Podcast
Questions and Answers
Which antibiotic has a warning for hepatotoxicity and QT prolongation?
Which antibiotic has a warning for hepatotoxicity and QT prolongation?
- Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
- Azithromycin
- Erythromycin
- Clarithromycin (correct)
For which antibiotic is dose adjustment recommended for CrCl <30?
For which antibiotic is dose adjustment recommended for CrCl <30?
- Clarithromycin (correct)
- Azithromycin
- Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
- Erythromycin
Which antibiotic is a major CYP3A4 inhibitor and should be used with caution in patients with CAD?
Which antibiotic is a major CYP3A4 inhibitor and should be used with caution in patients with CAD?
- Azithromycin
- Clarithromycin (correct)
- Erythromycin
- Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
Which antibiotic is not used for pneumonia and has warnings for eosinophilic pneumonia?
Which antibiotic is not used for pneumonia and has warnings for eosinophilic pneumonia?
Which antibiotic is contraindicated in pregnancy, breastfeeding, and sulfa allergy?
Which antibiotic is contraindicated in pregnancy, breastfeeding, and sulfa allergy?
Which antibiotic should not be refrigerated after reconstitution of the oral suspension?
Which antibiotic should not be refrigerated after reconstitution of the oral suspension?
Which opioid medication requires lower dose/avoidance in renal impairment?
Which opioid medication requires lower dose/avoidance in renal impairment?
Which opioid medication is indicated for cancer breakthrough pain and has a REMS requirement?
Which opioid medication is indicated for cancer breakthrough pain and has a REMS requirement?
Which opioid medication has a BBW for respiratory depression/death in certain populations?
Which opioid medication has a BBW for respiratory depression/death in certain populations?
Which opioid medication is specifically warned to be used in opioid-tolerant patients only?
Which opioid medication is specifically warned to be used in opioid-tolerant patients only?
Which opioid antagonist medication is used for opioid overdose?
Which opioid antagonist medication is used for opioid overdose?
Which tuberculosis (TB) medication has a BBW for severe/fatal hepatitis and requires supplemental pyridoxine/B6 to prevent peripheral neuropathy?
Which tuberculosis (TB) medication has a BBW for severe/fatal hepatitis and requires supplemental pyridoxine/B6 to prevent peripheral neuropathy?
Which medication is preferred if a patient has chronic kidney disease and nephropathy?
Which medication is preferred if a patient has chronic kidney disease and nephropathy?
Which medication is a major 3A4 substrate and should be limited to a maximum of 20mg when used with simvastatin?
Which medication is a major 3A4 substrate and should be limited to a maximum of 20mg when used with simvastatin?
Which medication is contraindicated in congestive heart failure (CHF) and should not be given with beta-blockers if the patient has had an acute myocardial infarction (MI)?
Which medication is contraindicated in congestive heart failure (CHF) and should not be given with beta-blockers if the patient has had an acute myocardial infarction (MI)?
Which medication is indicated for resistant hypertension and can also be used for opioid withdrawal, anxiety, and sleep issues (off-label)?
Which medication is indicated for resistant hypertension and can also be used for opioid withdrawal, anxiety, and sleep issues (off-label)?
Which medication is preferred in pregnancy and must be tapered off to reduce the risk of rebound hypertension, nervousness, and anxiety?
Which medication is preferred in pregnancy and must be tapered off to reduce the risk of rebound hypertension, nervousness, and anxiety?
Which diuretic is considered better at reducing blood pressure than loop diuretics and is a first-line agent?
Which diuretic is considered better at reducing blood pressure than loop diuretics and is a first-line agent?
Which medication is used to treat MRSA, VRE (E. faecium and E. faecalis), and covers both types of VRE?
Which medication is used to treat MRSA, VRE (E. faecium and E. faecalis), and covers both types of VRE?
Which medication is a strong inhibitor of CYP3A4, 2C9, and 2C19, and is used to treat fungal meningitis?
Which medication is a strong inhibitor of CYP3A4, 2C9, and 2C19, and is used to treat fungal meningitis?
Which medication is used to replenish iron stores and carries warnings for serious/fatal anaphylactic reactions?
Which medication is used to replenish iron stores and carries warnings for serious/fatal anaphylactic reactions?
Which medication is no longer recommended as an analgesic due to its short duration of action and carries warnings for serotonergic effects, including seizures?
Which medication is no longer recommended as an analgesic due to its short duration of action and carries warnings for serotonergic effects, including seizures?
Which medication is used to stimulate WBC production and reduce the risk of infection and mortality from infection in neutropenic patients?
Which medication is used to stimulate WBC production and reduce the risk of infection and mortality from infection in neutropenic patients?
Which medication is used to treat invasive infections, including cryptococcal meningitis and histoplasmosis?
Which medication is used to treat invasive infections, including cryptococcal meningitis and histoplasmosis?
Which medication is used for Hepatitis C treatment in combination with PEG-IFN/RBV or sofosbuvir, requiring intake with food and having side effects such as anemia and photosensitivity?
Which medication is used for Hepatitis C treatment in combination with PEG-IFN/RBV or sofosbuvir, requiring intake with food and having side effects such as anemia and photosensitivity?
Which medication is a prodrug of acyclovir, used for treating Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) and Shingles, with warnings for renal toxicity and risk of retinal detachment?
Which medication is a prodrug of acyclovir, used for treating Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) and Shingles, with warnings for renal toxicity and risk of retinal detachment?
Which medication is prescribed for initial tremor in Parkinson's disease, with warnings for potential side effects such as dizziness, orthostasis, and possible psychosis and livedo reticularis?
Which medication is prescribed for initial tremor in Parkinson's disease, with warnings for potential side effects such as dizziness, orthostasis, and possible psychosis and livedo reticularis?
Which medication is used for Influenza treatment and prevention, and is preferred in pregnancy with warnings for neuropsychiatric events and SJS (Stevens-Johnson Syndrome)?
Which medication is used for Influenza treatment and prevention, and is preferred in pregnancy with warnings for neuropsychiatric events and SJS (Stevens-Johnson Syndrome)?
Which medication is used for cystic fibrosis and requires inhalation administration, with dosages varying depending on patient needs?
Which medication is used for cystic fibrosis and requires inhalation administration, with dosages varying depending on patient needs?
Which medication is a nonselective beta blocker used for treating various conditions, including glaucoma, asthma/COPD, and bradycardia, with side effects such as dyslipidemia, weight gain, fluid retention, and fatigue?
Which medication is a nonselective beta blocker used for treating various conditions, including glaucoma, asthma/COPD, and bradycardia, with side effects such as dyslipidemia, weight gain, fluid retention, and fatigue?
Which diuretic is the diuretic of choice for renal disease?
Which diuretic is the diuretic of choice for renal disease?
Which diuretic is contraindicated in sulfa allergy and is the only loop diuretic that is okay in sulfa allergy?
Which diuretic is contraindicated in sulfa allergy and is the only loop diuretic that is okay in sulfa allergy?
Which diuretic is also known as Lasix?
Which diuretic is also known as Lasix?
Which K+-sparing diuretic is indicated for HF and HTN, and has a side effect of gynecomastia?
Which K+-sparing diuretic is indicated for HF and HTN, and has a side effect of gynecomastia?
Which ACE inhibitor has a side effect of dry cough?
Which ACE inhibitor has a side effect of dry cough?
Which statin should be taken with food?
Which statin should be taken with food?
Which ACE inhibitor should be avoided in bilateral renal artery stenosis?
Which ACE inhibitor should be avoided in bilateral renal artery stenosis?
Which diuretic is known for its IV ototoxicity and should be avoided with aminoglycosides?
Which diuretic is known for its IV ototoxicity and should be avoided with aminoglycosides?
Which statin has a dosage range of 10-80mg po qd and a caution of rhabdomyolysis and myopathy?
Which statin has a dosage range of 10-80mg po qd and a caution of rhabdomyolysis and myopathy?
Which opioid medication carries a Black Box Warning for respiratory depression and death, including in children who received it after tonsillectomy or adenoidectomy, and in nursing infants of ultra-rapid metabolizer mothers?
Which opioid medication carries a Black Box Warning for respiratory depression and death, including in children who received it after tonsillectomy or adenoidectomy, and in nursing infants of ultra-rapid metabolizer mothers?
Which opioid medication is a mixed opioid agonist/antagonist, indicated for pain in labor/anesthesia, and has a maximum recommended daily dose of 160mg?
Which opioid medication is a mixed opioid agonist/antagonist, indicated for pain in labor/anesthesia, and has a maximum recommended daily dose of 160mg?
Which opioid medication is indicated for cancer breakthrough pain and requires documentation of opioid tolerance with each prescription due to a REMS requirement?
Which opioid medication is indicated for cancer breakthrough pain and requires documentation of opioid tolerance with each prescription due to a REMS requirement?
Which opioid medication is a CII opioid and NE reuptake inhibitor, indicated for moderate to severe acute pain, and carries a Black Box Warning for seizure and serotonin syndrome risks?
Which opioid medication is a CII opioid and NE reuptake inhibitor, indicated for moderate to severe acute pain, and carries a Black Box Warning for seizure and serotonin syndrome risks?
Which opioid medication is a major 3A4 substrate and can cause fatal overdose when starting 3A4 inhibitors or stopping inducers as per the Black Box Warning?
Which opioid medication is a major 3A4 substrate and can cause fatal overdose when starting 3A4 inhibitors or stopping inducers as per the Black Box Warning?
Which opioid medication has the risk of medication errors with high potency injection, and is recommended for use in opioid-tolerant patients only due to the Black Box Warning?
Which opioid medication has the risk of medication errors with high potency injection, and is recommended for use in opioid-tolerant patients only due to the Black Box Warning?
Which medication should not be given in congestive heart failure (CHF) and should not be administered with beta-blockers if the patient has had an acute myocardial infarction (MI)?
Which medication should not be given in congestive heart failure (CHF) and should not be administered with beta-blockers if the patient has had an acute myocardial infarction (MI)?
Which diuretic is contraindicated in sulfa allergy and is the only loop diuretic that is okay in sulfa allergy?
Which diuretic is contraindicated in sulfa allergy and is the only loop diuretic that is okay in sulfa allergy?
Which medication is used for Hepatitis C treatment in combination with PEG-IFN/RBV or sofosbuvir, requiring intake with food and having side effects such as anemia and photosensitivity?
Which medication is used for Hepatitis C treatment in combination with PEG-IFN/RBV or sofosbuvir, requiring intake with food and having side effects such as anemia and photosensitivity?
Which medication is preferred if a patient has chronic kidney disease and nephropathy?
Which medication is preferred if a patient has chronic kidney disease and nephropathy?
Which medication is a nonselective beta blocker used for treating various conditions, including glaucoma, asthma/COPD, and bradycardia, with side effects such as dyslipidemia, weight gain, fluid retention, and fatigue?
Which medication is a nonselective beta blocker used for treating various conditions, including glaucoma, asthma/COPD, and bradycardia, with side effects such as dyslipidemia, weight gain, fluid retention, and fatigue?
Which medication is known for its IV ototoxicity and should be avoided with aminoglycosides?
Which medication is known for its IV ototoxicity and should be avoided with aminoglycosides?
Which macrolide antibiotic has a warning for hepatotoxicity and QT prolongation, and does not require renal dose adjustment?
Which macrolide antibiotic has a warning for hepatotoxicity and QT prolongation, and does not require renal dose adjustment?
Which macrolide antibiotic is a major CYP3A4 inhibitor and requires dose adjustment for CrCl <30?
Which macrolide antibiotic is a major CYP3A4 inhibitor and requires dose adjustment for CrCl <30?
Which macrolide antibiotic is associated with refrigeration of reconstituted oral suspension and no renal dose adjustment?
Which macrolide antibiotic is associated with refrigeration of reconstituted oral suspension and no renal dose adjustment?
Which antibiotic should be avoided in patients with sulfonamide allergy, pregnancy/breastfeeding, folate deficiency anemia, and severe renal impairment/high hepatic impairment?
Which antibiotic should be avoided in patients with sulfonamide allergy, pregnancy/breastfeeding, folate deficiency anemia, and severe renal impairment/high hepatic impairment?
Which antibiotic is not used for pneumonia and has warnings for eosinophilic pneumonia?
Which antibiotic is not used for pneumonia and has warnings for eosinophilic pneumonia?
Which antibiotic is associated with warnings for eosinophilic pneumonia and should not be used for pneumonia?
Which antibiotic is associated with warnings for eosinophilic pneumonia and should not be used for pneumonia?
Which medication is used for treating Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) and Shingles, and can be taken orally or topically?
Which medication is used for treating Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) and Shingles, and can be taken orally or topically?
Which medication is a prodrug of acyclovir, used for treating Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) and Shingles, with warnings for renal toxicity and risk of retinal detachment?
Which medication is a prodrug of acyclovir, used for treating Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) and Shingles, with warnings for renal toxicity and risk of retinal detachment?
Which medication is prescribed for initial tremor in Parkinson's disease, with a dosage of 100mg bid or tid, and warnings for potential side effects such as dizziness, orthostasis, and possible psychosis?
Which medication is prescribed for initial tremor in Parkinson's disease, with a dosage of 100mg bid or tid, and warnings for potential side effects such as dizziness, orthostasis, and possible psychosis?
Which medication is used for Influenza treatment and prevention, and is preferred in pregnancy, with warnings for neuropsychiatric events and SJS (Stevens-Johnson Syndrome)?
Which medication is used for Influenza treatment and prevention, and is preferred in pregnancy, with warnings for neuropsychiatric events and SJS (Stevens-Johnson Syndrome)?
Which medication is a cardioselective beta blocker with indications for hypertension and heart failure, with warnings for the potential for acute tachycardia, hypertension, and ischemia if stopped abruptly?
Which medication is a cardioselective beta blocker with indications for hypertension and heart failure, with warnings for the potential for acute tachycardia, hypertension, and ischemia if stopped abruptly?
Which medication is used for stable ischemic heart disease and inhibits late Na current and intracellular Ca, with cautions including cirrhosis, strong 3A4 inhibitors, and cardiac ischemia?
Which medication is used for stable ischemic heart disease and inhibits late Na current and intracellular Ca, with cautions including cirrhosis, strong 3A4 inhibitors, and cardiac ischemia?
Which antibiotic carries warnings for photosensitivity and drug-induced lupus, as well as for use in children under 8 years of age and pregnant/breastfeeding women?
Which antibiotic carries warnings for photosensitivity and drug-induced lupus, as well as for use in children under 8 years of age and pregnant/breastfeeding women?
Which antifungal medication is a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor and substrate, used to treat aspergillus infections and carries warnings for hepatotoxicity, optic neuritis, phototoxicity, avoidance in pregnancy, and QT prolongation?
Which antifungal medication is a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor and substrate, used to treat aspergillus infections and carries warnings for hepatotoxicity, optic neuritis, phototoxicity, avoidance in pregnancy, and QT prolongation?
Which medication is used for pain relief and carries warnings for CNS toxicity, especially in renal impairment, and is available in various formulations including capsules, tablets, and injectable solutions?
Which medication is used for pain relief and carries warnings for CNS toxicity, especially in renal impairment, and is available in various formulations including capsules, tablets, and injectable solutions?
Which medication is given by slow IV infusion to replenish iron stores and carries warnings for serious/fatal anaphylactic reactions?
Which medication is given by slow IV infusion to replenish iron stores and carries warnings for serious/fatal anaphylactic reactions?
Which antibiotic is not used for pneumonia and has warnings for eosinophilic pneumonia?
Which antibiotic is not used for pneumonia and has warnings for eosinophilic pneumonia?
Which medication is indicated for cancer breakthrough pain and has a REMS requirement?
Which medication is indicated for cancer breakthrough pain and has a REMS requirement?
Which diuretic is known for its IV ototoxicity and should be avoided with aminoglycosides?
Which diuretic is known for its IV ototoxicity and should be avoided with aminoglycosides?
Which ACE inhibitor should be avoided in bilateral renal artery stenosis?
Which ACE inhibitor should be avoided in bilateral renal artery stenosis?
Which statin should be taken with food?
Which statin should be taken with food?
Which medication is used to treat MRSA, VRE (E. faecium and E. faecalis), and covers both types of VRE?
Which medication is used to treat MRSA, VRE (E. faecium and E. faecalis), and covers both types of VRE?
Which diuretic is considered better at reducing blood pressure than loop diuretics and is a first-line agent?
Which diuretic is considered better at reducing blood pressure than loop diuretics and is a first-line agent?
Which opioid medication is a CII opioid and NE reuptake inhibitor, indicated for moderate to severe acute pain, and carries a Black Box Warning for seizure and serotonin syndrome risks?
Which opioid medication is a CII opioid and NE reuptake inhibitor, indicated for moderate to severe acute pain, and carries a Black Box Warning for seizure and serotonin syndrome risks?
Which medication is used to stimulate WBC production and reduce the risk of infection and mortality from infection in neutropenic patients?
Which medication is used to stimulate WBC production and reduce the risk of infection and mortality from infection in neutropenic patients?
Which antibiotic is a major CYP3A4 inhibitor and should be used with caution in patients with CAD?
Which antibiotic is a major CYP3A4 inhibitor and should be used with caution in patients with CAD?
Which medication is no longer recommended as an analgesic due to its short duration of action and carries warnings for serotonergic effects, including seizures?
Which medication is no longer recommended as an analgesic due to its short duration of action and carries warnings for serotonergic effects, including seizures?
Which antibiotic is not used for pneumonia and has warnings for eosinophilic pneumonia?
Which antibiotic is not used for pneumonia and has warnings for eosinophilic pneumonia?
Which macrolide antibiotic requires refrigeration of reconstituted oral suspension and does not require renal dose adjustment?
Which macrolide antibiotic requires refrigeration of reconstituted oral suspension and does not require renal dose adjustment?
Which antibiotic is a major CYP3A4 inhibitor and should be used with caution in patients with CAD?
Which antibiotic is a major CYP3A4 inhibitor and should be used with caution in patients with CAD?
Which antibiotic has warnings for eosinophilic pneumonia and is not used for pneumonia treatment?
Which antibiotic has warnings for eosinophilic pneumonia and is not used for pneumonia treatment?
Which antibiotic carries warnings for G6PD deficiency, blood dyscrasias, SJS/TEN, and TTP, and is a mod-strong CYP2C8 and 2C9 inhibitor?
Which antibiotic carries warnings for G6PD deficiency, blood dyscrasias, SJS/TEN, and TTP, and is a mod-strong CYP2C8 and 2C9 inhibitor?
Which antibiotic is contraindicated in pregnancy, breastfeeding, and sulfa allergy?
Which antibiotic is contraindicated in pregnancy, breastfeeding, and sulfa allergy?
Which antibiotic has the potential side effect of eosinophilic pneumonia and is not used for pneumonia?
Which antibiotic has the potential side effect of eosinophilic pneumonia and is not used for pneumonia?
Which opioid medication carries a Black Box Warning for QT prolongation, is a major 3A4 substrate, and can cause fatal overdose when starting 3A4 inhibitors or stopping inducers?
Which opioid medication carries a Black Box Warning for QT prolongation, is a major 3A4 substrate, and can cause fatal overdose when starting 3A4 inhibitors or stopping inducers?
Which opioid medication is specifically warned to be used in opioid-tolerant patients only and has a Black Box Warning for respiratory depression and death, including in children who received it after tonsillectomy or adenoidectomy, and in nursing infants of ultra-rapid metabolizer mothers?
Which opioid medication is specifically warned to be used in opioid-tolerant patients only and has a Black Box Warning for respiratory depression and death, including in children who received it after tonsillectomy or adenoidectomy, and in nursing infants of ultra-rapid metabolizer mothers?
Which opioid medication is a CII opioid and NE reuptake inhibitor, indicated for moderate to severe acute pain, and carries a Black Box Warning for seizure and serotonin syndrome risks?
Which opioid medication is a CII opioid and NE reuptake inhibitor, indicated for moderate to severe acute pain, and carries a Black Box Warning for seizure and serotonin syndrome risks?
Which opioid medication has a BBW for risk of med errors with high potency (HP) injection, and is suggested to be used in opioid-tolerant patients only?
Which opioid medication has a BBW for risk of med errors with high potency (HP) injection, and is suggested to be used in opioid-tolerant patients only?
Which medication is only indicated for cancer breakthrough pain, has a REMS requirement, and carries a Black Box Warning for respiratory depression and death?
Which medication is only indicated for cancer breakthrough pain, has a REMS requirement, and carries a Black Box Warning for respiratory depression and death?
Which medication is a mixed opioid agonist/antagonist, not a controlled substance, indicated for pain in labor/anesthesia, and has a maximum recommended daily dose of 160mg?
Which medication is a mixed opioid agonist/antagonist, not a controlled substance, indicated for pain in labor/anesthesia, and has a maximum recommended daily dose of 160mg?
Which antibiotic carries warnings for hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis, photosensitivity, and use in children under 8 years of age?
Which antibiotic carries warnings for hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis, photosensitivity, and use in children under 8 years of age?
Which medication is used to treat aspergillus infections and carries warnings for hepatotoxicity, optic neuritis, phototoxicity, avoidance in pregnancy, and QT prolongation?
Which medication is used to treat aspergillus infections and carries warnings for hepatotoxicity, optic neuritis, phototoxicity, avoidance in pregnancy, and QT prolongation?
Which medication is prescribed to replenish iron stores and carries warnings for serious/fatal anaphylactic reactions?
Which medication is prescribed to replenish iron stores and carries warnings for serious/fatal anaphylactic reactions?
Which opioid medication is used for pain relief and carries warnings for CNS toxicity, including seizures, especially in renal impairment?
Which opioid medication is used for pain relief and carries warnings for CNS toxicity, including seizures, especially in renal impairment?
Which medication is used to stimulate WBC production and reduce the risk of infection and mortality from infection in neutropenic patients?
Which medication is used to stimulate WBC production and reduce the risk of infection and mortality from infection in neutropenic patients?
Which medication is used to treat invasive infections, including cryptococcal meningitis and histoplasmosis?
Which medication is used to treat invasive infections, including cryptococcal meningitis and histoplasmosis?
Which medication is a non-DHP (more cardioselective) calcium channel blocker, preferred if CKD and nephropathy, and can be given in heart failure if ejection fraction is normal?
Which medication is a non-DHP (more cardioselective) calcium channel blocker, preferred if CKD and nephropathy, and can be given in heart failure if ejection fraction is normal?
Which medication is an alpha blocker (nonselective) used for treating BPH and hypertension, with the potential side effect of first-dose syncope?
Which medication is an alpha blocker (nonselective) used for treating BPH and hypertension, with the potential side effect of first-dose syncope?
Which diuretic is known for being better at reducing blood pressure than loop diuretics and is considered a first-line agent?
Which diuretic is known for being better at reducing blood pressure than loop diuretics and is considered a first-line agent?
Which medication is a centrally acting alpha-2 agonist used for ADHD, requires tapering off to reduce the risk of rebound hypertension, nervousness, and anxiety, and should not be taken with a high-fat meal to avoid increased absorption?
Which medication is a centrally acting alpha-2 agonist used for ADHD, requires tapering off to reduce the risk of rebound hypertension, nervousness, and anxiety, and should not be taken with a high-fat meal to avoid increased absorption?
Which medication is an old drug used for treating hypertension, with the potential side effect of depression and the need for tapering off to reduce the risk of rebound hypertension?
Which medication is an old drug used for treating hypertension, with the potential side effect of depression and the need for tapering off to reduce the risk of rebound hypertension?
Which medication is a nonselective beta blocker used for treating glaucoma, with the potential side effect of bradycardia, low blood pressure, and CNS depression?
Which medication is a nonselective beta blocker used for treating glaucoma, with the potential side effect of bradycardia, low blood pressure, and CNS depression?
Which medication is a prodrug of acyclovir, used for treating HSV and Shingles, with warnings for renal toxicity, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia, and risk of retinal detachment?
Which medication is a prodrug of acyclovir, used for treating HSV and Shingles, with warnings for renal toxicity, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia, and risk of retinal detachment?
Which medication is prescribed for Cytomegalovirus (CMV) disease, and is only for use in immunocompromised patients and those with acyclovir-resistant HSV, with renal and seizure risks?
Which medication is prescribed for Cytomegalovirus (CMV) disease, and is only for use in immunocompromised patients and those with acyclovir-resistant HSV, with renal and seizure risks?
Which medication is a cardioselective beta blocker with indications for hypertension and heart failure, with maximum daily dosages ranging from 400mg to 1000mg, and warnings for potential acute tachycardia, hypertension, and ischemia if stopped abruptly?
Which medication is a cardioselective beta blocker with indications for hypertension and heart failure, with maximum daily dosages ranging from 400mg to 1000mg, and warnings for potential acute tachycardia, hypertension, and ischemia if stopped abruptly?
Which medication is a nonselective beta blocker used for treating various conditions, with indications including hypertension, angina, and severe tachyarrhythmias, and should not be stopped abruptly due to potential side effects such as acute tachycardia, hypertension, and ischemia?
Which medication is a nonselective beta blocker used for treating various conditions, with indications including hypertension, angina, and severe tachyarrhythmias, and should not be stopped abruptly due to potential side effects such as acute tachycardia, hypertension, and ischemia?
Which medication is used for stable ischemic heart disease and inhibits late Na current and intracellular Ca, with cautions including cirrhosis, strong 3A4 inhibitors, and cardiac ischemia?
Which medication is used for stable ischemic heart disease and inhibits late Na current and intracellular Ca, with cautions including cirrhosis, strong 3A4 inhibitors, and cardiac ischemia?
Which diuretic is indicated for HF and HTN, and has a side effect of gynecomastia?
Which diuretic is indicated for HF and HTN, and has a side effect of gynecomastia?
Which ACE inhibitor has a black box warning for pregnancy and bilateral renal artery stenosis?
Which ACE inhibitor has a black box warning for pregnancy and bilateral renal artery stenosis?
Which diuretic is contraindicated in sulfa allergy and is the only loop diuretic that is okay in sulfa allergy?
Which diuretic is contraindicated in sulfa allergy and is the only loop diuretic that is okay in sulfa allergy?
Which statin should be taken at bedtime and has a dosage range of 20-80mg po qd?
Which statin should be taken at bedtime and has a dosage range of 20-80mg po qd?
Which K+-sparing diuretic is indicated for HF and HTN, and has a side effect of gynecomastia?
Which K+-sparing diuretic is indicated for HF and HTN, and has a side effect of gynecomastia?
Which ACE inhibitor is associated with a side effect of dry cough?
Which ACE inhibitor is associated with a side effect of dry cough?
Which medication is a prodrug of acyclovir, used for treating Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) and Shingles, with warnings for renal toxicity and risk of retinal detachment?
Which medication is a prodrug of acyclovir, used for treating Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) and Shingles, with warnings for renal toxicity and risk of retinal detachment?
Which diuretic is known for its IV ototoxicity and should be avoided with aminoglycosides?
Which diuretic is known for its IV ototoxicity and should be avoided with aminoglycosides?
Study Notes
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Several diuretics and their respective indications, contraindications (CI), side effects (SE), target doses, and equivalency to BTFE (Bumetanide, Torsemide, Furosemide, Equivalence = 1:20:40:50) are mentioned:
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Furosemide: HTN, HF, edema; CI: sulfa allergy; SE: metabolic alkalosis, decreases K+, Na+, Mg2+, Ca2+, increases BG, TG, Chol, uric acid, and bone density; loop diuretic that requires K+ supplement and is the diuretic of choice for renal disease; IV: ototoxicity and avoid use with aminoglycosides.
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Lasix: same as Furosemide but with the addition of IV ototoxicity.
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Torsemide: same as Furosemide but with the addition of IV ototoxicity and K+ supplement requirement.
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Bumetanide: same as Furosemide but with the addition of IV ototoxicity and K+ supplement requirement.
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Ethacrynic acid: HTN, HF, edema; SE: metabolic alkalosis, increases BG, TG, Chol, uric acid, decreases K+, Na+, Mg²⁺, Ca²⁺, BMD, and bone density; IV: ototoxicity and avoid use with aminoglycosides.
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Edecrin: diuretic of choice for renal disease when in sulfa allergy; 25-50mg po daily, only loop diuretic that is ok in sulfa allergy; IV: ototoxicity, only 25-50mg po daily; equivalence: BTFE = 1:20:40:50.
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Triamterene: K+-sparing diuretic for HTN, glaucoma, edema; Dyrenium D: 300mg po qd; SE: metabolic acidosis, increases K+, decreases Ca2+, gout; CI if CrCl < 30; also available as Amiloride and Spironolactone.
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Amiloride: K+-sparing diuretic for HTN, glaucoma, edema; Midamor D: 20mg po qd; SE: metabolic acidosis, increases K+, decreases Ca2+, gout; CI if CrCl < 30.
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Spironolactone: K+-sparing diuretic for HF and HTN; Aldactone D: 25-50mg po qd; SE: gynecomastia, metabolic acidosis, increases K+, decreases Ca2+, gout; CI: pregnancy, CrCl < 30; also available as Eplerenone.
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Eplerenone: aldosterone antagonist used in HF with EF < 35% or post-MI for EF < 40%, HTN, and CI: pregnancy, Scr > 2, CrCl < 30, K > 5; Inspra D: 25-50mg po qd; SE: ↑K+.
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Various ACE inhibitors are mentioned with their respective indications, contraindications (BBW: bilateral renal artery stenosis), side effects (metabolic acidosis, increase K+, angioedema, dry cough), and cautions (avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage):
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Benazepril: Lotensin, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, dry cough, angioedema.
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Captopril: Capoten, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema, dry cough; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
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Enalapril: Vasotec, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema, dry cough; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
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Fosinopril: Monopril, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema, dry cough; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
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Lisinopril: Zestril, Prinivil, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema, dry cough; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
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Moexipril: Univasc, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
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Quinapril: Accupril, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
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Ramipril: Altace, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
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Candesartan: Atacand, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
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Irbesartan: Avapro, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
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Losartan: Cozaar, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
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Valsartan: Diovan, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
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Olmesartan: Benicar, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, sprue-like enteropathy, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
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Telmisartan: Micardis, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Aliskiren: Tekturna, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, increase K+, dry cough, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage; caution: food interaction.
-
Various statins and their respective indications, contraindications (CI: pregnancy), cautions (rhabdomyolysis and myopathy), food interactions, and dosages are mentioned:
-
Lovastatin IR: Mevacor, CI: pregnancy; caution: rhabdomyolysis and myopathy; take with food; D: 20 po qd or bid with food.
-
Atorvastatin: Lipitor, CI: pregnancy; caution: rhabdomyolysis and myopathy; D: 10-80mg po qd.
-
Fluvastatin IR: Lescol, CI: pregnancy; caution: rhabdomyolysis and myopathy; take at bedtime; D: 20-80mg po qd.
-
Rosuvastatin: Crestor, CI: pregnancy; caution: rhabdomyolysis and myopathy; D: 5-20mg po qd.
-
Pravastatin: Pravachol, CI: pregnancy; caution: rhabdomyolysis and myopathy; D: 10-80mg po qd.
-
Simvastatin: Zocor, CI: pregnancy; caution: rhabdomyolysis and myopath
-
Several diuretics and their respective indications, contraindications (CI), side effects (SE), target doses, and equivalency to BTFE (Bumetanide, Torsemide, Furosemide, Equivalence = 1:20:40:50) are mentioned:
-
Furosemide: HTN, HF, edema; CI: sulfa allergy; SE: metabolic alkalosis, decreases K+, Na+, Mg2+, Ca2+, increases BG, TG, Chol, uric acid, and bone density; loop diuretic that requires K+ supplement and is the diuretic of choice for renal disease; IV: ototoxicity and avoid use with aminoglycosides.
-
Lasix: same as Furosemide but with the addition of IV ototoxicity.
-
Torsemide: same as Furosemide but with the addition of IV ototoxicity and K+ supplement requirement.
-
Bumetanide: same as Furosemide but with the addition of IV ototoxicity and K+ supplement requirement.
-
Ethacrynic acid: HTN, HF, edema; SE: metabolic alkalosis, increases BG, TG, Chol, uric acid, decreases K+, Na+, Mg²⁺, Ca²⁺, BMD, and bone density; IV: ototoxicity and avoid use with aminoglycosides.
-
Edecrin: diuretic of choice for renal disease when in sulfa allergy; 25-50mg po daily, only loop diuretic that is ok in sulfa allergy; IV: ototoxicity, only 25-50mg po daily; equivalence: BTFE = 1:20:40:50.
-
Triamterene: K+-sparing diuretic for HTN, glaucoma, edema; Dyrenium D: 300mg po qd; SE: metabolic acidosis, increases K+, decreases Ca2+, gout; CI if CrCl < 30; also available as Amiloride and Spironolactone.
-
Amiloride: K+-sparing diuretic for HTN, glaucoma, edema; Midamor D: 20mg po qd; SE: metabolic acidosis, increases K+, decreases Ca2+, gout; CI if CrCl < 30.
-
Spironolactone: K+-sparing diuretic for HF and HTN; Aldactone D: 25-50mg po qd; SE: gynecomastia, metabolic acidosis, increases K+, decreases Ca2+, gout; CI: pregnancy, CrCl < 30; also available as Eplerenone.
-
Eplerenone: aldosterone antagonist used in HF with EF < 35% or post-MI for EF < 40%, HTN, and CI: pregnancy, Scr > 2, CrCl < 30, K > 5; Inspra D: 25-50mg po qd; SE: ↑K+.
-
Various ACE inhibitors are mentioned with their respective indications, contraindications (BBW: bilateral renal artery stenosis), side effects (metabolic acidosis, increase K+, angioedema, dry cough), and cautions (avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage):
-
Benazepril: Lotensin, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, dry cough, angioedema.
-
Captopril: Capoten, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema, dry cough; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Enalapril: Vasotec, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema, dry cough; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Fosinopril: Monopril, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema, dry cough; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Lisinopril: Zestril, Prinivil, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema, dry cough; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Moexipril: Univasc, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Quinapril: Accupril, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Ramipril: Altace, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Candesartan: Atacand, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Irbesartan: Avapro, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Losartan: Cozaar, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Valsartan: Diovan, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Olmesartan: Benicar, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, sprue-like enteropathy, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Telmisartan: Micardis, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Aliskiren: Tekturna, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, increase K+, dry cough, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage; caution: food interaction.
-
Various statins and their respective indications, contraindications (CI: pregnancy), cautions (rhabdomyolysis and myopathy), food interactions, and dosages are mentioned:
-
Lovastatin IR: Mevacor, CI: pregnancy; caution: rhabdomyolysis and myopathy; take with food; D: 20 po qd or bid with food.
-
Atorvastatin: Lipitor, CI: pregnancy; caution: rhabdomyolysis and myopathy; D: 10-80mg po qd.
-
Fluvastatin IR: Lescol, CI: pregnancy; caution: rhabdomyolysis and myopathy; take at bedtime; D: 20-80mg po qd.
-
Rosuvastatin: Crestor, CI: pregnancy; caution: rhabdomyolysis and myopathy; D: 5-20mg po qd.
-
Pravastatin: Pravachol, CI: pregnancy; caution: rhabdomyolysis and myopathy; D: 10-80mg po qd.
-
Simvastatin: Zocor, CI: pregnancy; caution: rhabdomyolysis and myopath
-
Several diuretics and their respective indications, contraindications (CI), side effects (SE), target doses, and equivalency to BTFE (Bumetanide, Torsemide, Furosemide, Equivalence = 1:20:40:50) are mentioned:
-
Furosemide: HTN, HF, edema; CI: sulfa allergy; SE: metabolic alkalosis, decreases K+, Na+, Mg2+, Ca2+, increases BG, TG, Chol, uric acid, and bone density; loop diuretic that requires K+ supplement and is the diuretic of choice for renal disease; IV: ototoxicity and avoid use with aminoglycosides.
-
Lasix: same as Furosemide but with the addition of IV ototoxicity.
-
Torsemide: same as Furosemide but with the addition of IV ototoxicity and K+ supplement requirement.
-
Bumetanide: same as Furosemide but with the addition of IV ototoxicity and K+ supplement requirement.
-
Ethacrynic acid: HTN, HF, edema; SE: metabolic alkalosis, increases BG, TG, Chol, uric acid, decreases K+, Na+, Mg²⁺, Ca²⁺, BMD, and bone density; IV: ototoxicity and avoid use with aminoglycosides.
-
Edecrin: diuretic of choice for renal disease when in sulfa allergy; 25-50mg po daily, only loop diuretic that is ok in sulfa allergy; IV: ototoxicity, only 25-50mg po daily; equivalence: BTFE = 1:20:40:50.
-
Triamterene: K+-sparing diuretic for HTN, glaucoma, edema; Dyrenium D: 300mg po qd; SE: metabolic acidosis, increases K+, decreases Ca2+, gout; CI if CrCl < 30; also available as Amiloride and Spironolactone.
-
Amiloride: K+-sparing diuretic for HTN, glaucoma, edema; Midamor D: 20mg po qd; SE: metabolic acidosis, increases K+, decreases Ca2+, gout; CI if CrCl < 30.
-
Spironolactone: K+-sparing diuretic for HF and HTN; Aldactone D: 25-50mg po qd; SE: gynecomastia, metabolic acidosis, increases K+, decreases Ca2+, gout; CI: pregnancy, CrCl < 30; also available as Eplerenone.
-
Eplerenone: aldosterone antagonist used in HF with EF < 35% or post-MI for EF < 40%, HTN, and CI: pregnancy, Scr > 2, CrCl < 30, K > 5; Inspra D: 25-50mg po qd; SE: ↑K+.
-
Various ACE inhibitors are mentioned with their respective indications, contraindications (BBW: bilateral renal artery stenosis), side effects (metabolic acidosis, increase K+, angioedema, dry cough), and cautions (avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage):
-
Benazepril: Lotensin, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, dry cough, angioedema.
-
Captopril: Capoten, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema, dry cough; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Enalapril: Vasotec, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema, dry cough; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Fosinopril: Monopril, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema, dry cough; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Lisinopril: Zestril, Prinivil, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema, dry cough; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Moexipril: Univasc, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Quinapril: Accupril, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Ramipril: Altace, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Candesartan: Atacand, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Irbesartan: Avapro, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Losartan: Cozaar, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Valsartan: Diovan, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Olmesartan: Benicar, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, sprue-like enteropathy, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Telmisartan: Micardis, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, ↑K+, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage.
-
Aliskiren: Tekturna, BBW: pregnancy, bilateral renal artery stenosis; SE: metabolic acidosis, increase K+, dry cough, angioedema; avoid NSAIDs due to renal damage; caution: food interaction.
-
Various statins and their respective indications, contraindications (CI: pregnancy), cautions (rhabdomyolysis and myopathy), food interactions, and dosages are mentioned:
-
Lovastatin IR: Mevacor, CI: pregnancy; caution: rhabdomyolysis and myopathy; take with food; D: 20 po qd or bid with food.
-
Atorvastatin: Lipitor, CI: pregnancy; caution: rhabdomyolysis and myopathy; D: 10-80mg po qd.
-
Fluvastatin IR: Lescol, CI: pregnancy; caution: rhabdomyolysis and myopathy; take at bedtime; D: 20-80mg po qd.
-
Rosuvastatin: Crestor, CI: pregnancy; caution: rhabdomyolysis and myopathy; D: 5-20mg po qd.
-
Pravastatin: Pravachol, CI: pregnancy; caution: rhabdomyolysis and myopathy; D: 10-80mg po qd.
-
Simvastatin: Zocor, CI: pregnancy; caution: rhabdomyolysis and myopath
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Test your knowledge of antiviral medications with this quiz covering key information about medication requirements, side effects, and administration for treating hepatitis C, herpes, and related conditions.
