral opening under the glans), epispadias (urethral opening on the dorsal surface), and cryptorchidism (undescended testicle) are potential abnormalities.
  • Scrotum Abnormalities: Swelling (hydrocele, hematocele, scrotal hernia), epididymitis (inflammation), and varicocele (enlarged veins) can affect the scrotum.
  • Anal/Rectal Abnormalities: Anal fissures (tears), rectal prolapse, anorectal fistulas (openings), pilonidal cysts, and rectal polyps are potential issues in the anal region.
  • Prostate Abnormalities: Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and prostate cancer are relevant concerns.
  • Cancer Screenings & Prevention (Prostate): Prostate cancer risk factors include age over 60, African American ancestry, family history, and certain occupations. Protective factors include a lower BMI and increased physical activity and high ejaculation frequency. Symptoms include difficulty urinating, decreased urine force, hematuria, blood in semen, leg swelling, and pelvic discomfort.
  • Testicular Cancer: Monthly testicular self-exams are crucial. Early detection is vital.
  • Objective Assessment: Focuses on size, shape, position, and skin characteristics. Palpation for abnormalities, retracting the foreskin, and inspecting for lesions are critical to identify issues.

Assessing the Vagina

  • Internal Genitalia: Includes the vagina, cervix, uterus (fundus, body), fallopian tubes, ovaries, urethra, bladder, and ureters.
  • Menstrual Irregularities: Dysmenorrhea (painful periods), menorrhagia (heavy bleeding), metrorrhagia (bleeding between periods), and premenstrual syndrome (PMS) are common concerns. Toxic shock syndrome (TTS) can be a serious complication.
  • Subjective Assessment: Menstrual irregularities, vaginal discharge/odor, vaginal lesions, bleeding with sex, pain/itching/lumps/swelling, and OBGYN history are assessed.
  • Sexual Dysfunction Symptoms: Decreased interest, lack of physiological response to desire, dyspareunia (pain during sex), and vaginismus (involuntary muscle spasms) are important symptoms to address.
  • Objective Assessment: Inspection of external genitalia (labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, vaginal opening, hymen) and palpation for abnormalities. To assess the anal opening, Valsalva's maneuver (bearing down) is requested.
  • Cancer Screenings & Prevention (Cervical): HPV infection, smoking, multiple sexual partners, history of STIs, and age are risk factors for cervical cancer. Prevention includes HPV vaccination. Screening through Pap smears is recommended.
  • Cancer Screenings & Prevention (Colorectal): Risk factors include age over 50, certain ethnicities, inflammatory bowel disease, family history and diet high in fat and low in fibre. Preventative screenings such as yearly fecal occult tests, sigmoidoscopy, and colonoscopy are recommended.
  • Common Changes with Aging (Women): Menopause symptoms such as vaginal dryness, irregular menses, and urinary issues are normal.

Assessing Newborns and Infants

  • Developmental Stages: Preterm (32-37 weeks), term (37-41 weeks), and post-term (after 42 weeks) are distinguished. Newborn (0-28 days) and infant (28 days-12 months) age ranges are identified.
  • Subjective Assessment: Prenatal history, labor and delivery details, home environment, breastfeeding challenges, and feeding patterns including Is/ Os (input/ output) are assessed. Stool abnormalities and crying patterns are also evaluated.
  • Care of Infant After Birth: Establishing breastfeeding, skin-to-skin contact, vital signs, eye prophylaxis, vitamin K injection, immunization, and metabolic screening are essential steps.
  • Development: APGAR score (assessing adaptation to life outside the womb) and Denver developmental screening tool (measuring developmental progress) are implemented.
  • Milestones: Specific language and motor developmental milestones are defined for different ages.
  • Reflexes: Age-appropriate reflexes assess motor development; they gradually disappear during the first two years.
  • Objective Assessment: Monitoring vital signs (heart rate, respiratory rate), measurements (length, weight, head circumference), head symmetry, fontanels, and musculoskeletal development (assessing for hip dysplasia) are included in the objective part of newborn and infant assessment.
  • Birth Variants: Types of birthmarks (caput succedaneum, cephalohematoma, lanugo, vernix, strawberry hemangioma, congenital dermal melanocytosis) are described, and concerns like jaundice and milia are also covered.
  • SIDS: Risk factors and prevention strategies for Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) are discussed.

Assessing Children and Adolescents

  • Subjective Assessment: Confidentiality and rapport-building are crucial. Sexual activity, mental health, and a comprehensive review of systems are included.
  • Objective Assessment: Vital signs usually aligning with adult ranges. Focus on ears (otitis media, hearing loss), teeth (decay), skin (acne), cardiovascular (murmurs), respiratory (hyperresonance), musculoskeletal (anomalies), and neurological (reflexes), and psychosocial development are examined.
  • Tanner Staging: Assessing sexual maturity during puberty.
  • Growth and Development Theories: Kohlberg's theory of moral development, Erikson's psychosocial stages, and Freud's stages influence the process.
  • Additional Considerations: Developmental screening tools and appropriate interview techniques for different age groups are integral.

Assessing for Violence and IPV

  • IPV (Intimate Partner Violence): Defining IPV as threatening behaviors, violence, or abuse within intimate relationships or family members. Types of violence include physical, psychological/emotional, economic, and sexual.
  • Theories: Exploring psychopathology, social learning/family systems, and biological factors as potential influences on IPV.
  • Statistics: Highlighting the prevalence and incidence of physical, sexual violence, stalking, and homicide related to IPV.
  • Subjective/Objective Data Red Flags: Identifying potential indicators in both subjective (history) and objective (physical exam) data, including inconsistencies, frequent medical visits, physical injuries, and emotional distress. Possible symptoms include bruises, unexplained STIs, emotional distress, and changes in behavior.
  • Health Conditions from Abuse: Emphasizing long-term health effects, including stomach/abdominal pain, GI abnormalities, musculoskeletal pain, gynecological changes, and mental health issues, such as depression, anxiety, and PTSD.
  • Nurse's Role: The nurse's role is to create a safe environment for assessment, use screening tools, ask open questions, document findings accurately, connect patients with resources, and potentially involving forensic nurse examiners if the abuse is suspected.
  • Safety Planning: Emphasizing the importance of developing safety plans to ensure the patient's safety and well-being.

Assessing the Homeless/Unhoused Patient

  • Homelessness Categories: Differentiating between chronically, intermittently, and in-crisis homelessness, and considering unaccompanied youth as a specific subgroup.
  • Causes: Addressing personal vulnerabilities (mental health, substance abuse), systemic factors (poverty, lack of affordable housing), and contributing events.
  • Assessment Approach: Prioritize a non-judgmental and empathetic approach, focusing on immediate concerns and basic needs, scheduling appointments flexibly, and clearly explaining the purpose of collecting information.
  • Subjective History: Collecting biographical information, exploring their current living situation, previous medical history, family details, and psychosocial and environmental factors.
  • Physical Exam: A structured examination, starting with the feet (due to their high exposure), proceeding to the skin, head, ears, eyes, respiratory system, heart, stomach, and other systems.
  • Disparities: Highlighting the increased risk of acute and chronic illnesses due to lack of access to resources and support.
  • Psychosocial Assessment: Understanding typical daily routines, access to resources, and personal experiences to guide the care plan.
  • Health Promotion and Disease Prevention: Discussing critical elements such as PPD testing, STI screening, vaccinations, and contraception.

Assessing the Dying Patient

  • Grief Stages: Recognising that the stages of grief described by Kubler-Ross are not necessarily linear.
  • Subjective History: Gathering biographical information, including advanced directives, marital status, and power of attorney. Evaluating current health status, length of illness, medications, and allergies.
  • Physical Exam: Anticipating and accepting expected declines in vital signs, noting skin changes, and observing respiratory patterns (Cheyne-Stokes, agonal respirations). Addressing common symptoms such as dry mouth, incontinence, dysphagia, and pain.
  • Expected Findings (Early/Late): Describing changes in vital signs, skin, respiratory patterns, level of consciousness, and other physical signs as the dying process progresses.
  • Care of Deceased Patient: Addressing family preferences, religious/spiritual needs, organ donation, infection control, and legal requirements related to the body's disposal.
  • After Care of Family: Ensuring the family's needs are addressed emotionally, practically, and by providing information on death certificate procedures and bereavement support.

Practice Questions

  • Testicular Self-Exams: Performed monthly.
  • Prostate Cancer Symptoms: Blood in urine or semen, decreased urine force.
  • Cervical Cancer Protection: HPV vaccine.
  • Cervical Cancer Screening: Pap smear.
  • Blood in Stool/Rectal Veins: Hemorrhoids.
  • APGAR Score: Heart Rate, Respirations, Muscle Tone, Reflex Irritability, and Color.
  • Babinski Reflex: Toes fanning upward.
  • Newborn Skin Hair: Lanugo.
  • Developmental Screening: Gross and fine motor skills, language, and personal/social development are assessed.
  • Interviewing Adolescents: Utilizing direct communication and open-ended questions is ideal.
  • IPV Indicators: Partner criticisms or criticisms from loved ones are considered examples of emotional/ psychological violence.
  • Homelessness Types: Intermittent homelessness involves multiple, short episodes of homelessness.
  • Homeless Patient Assessment: Crucial to be non-judgmental, explain the reason for questions, and focus on immediate concerns.

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