Anticoagulants & Procoagulants

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following platelet actions is NOT a key mechanism of primary hemostasis?

  • Platelet Aggregation
  • Platelet Activation
  • Platelet Adhesion
  • Platelet Retraction (correct)

Platelet adhesion to the subendothelial layer primarily involves which attachment factor binding to collagen receptors?

  • Von Willebrand Factor (VWF) (correct)
  • Thrombin
  • Fibrinogen
  • Factor XIII

During platelet activation, which two mediators are synthesized and released to recruit additional platelets for aggregation?

  • Serotonin and Histamine
  • ADP and Thromboxane A2 (correct)
  • Epinephrine and Thrombin
  • Prostacyclin and Nitric Oxide

Which of the following substances directly links platelets together during the aggregation phase of hemostasis?

<p>Fibrinogen (B)</p>
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Formation of a cross-linked and water-insoluble fibrin clot is characteristic of which stage of hemostasis?

<p>Secondary Hemostasis (B)</p>
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Which of the following is NOT a vitamin K-dependent clotting factor?

<p>Factor XI (B)</p>
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What is the primary initiator of coagulation in the extrinsic coagulation pathway, also known as Factor III?

<p>Tissue Factor (A)</p>
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In the final common pathway of coagulation leading to clot stabilization, what is the correct sequence of factors?

<p>X, II, V, I (A)</p>
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The prothrombin time (PT) primarily measures coagulation along which pathway?

<p>Extrinsic Pathway (A)</p>
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The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to measure coagulation along which pathway?

<p>Intrinsic (B)</p>
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Which two drugs' activities are directly measured by the activated clotting time (ACT)?

<p>Heparin and Fondaparinux (C)</p>
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What is the primary mechanism of action of unfractionated heparin?

<p>Strengthening antithrombin III activity (A)</p>
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According to guidelines, what is a general recommendation for the minimum time unfractionated heparin should be held prior to neuraxial anesthesia when a therapeutic dose has been administered?

<p>4 hours (D)</p>
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What is the primary pathophysiology of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?

<p>Antibody formation against platelet factor 4 (C)</p>
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The use of low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) in patients undergoing neuraxial anesthesia places them at risk for which potential complication?

<p>Epidural Hematoma (C)</p>
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What is the mechanism of action of warfarin?

<p>Inhibition of vitamin K epoxide reductase (D)</p>
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What is the general recommendation for the number of days to hold warfarin prior to an elective surgical procedure?

<p>4 days (D)</p>
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Drugs like bivalirudin and argatroban exert their anticoagulant effects by directly binding to and inhibiting which of the following factors?

<p>Factor IIa (Thrombin) (A)</p>
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Direct oral anticoagulants like rivaroxaban (Xarelto) and apixaban (Eliquis) inhibit which coagulation factor?

<p>Factor Xa (B)</p>
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What is the mechanism of action of aspirin as an antiplatelet agent?

<p>Inhibition of thromboxane A2 synthesis via COX inhibition (C)</p>
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What is the typically recommended time period for discontinuing clopidogrel before surgery and regional anesthesia?

<p>5-7 days (C)</p>
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Plasminogen activator thrombolytics are generally contraindicated within what time period surrounding neuraxial anesthesia?

<p>24 hours (A)</p>
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How does antithrombin III (ATIII) work in the body to prevent excessive coagulation?

<p>By binding to and deactivating several clotting factors (D)</p>
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Which of the following drugs primarily acts as a cofactor for antithrombin III, enhancing its anticoagulant effects?

<p>Heparin (B)</p>
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Plasminogen activators (e.g., tPA, uPA) increase the formation of which substance to break down fibrin clots?

<p>Plasmin (D)</p>
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What is the mechanism of action of epsilon aminocaproic acid (Amicar)?

<p>Binding to plasminogen and inhibiting its activation (B)</p>
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What is the mechanism of action of tranexamic acid (TXA)?

<p>Binding to plasmin and inhibiting it (D)</p>
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What is the primary mechanism of action of protamine?

<p>Binds to and reverses unfractionated heparin (C)</p>
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Which of the following anticoagulants is NOT effectively reversed by protamine?

<p>Low Molecular Weight Heparin (B)</p>
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Which of the following is NOT typically associated with protamine administration?

<p>Hypertension (D)</p>
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Desmopressin (DDAVP) is typically administered over 15-30 minutes and releases endogenous stores of which factor?

<p>Factor VIII or von Willebrand Factor (vWF) (A)</p>
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Which blood product is most appropriate for treating a patient with low fibrinogen levels?

<p>Cryoprecipitate (D)</p>
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In which body fluid compartment is potassium the major cation and phosphate the major anion?

<p>Intracellular (D)</p>
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Which of the following prevents the free movement of proteins and large macromolecules between body fluid compartments?

<p>Cell Membrane (D)</p>
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Which of the following is NOT considered a “static parameter” for monitoring intravascular volume status?

<p>Pulse Pressure Variation (C)</p>
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A pulse pressure variation greater than 10-12% with respiration suggests what regarding fluid replacement?

<p>Fluid Replacement Will Be Appropriate (D)</p>
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Which of the following crystalloid solutions is considered a balanced crystalloid?

<p>Lactated Ringer's (LR) (D)</p>
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A decrease in the strong ion difference (SID) typically has what effect on pH?

<p>Increased Acidosis (D)</p>
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Following the infusion of crystalloids in healthy patients, approximately what percentage remains within the intravascular space?

<p>20% (D)</p>
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What is the primary mechanism by which unfractionated heparin exerts its anticoagulant effect?

<p>Forming a complex with antithrombin III, enhancing its ability to inactivate thrombin and factor Xa. (B)</p>
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Why is monitoring anti-Xa levels preferred over aPTT when using low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)?

<p>Anti-Xa provides a more precise measurement of anticoagulation intensity with LMWH. (D)</p>
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In the context of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), what is the role of platelet factor 4 (PF4)?

<p>PF4 binds to heparin, creating a neoantigen that triggers an antibody response. (A)</p>
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What is the most significant advantage of using direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) like rivaroxaban compared to warfarin?

<p>DOACs have a more predictable anticoagulant effect and require less routine monitoring. (C)</p>
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What is the primary mechanism by which aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation?

<p>Inhibiting the synthesis of thromboxane A2 by irreversibly acetylating cyclooxygenase (COX). (B)</p>
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How does tranexamic acid (TXA) exert its antifibrinolytic effect?

<p>By competitively blocking the lysine-binding sites on plasminogen, preventing its binding to fibrin. (C)</p>
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What is the primary mechanism of action of desmopressin (DDAVP) in the context of hemostasis?

<p>Releasing von Willebrand factor (vWF) and factor VIII from endothelial cells. (B)</p>
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Why is cryoprecipitate the preferred blood product for treating patients with very low fibrinogen levels?

<p>It is rich in fibrinogen, factor VIII, von Willebrand factor, and factor XIII. (B)</p>
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Which component of the cell membrane is primarily responsible for restricting the movement of proteins and large macromolecules between body fluid compartments?

<p>Phospholipid bilayer. (B)</p>
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What is the clinical significance of a pulse pressure variation (PPV) of greater than 12% during mechanical ventilation?

<p>It suggests that the patient is likely to be fluid responsive, and a fluid bolus may improve cardiac output. (D)</p>
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What is the rationale behind using balanced crystalloid solutions like lactated Ringer's (LR) over normal saline (NS) for resuscitation?

<p>Balanced crystalloids have a lower chloride concentration than normal saline, reducing the risk of hyperchloremic acidosis. (D)</p>
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How does a decrease in the strong ion difference (SID) generally affect the pH of the blood?

<p>Decrease pH, leading to acidosis. (B)</p>
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Following the infusion of a crystalloid solution, what is the primary factor determining its distribution between the intravascular and interstitial spaces?

<p>The presence of negatively charged proteins in the intravascular space creating an osmotic gradient. (B)</p>
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What is the mechanism of action of acetazolamide in the nephron?

<p>Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase in the proximal convoluted tubule. (C)</p>
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Why should renal function be closely monitored when administering mannitol?

<p>Mannitol can cause osmotic nephrosis, leading to acute kidney injury. (B)</p>
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What is the primary mechanism by which loop diuretics, such as furosemide, promote diuresis?

<p>Inhibition of the Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. (D)</p>
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What is the rationale for administering acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) to a patient at risk for contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN)?

<p>Acetylcysteine scavenges free radicals and reduces oxidative stress in the kidneys. (C)</p>
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What electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with the use of thiazide diuretics?

<p>Hyponatremia. (A)</p>
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Spironolactone is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic because it directly interferes with the actions of which hormone?

<p>Aldosterone. (D)</p>
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What is the primary mechanism by which dopamine, at low doses, can increase urine output?

<p>Activation of D1 dopamine receptors in the renal vasculature, leading to vasodilation. (C)</p>
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In which phase of the cell cycle do antimetabolites exert their cytotoxic effects?

<p>S phase. (C)</p>
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What is the mechanism of cardiotoxicity associated with anthracycline chemotherapy agents like doxorubicin?

<p>Generation of free radicals that disrupt cardiac proteins and cell membranes. (A)</p>
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Why is it important to minimize crystalloid administration and maintain lower FiO2 levels in patients receiving bleomycin?

<p>To prevent the potentiation of bleomycin-induced pulmonary toxicity. (B)</p>
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What is the primary mechanism by which microtubule inhibitors, such as vincristine and paclitaxel, exert their cytotoxic effects?

<p>Disrupting the formation and function of the mitotic spindle during the M phase. (D)</p>
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Cisplatin is known to cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. What other side effect is important to consider?

<p>Peripheral neuropathy. (D)</p>
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What is the primary role of leukoreduction in transfused blood products?

<p>Preventing febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions and cytomegalovirus (CMV) transmission. (C)</p>
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What is the underlying mechanism of transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)?

<p>Antibody-mediated activation of neutrophils in the pulmonary vasculature. (B)</p>
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Which electrolyte abnormality is most likely to exacerbate coagulopathy during massive blood transfusions?

<p>Hypocalcemia. (D)</p>
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Why might excessive crystalloid administration during massive hemorrhage worsen coagulopathy?

<p>Crystalloids dilute coagulation factors and platelets, reducing their concentrations. (B)</p>
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Cefazolin, a commonly used surgical prophylactic antibiotic, belongs to which class and generation of cephalosporins?

<p>First-generation. (B)</p>
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Which potentially serious adverse effect is most commonly associated with rapid infusion of vancomycin?

<p>Red man syndrome. (B)</p>
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What is the primary mechanism of action of aminoglycosides like gentamicin?

<p>Binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit, leading to misreading of mRNA and inhibition of protein synthesis. (B)</p>
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In a patient administered metronidazole, what interaction might occur due to alcohol consumption?

<p>Disulfiram-like reaction. (B)</p>
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What important consideration exists for the CRNA to follow when administering a neuromuscular blocker to a patient on a chemotherapeutic agent?

<p>Alkylating agents inhibit the activity of plasma cholinesterase affecting anesthetic drugs. (C)</p>
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Which statement best describes the function of the Hypothalamus in the endocrine system?

<p>Regulates homeostasis by sending releasing hormones to the pituitary gland. (D)</p>
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Which drugs are often given to reduce the cardiovascular risks associated with thyroid store?

<p>Beta-adrenergic blocking agents. (D)</p>
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During primary hemostasis, what is the role of von Willebrand factor (vWF)?

<p>It mediates platelet adhesion to the exposed subendothelial collagen. (C)</p>
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What is the correct order of events in the intrinsic coagulation pathway?

<p>XII → XI → IX → VIII → X (C)</p>
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Why is the international normalized ratio (INR) used in conjunction with the prothrombin time (PT) when managing patients on warfarin?

<p>To standardize PT results due to variations in thromboplastin reagents. (A)</p>
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A patient with a history of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) requires anticoagulation. Which of the following medications is most appropriate?

<p>Argatroban (A)</p>
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Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of clopidogrel?

<p>Irreversibly inhibits the P2Y12 receptor on platelets. (B)</p>
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Desmopressin (DDAVP) can be used to treat certain bleeding disorders because it releases which of the following factors?

<p>Factor VIII and von Willebrand factor (C)</p>
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In which body fluid compartment is sodium primarily located?

<p>Extracellular (A)</p>
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What is the primary clinical significance of a pulse pressure variation (PPV) greater than 12% during mechanical ventilation?

<p>It suggests the patient is likely to respond to fluid administration. (D)</p>
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What is the rationale behind using balanced crystalloid solutions, such as lactated Ringer's (LR), over normal saline (NS) for resuscitation?

<p>Balanced crystalloids more closely resemble plasma electrolyte composition, reducing the risk of hyperchloremic acidosis. (D)</p>
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Decreasing the strong ion difference (SID) generally affects the pH of the blood by:

<p>Decreasing pH (acidosis). (A)</p>
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Flashcards

Primary Hemostasis

Three mechanisms that stop bleeding:

Platelet Adhesion

After endothelial damage, this layer is exposed, allowing VWF to attach via collagen receptors.

Platelet Activation Mediators

ADP and Thromboxane A2.

Aggregation Link

Fibrinogen

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Secondary Hemostasis

Formation of a cross-linked and water-insoluble fibrin clot

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Vitamin K Dependent Clotting Factors

Factors 2, 7, 9, and 10

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Primary initiator of coagulation

Also known as Factor 3 or Tissue Factor, it initiates coagulation in the extrinsic pathway.

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Extrinsic Coagulation Pathway

3 + 7 activate 10

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Intrinsic Coagulation Pathway

12, 11, 9, and 8 activate 10

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Final Common Pathway

5, 2, and 1 stabilize a clot.

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Extrinsic Pathway

Primary pathway measured by PT.

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aPTT Pathway

The Intrinsic Pathway

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Drugs measured by ACT

Heparin and Fonda

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Unfractionated Heparin Mechanism

Heparin enhances antithrombin III activity.

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Unfractionated Heparin Hold Time

4-24 hours

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HIT Pathophysiology

Antibody against factor 4

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Warfarin Mechanism

Prevents clot formation

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INR Target for Warfarin

2 - 4

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Warfarin Hold Time

4 days

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Bivalirudin/Argatroban Target

Factor 2

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Xarelto/Apixaban Target

Factor Xa

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Xa Inhibitor Benefit

Stroke

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Aspirin Mechanism

Block Cox 1 and 2 and inhibit Thromboxane a2

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Clopidogrel Discontinuation

5-7 days

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Plasminogen activator

24 hrs

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Antithrombin III Action

Bind to platelet factors and deactivate them

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Antithrombin III Cofactor

Heparin

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Plasminogen activators

Plasmin

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Amicar Mechanism

Bind to plasmin and inhibit it

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TXA Mechanism

Inhibit plasmin

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Protamine Action

Reverse unfractionated Heparin

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Protamine ineffectiveness

Low molecular Heparin

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Side effects of protamine

Hypertension, Anaphylaxis, Pt that uses NPH insulin, Right side HF, Acute Pulmonary Vasoconstiction

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Desmopressin

8 or vWF

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Low Fibrinogen Treatment

Crayo

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Crayo Increase

50-70d/l

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Major Cation & Anion

Intracellular

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Major Cation & Anion

Extracellular

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Barrier to macromolecule movement

Cell membrane, Glycolax layer

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Static Volume Parameters

Urine output, HR, RR

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PPV > 10-12%

Fluid replacement will be appropriate

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Balanced crystalloid

Lactated ringers

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Strong Ion Difference

Positive and Negative ions. Alkalosis if SID is high (Na, Ca, K, Phos) and Acidosis if SID is low increasing lactic acidosis (Lr, Cl)

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Decreased SID effect

Acidosis

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Decreased SID infusion

NS

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Intravascular crystalloids

20

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Hypotonic Crystalloids

½ NS, D5 in Water

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Hypertonic Crystalloids

3% NS, D5W in NS

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Large Molecule Solutions

Colloids

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Anaphylactoid reactions to albumin infusions

False

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Hydroxyethyl Starches

Renal failure pt, Heart failure pt, Critically ill pt, Open heart pt, Coagulopathy pt

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Colloids superior to crystalloids

False

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Important Functions

Membrane potential for excitability, Tissue excitability

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Potassium Importance

Cell membrane excitability, vasodilation, clot formation and renal function.

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Magnesium Use

Preeclampsia

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Calcium conc

3x

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Calcium chloride IV

Extravasation

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Blood Cell Production

Kidney/bone marrow

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Agglutinogen

Its an antigen that can form aglluin when exposed to antibody

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Agglutination

Blood clot and adverse effect of blood incompatibility

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RBC depletion

ATP, 2,3 DBA---

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RBC Carrier Fluids

D5, LR

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Transfuse Thawed Plasma

24

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Cryoprecipitate Factors

1, 8, 13

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Cryo Blood product

Platelate

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Leukoreduction

Leucocytes

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Cardiogenic volume overload

TACO

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Pulmonary

TRALI

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Massive Trauma Worse

Dilation coagulopathy, Fibrinolysis

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Clot Strength

TEG

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Maintain Electrolyte

Ca

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Massive Transfusion

10, 24

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1:1:1 Ratio

1 PRBC, 1 Plasma, 1 Platelet

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Excessive Crystalloid

Volume dilution, Electrolyte imbalance

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Acetazolamide Action Site

PCT

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Contrast Structure

Osmolality

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Methylene Blue High Conc.

Methemoglobin

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contrast agents myocardium

Negative

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Hypokalemia

Ileus

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Triamterene

ENAC

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Spironolactone

Aldosterone

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Na/K/2Cl

Loop

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ICP

Mannitol

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Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors

Metabolic Acidosis

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Kidneys

Reabsorbed ions

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Filtration Process

C filtration

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Kidey horomones

Calciterol, Renin C. Erythropoietin

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Study Notes

Anticoagulants & Procoagulants

Primary Hemostasis Mechanisms

  • Activation
  • Adhesion
  • Aggregation

Platelet Adhesion

  • Requires exposure of the endothelial cell layer.
  • Needs attachment factor VWF to collagen receptors.

Platelet Activation Mediators

  • ADP
  • Thromboxane A2

Platelet Aggregation

  • Fibrinogen links platelets together.

Secondary Hemostasis

  • Formation of a cross-linked and water-insoluble fibrin clot.

Vitamin K Dependent Clotting Factors

  • Factor 2
  • Factor 7
  • Factor 9
  • Factor 10

Extrinsic Coagulation Pathway Initiator

  • Tissue factor (Factor 3)

Extrinsic Coagulation Pathway

  • 3 + 7 = 10

Intrinsic Coagulation Pathway

  • 12, 11, 9, 8 = 10

Final Common Pathway

  • 5 * 2 * 1 = 13

Prothrombin Time (PT)

  • Measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation.
  • Normal PT value is 11-14 seconds.

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)

  • Measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.
  • Normal aPTT value is 25-35 seconds.

Activated Clotting Time (ACT)

  • Measures the activity of Heparin and Fonda drugs
  • Involves the intrinsic and common pathways.

Unfractionated Heparin Mechanism of Action

  • Strengthens antithrombin III (AT3).

Unfractionated Heparin Hold Time

  • Hold for 4-24 hours before neuraxial anesthesia for a therapeutic dose.

Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT) Pathophysiology

  • Antibody against factor 4.

Low-Molecular-Weight Heparin Risk

  • Risk of spinal and epidural hematoma.

Warfarin Mechanism of Action

  • Inhibits Vitamin K epoxide reductase.
  • Inhibits factors 2, 7, 9, and 10.

Warfarin INR Target Value

  • 2-4

Warfarin Hold Time

  • Hold for 4 days prior to surgery.

Bivalirudin and Argatroban

  • Inhibit factor 2.

Xarelto and Apixaban

  • Inhibit factor Xa.
  • Reduce the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation.

Aspirin Mechanism of Action

  • Blocks Cox 1 and 2 and inhibits Thromboxane A2.

Clopidogrel Discontinuation

  • Discontinue for 5-7 days before surgery and regional anesthesia.

Plasminogen Activator Thrombolytics

  • Contraindicated within 24 hours of neuraxial and regional anesthesia.

Antithrombin III Function

  • Binds to platelet factors and deactivates them.

Antithrombin III as a Cofactor

  • Is a cofactor for Heparin

Plasminogen Activators

  • Increase the formation of plasmin leading to breakdown of the fibrin clot.

Epsilon Aminocaproic Acid (Amicar) Mechanism

  • Binds to plasmin and inhibits it.

Tranexamic Acid (TXA) Mechanism

  • Inhibits plasmin.

Protamine Mechanism of Action

  • Reverses unfractionated Heparin.
  • It is a basic drug
  • Not effective against low molecular weight Heparin.

Protamine Side Effects

  • Hypotension
  • Anaphylaxis
  • Issues for patients using NPH insulin
  • Right side HF
  • Acute Pulmonary Vasoconstriction

Desmopressin (DDAVP)

  • Given in a dose of 0.3 over 15-30 minutes.
  • Releases endogenous stores of Factor 8 or vWF.

Cryoprecipitate

  • Given to treat low fibrinogen levels.
  • 1 unit/10 kg increases fibrinogen levels by approximately 50-70 d/l.

Fluids/Electrolytes/Blood Worksheet

Major Intracellular Ions

  • Potassium is the major cation.
  • Phosphate is the major anion.

Major Extracellular Ions

  • Sodium is the major cation.
  • Chloride is the major anion.

Barriers to Protein Movement

  • Cell membrane
  • Glycolax layer

Static Parameters for Volume Monitoring

  • Urine output
  • HR
  • RR

Dynamic Parameters

  • Greater than 10-12% variation in dynamic parameters such as pulse pressure variation with respiration indicates fluid replacement will be appropriate

Balanced Crystalloid

  • Lactated Ringers (LR)

Strong Ion Difference (SID)

  • Positive and Negative ions.
  • Alkalosis if SID is high (↑ Na⁺, Ca²⁺, K⁺, Phos⁻).
  • Acidosis if SID is low (↑ Cl⁻, Lactate from LR).
  • A decrease in the SID has what effect on pH? Acidosis
  • A decrease in the SID may occur following excessive infusion of what fluid? NS

Intravascular Crystalloid Percentage

  • Approximately 20% of infused crystalloids remains intravascular in healthy patients.

Hypotonic Crystalloids

  • ½ NS
  • D5 in Water
  • Water moves into the cell.

Hypertonic Crystalloids

  • 3% NS
  • D5W in NS
  • Water moves out of the cell.

Colloids

  • Fluid solutions containing large molecular weight particles suspended in a crystalloid solution.

Albumin Infusions

  • Anaphylactoid reactions are not common.

Hydroxyethyl Starches (HES) Black Box Warning

  • Renal failure patient
  • Heart failure patient
  • Critically ill patient
  • Open heart patient
  • Coagulopathy patient

Colloids vs. Crystalloids

  • No substantial high-quality evidence suggests colloids are superior to balanced crystalloids for intravascular fluid volume status.

Sodium Functions

  • Compartmental water balance & osmolality.
  • Membrane potential for excitability.
  • Tissue excitability.

Potassium Functions

  • Cell membrane excitability
  • Vasodilation
  • Clot formation
  • Renal function.

Drugs Causing Decreased Potassium Levels

  • Insulin
  • Sodium bicarb
  • Kayexalate
  • Dialysis
  • Furosemide
  • Calcium
  • Beta agonist

Magnesium

  • Used to treat preeclampsia (pregnancy complication).

Calcium Chloride vs. Calcium Gluconate

  • Calcium chloride contains 3x more elemental calcium per ml than calcium gluconate.
  • Risk of extravasation with calcium chloride in small, peripheral IVs.

Blood Cell Production

  • Kidney and bone marrow are the main sources.

Agglutinogen

  • An antigen that can form agglutination when exposed to an antibody.

Agglutinin

  • Formation of agglutination.
  • Blood clot and adverse effect of blood incompatibility is the ultimate risk of agglutination.

Depleted RBC Substances During Storage

  • ATP
  • 2,3 DPG

IV Fluids to Avoid with RBC Transfusion

  • D5
  • LR

Thawed Plasma Transfusion

  • Transfuse within 24 hours.

Cryoprecipitate Factors

  • Factor 1
  • Factor 8
  • Factor 13
  • Should not be administered with platelet products.

Leukoreduction

  • Reducing WBC to avoid inflammatory response or donor tissue rejection.
  • Minimizes leukocytes.

Transfusion-Associated Circulatory Overload (TACO)

  • Cardiogenic volume overload related to blood product transfusion.
  • Pulmonary vascular injury and non-cardiogenic edema within 6 hours of transfusion.

Coagulopathies from Trauma

  • Worsened by dilation coagulopathy and fibrinolysis.

Thromboelastography (TEG)

  • Provides information on clot strength and formation.

Electrolyte Monitoring with Transfusion

  • Replace and monitor calcium levels.

Massive Transfusion

  • Administration of greater than 10 units of RBCs within 24 hours.

Massive Transfusion Ratio

  • 1 PRBC: 1 Plasma: 1 Platelet (1:1:1).

Risks of Excessive Crystalloid Use

  • Volume dilution
  • Electrolyte imbalance

Crossword 1

  • Balanced
  • Citrate
  • TACO
  • Magnesium
  • Hyperosmolar
  • Bone Marrow
  • Coagulopathy
  • Macrophage
  • Lipids
  • Chloride
  • Calcium
  • HES
  • Platelet
  • Albumin
  • Agglutinogen
  • Lucoreduced / gama
  • Acidosis
  • Sodium
  • Lactic
  • Lysis

Crossword 2

  • Vitamin K
  • Protamine
  • aPtt/ ACT
  • Plasminogen
  • INR
  • Plasmin
  • Intrinsic
  • TxA
  • Heparin
  • Calcium
  • Activation
  • DDAVP
  • Antithrombin
  • TEG
  • Factor 2
  • Fibrinogen
  • Extrinsic
  • Clopidogrel
  • Aspirin

Renal, F & E, Hematologic PBL in Pharmacology - Case Studies

Case 1: Renal - Diuretics 1

  • 71-year-old Mrs. S - posterior fossa craniotomy.
  • Cerebral edema, hypertension, and mild GERD.
  • Weight 70 kg.
  • Meds: levetiracetam, famotidine, metoprolol, hydrochlorothiazide.
  • Neurosurgeon requests preoperative diuretic for cerebral edema management.
Diuretic
  • The likely drug is Mannitol.
  • Increased plasma osmolality pulls H20. scavenge free O2 radicals.
  • PCT and DL.
  • 1/g kg/ 10-15 min 60-90 min later before incision.
  • 0.2-2g/kg range.
  • May increase in plasma volume.

Case 2: Renal - Diuretics 2

  • 41-year-old Miss Y - robotic hysterectomy.
  • Uterine fibroids and smoking.
  • Meds: cefazolin, fentanyl, propofol, rocuronium, sevoflurane.
  • Surgeon desires urine production before discharge, requests low dose diuretic in thick ascending limb.
Mild Diuretic
  • Loop Diuretic – Furosemide – 10 - 20 mg.
  • Cefazolin – nephrotoxic and autotoxin drug with Prop and Roc, Fentanyl.
  • Ototoxicity and Tinnitus due to receptors.
  • Hypovolemia, Hypotension, Hypokalemic, pre-renal, Nephrotoxic effects.
  • Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) – If nephrotoxicity is suspected.
  • Addition of thiazide for RASS activation.
  • Fluids - LR - NS.
  • Possible RAAS – resistance.
  • Repeat dose 20-40 mg.

Case 3: F & E – Fluid Management

  • 60-year-old Ms. E - open femur reduction.
  • Uncontrolled HTN and chronic renal insufficiency.
  • Estimated blood loss 100 ml, H/H 9/27.
  • Two PIVs, one in each hand (20 g, 18 g).
  • VS – sinus rhythm (85), BP (85/60), O2 sat 97% (on vent)
Fluid management
  • 80% interstitial and 20% plasma.
  • PP variation.
  • 200-500 LR. Yes Bp 85/60 hypotensive and 15% PPV suggest fluid responsiveness.
  • PRBC vs colloids give 2 units PRBC to increase H/H approx. 2/6. Would have given Albumin if pt was Young
  • LR lacks Calcium and NS based on lack of Potassium.
  • Potassium leak.
  • Calcium gluconate 1–2-gram IV dose range 0.5-2g.

Case 4: F & E – Transfusion Management

  • 20-year-old Mr. L - trauma patient.
  • Active abdominal bleeding.
  • Received 2 liters of normal saline and 2 units of PRBCs prior to arrival.
  • VS – sinus tachycardia w/PVCs (138), BP (77/50), O2 sat 92% (ambu), temp 34.5 deg C; pH 7.25, HCO3- 18, CO2 55, lactate 4 mmol/L
Transfusion Management
  • PRBC, Cyro, Platelet.
  • 10 units in 24hr.
  • NS, Plasmalyte or Norm sol.
  • Give FFP, Prioritise Blood products.
  • 154 and 4.
  • 1 gram TXA, Calcium chloride 1 gram for 3 blood products.

Case 5: Hematology – Anticoagulants 1

  • 24-year-old Miss O - laboring patient.
  • History of vape use and DVTs.
  • Meds – PO prenatal vitamin, SC prophylactic low-molecular-weight heparin (last dose 8AM).
Anticoagulant
  • 6 pm 10-12 hrs.
  • Epidural Hematoma.
  • No. HIT has antibodies in platelet factor 4.
  • Xa monitor.

Case 6: Hematology – Anticoagulants 2

  • 55-year-old Mrs. U - arteriovenous fistula revision surgery.
  • Chronic renal failure with hemodialysis, atrial fibrillation, transient ischemic attack (x2), peripheral edema, and uncontrolled hypertension.
  • Meds – torsemide, warfarin, amlodipine
Anticoagulant 2
  • Friday morning at the latest or Wednesday preferred.
  • 100%.
  • Extrinsic and common.
  • She urgently needs this revision to receive dialysis later today.
  • Fibrin sealant (Biologic glue).

Renal Pharmacology Crossword

  • Across:
    • PCT
    • Osmolality
    • Methemoglobin
    • Negative
    • Ileus
    • ENAC
    • Aldosterone
    • Loop
    • Mannitol
    • Metabolic Acidosis
    • ANP
    • Renin
  • Down:
    • Hypokalemia
    • Prostaglandins
    • ICG
    • Diphenhydramine
    • Bicarbonate
    • Contrast-Induced Nephropathy (CIN)
    • Fenoldopam
    • Alkalosis
    • Inert
    • Calcium

Renal (Diuretics) Worksheet

Kidney Hormones

  • Calciterol
  • Renin
  • Erythropoietin

Cardiac Output

  • Kidneys receive approximately 25%.

Aldosterone Effects

  • Distal absorption of Na+ and water
  • Excretion of K+.

Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System Activation

  • False, so Hypovolemia, Hyponatremia is right answer
  • Activated by Hypovolemia, Hyponatremia.
  • Juxtamedullary cell release renin
  • Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction.

Kidney Reabsorption

  • Reabsorb NaCl and water

Vasopressin and Aldosterone Release

  • Accompanies Hyperkalemia, Hypovolemia change in blood volume.

Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (Factor) Function

  • Vasodilation, natriuresis, and diuresis.

Acid-Base Balance

  • Peritubular capillaries reabsorbing Bicarb ions into the plasma.
  • Secreting Hydrogen ions into the lumen filtrate.

First Step of Urine Formation

  • C filtration

GFR

  • Dilating (↑) afferent arteriole tone increases GFR.
  • vasconstriction (↑) efferent arteriole tone increases GFR.

Sodium Movement

  • Water tends to follow sodium.

Reabsorption Mechanisms

  • The sodium-potassium pump is an example of a ATP or active mechanism of reabsorption.
  • Osmosis is an example of a passive mechanism of reabsorption.

Common Diuretic Uses

  • CHF
  • HTN

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors

  • Primarilly decrease the reabsorption of Bicarb, Na, and H20

Osmotic Diuretics

  • They innate (no change)
  • Increase the osmolality of blood and renal tubule fluid.

Mannitol Dose

  • 0.25-1 g/kg IV

Loop Diuretics

  • Inhibit the Na/K/2Cl co-transporter in the Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henle.
  • Increase prostaglandin production.

Loop Diuretics and Potassium

  • Hypokalemia leads to metabolic alkalosis

Ototoxicity

  • Loop Diuretic

Thiazide Diuretics

  • Inhibit the Na/Cl co-transporter in the DCT tubule.
  • Inhibit reabsorption & increase excretion of Na and Increase excretion of Na and H20.
  • Increase reabsorption of calcium.

Blood Glucose

  • Increase due to hyper uric acid and Ammonia.

Spironolactone Mechanism

  • Block aldosterone receptor

Triamterene Mechanism

  • Block Na channel directly in the endothelial. ENAC inhibitor.
  • Collecting Duct a -Potassium-sparing diuretics primarily work where in the nephron?

Dopamine Receptors

  • Activation of D1 receptors by dopamine increases formation of what cellular 2nd messenger? Cyclic AMP increase

Beta receptors

  • Higher doses of dopamine agonists activate D1 adrenergic receptors increasing inotropy and cardiac output and B2 adrenergic receptors causing vasoconstriction.

Electrolyte Changes

  • Loops: Decrease potassium, sodium, magnesium and calcium.
  • Thiazides: Decrease potassium, sodium and magnesium, increase Calcium.
  • K+ Sparing: Increase potassium, Decrease sodium.

Risk Factors for Kidney Injury

  • Age
  • CHF
  • Surgical procedure being in peritoneum

Nephrotoxic Drug Classes

  • Aminoglycoside
  • Cephalosporin

Chemotherapeutics Worksheet

Cell Cycle Phases

  • G1
  • S
  • G2
  • Mitosis- Prophase/Metaphase/Anaphase/Telophase
  • G0 is a “resting” cell phase.

Phases of Mitosis

  • Prophase: Chromatin condenses into distinct chromosomes, which migrate towards the center of the cell. The nuclear envelope breaks down, and spindle fibers form.
  • Metaphase: The nuclear membrane disappears, the spindle develops, and chromosomes align.
  • Anaphase: Paired chromosomes (sister chromatids) separate, and spindle fibers lengthen the cell.
  • Telophase: Chromosomes are sectioned off into two distinct new nuclei with equal genetic content. Cytokinesis (division of the cytoplasm) begins after anaphase and finishes after telophase, forming two new cells.

Malignant Cells

  • Escape normal mechanisms for control of cellular division and growth True.

Metastasis

  • Malignant cell migration and invasion of other tissues.

Important Tumor Suppressor

  • C- P53

Telomeres

  • DNA “end caps” which lead to cellular aging

Chemotherapy Toxicity

  • Toxicity side effects are often related to rapidly dividing cell targets. Normal dividing cells like hair follicle and mucosal cell

Anesthetic Considerations for Immunosuppressed Cancer Patient.

  • Carry Aseptic methods
  • Use prophylactic antibiotics

Alkylating Agents

  • Act does not work on the cell –cycle phase Pulmonary side effects are Pneumonitis/Fibrosis/Decreased diffusion capacity.
  • Inhibit plasma cholinesterase activity.
  • Cardiotoxicity like Cyclophosphamide

Platinum Complexes

  • Works on solid tumor.
  • Mechanism of action is cross linking in DNA – disrupting its replication and division like Alkylating-like effect.
  • Cisplatin causes nephrotoxicity (Block box warning), ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy (Block box warning), Marked nausea and Vomiting (Black box warning), myelo suppression, and hypersensitivity reactions

Antimetabolites

  • Mimic cellular nutrient and inhibiting enzymes – nucleobases and dermatologic side effect Drug dermatologic side effects - Dermatitis/Pigmentation changes/Nail changes/Alopecia/Photosensitivity Other side effects - Bone marrow suppression, pulmonary toxicity, GI toxicity (stomatitis, ulceration, diarrhea, hemorrhagic enteritis, perforation), nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity (cirrhosis risk), CNS effects (cerebellar syndrome, drowsiness, fatigue).

Topoisomerase Inhibitors

  • Inhibits action of DNA.
  • Heart condition commonly caused by antitumor antibiotics like daunorubicin and Daunorubicin is CardiotoxicityMechanism for this cardiotoxicity is free radicals disrupt critical cardia proteins and cell membrane components
  • Pulmonary effect with Bleomycin is Pulmonary toxicity Anesthetic consideration of Minimizing crystalloids, considering colloids, and keeping FiO2 low (below 30% if possible – normal to room air)

Microtubule action effects

Microtubule inhibitors are active in M phase

  • Vinca Alkaloids
  • Taxanes Neuromuscular side effects of Microtubule sensory- motor neuropathy, areflexia, Paresthesia’s, Skeletal weakness, skeletal muscle pain, Ataxia Dexamethasone for edema and effusion Regional anesthesia in the patient taking microtubule inhibitors may worsen neuropathy.

Signal Transduction Modifier Hormones

Monoclonal antibodies target Autoimmune targets Autoimmune disease target specific cancer antigens or receptors · Autoimmune diseases monoclonal antibodies can treat Multiple sclerosis & rheumatoid arthritis · Hormones that have been associated with thromboembolic events and stroke Anti- estrogens like Tamoxifen (Boxed warning)

· Vaccines use Decrease the risk of having that cancer

MEMEORY

· Bleomycin damage to Pulmonary damage to due to free radical production in the presence of oxygen and iron/copper, causing endothelial and epithelial damage, leading to pulmonary fibrosis · Recommended O2 concentration for patients taking bleomycin is Not a 100 but above 90 (lower inhaled oxygen concentrations (below 30%) to avoid exacerbating lung damage in patients taking bleomycin. Source also mentions Maintaining O2 saturation over 90%,) · Cisplatin is toxic to Black box warning - vomiting/hypersensitivity reaction/ Myelosuppression/ Otoxicity · Doxorubicin Cardiotoxicity - -due to free radical formation disrupting cardiac proteins and cell membranes, leading to dose-related cardiomyopathy and arrhythmias

Immunologic Pharmacology Crossword

Across

  • Corneal
  • Vancomycin
  • Macrolides
  • Class 1
  • 16 ciprofloxacin
  • 20 aminoglycoside
  • One
  • Resistance
  • Cefazolin or Metronidazole

Down

  • Positive
  • Bera lactam
  • Trough
  • Clindamycin
  • Weakmess
  • Cefepime

Immunologic Worksheet

Antimicrobials

What are the 3 types of surgical site infection?

  • Superficial Incisional, Deep Incisional, Organ/Space

Name 3 endogenous risk factors for the development of an SSI. a. Corticosteroid use b. Preop skin prep (e.g. clipping, scrubbing c. Prolonged hospital stays d. Extremes of age e. Poor nutritional status f. Obesity g. Diabetes, Poor Perioperative glycemic control. h. Peripheral Vascular disease, i. Tobacco use (stopping 4-6 weeks before the surgery time) j. Current infection, k. altered immunity, corticosteroid use, l. Higher American Society of Anesthesiologist physical Status score m. Recent radiotherapy n. Hx of skin or soft tissue infection o. Obesity, alcoholism, preop albumin 1.0 mg/dl Immunosuppression

What is wound classification Class II called? i. Clean Contaminated and Usual sites are respiratory, gastrointestinal (GI), or genitourinary (GU) tracts

The SCIP-1 measure states vancomycin should be infused within 2hrs hours before incision.

Name 2 classes of beta-lactams. Carbapenems Monobactams Carbacephems Oxacephems Clavams SCIP-2 says antibiotics should be discontinued within 24hrs hours after surgery. When bacteria produce enzymes which can break down the structure of antibiotics, this is known as Bacterial Resistance. For beta-lactams, the enzyme is called Beta Lactamases True/False. Patients with a family history of penicillin allergy will inherit the allergy. False - inhibition of protein synthesis is drug of choice and surgical prophylactic is Cefazolin (Ancef) the dose IV dose in the patient who weighs 135 kg is 3g IV for pt >120 Kg

  • Gentamicin and classes aminoglycosides. Binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit of bacteria

Which common perioperative antibiotic belongs to the lincosamide class? Clindamycin (Cleocin) infused over minutes 10 to 60 recommended is 30 minutes.

Name 3 symptoms of red man syndrome Erythema, Pruritus, Hypotension

What are the side effects from administering metronidazole with alcohol? Abdominal disturbances, Nausea, Vomiting, Headache, and Flushing

Name 3 topical antiseptics used perioperatively. a. Chlorhexidine (Betadine, DuraPrep) b. Povidone Iodine (Betadine, DuraPrep) c. Iodine

Antiretroviral drugs

Which stage of HIV infection is associated with fever, chills, and muscle aches? a. How long does this stage last

entry inhibitors that block viral entry into entry into which cells

  • Zidovudine (AZT) competitively inhibits which enzyme? -True/False. AZT can be used in the HIV management of pregnant patients. Which class of antiretrovirals require a boosting agent
  • Name 2 anesthetic drugs which may be preferred to minimize drug interactions with these. Respiratory drugs crossword
Across
  • Infection and hyperglycemia are common side effects of this class of respiratory drugs
  • Airway fibrosis, alveolar destruction and mucus hypersecretion develop in this respiratory disorder
  • This may occur during light anesthesia (esp. in inflammatory airway disease) requiring use of bronchodilators
  • This IV anesthetic decreases pulmonary arterial pressure
  • Albuterol can cause this side effect related to skeletal muscle stimulation
  • Cromolyn sodium blocks degranulation of these inflammatory cells
  • Beta-2 receptor agonism leads to vascular and bronchial smooth muscle _______________ -Ipratropium may cause this common cardiovascular side effect
  • Work of breathing is increased as you decrease compliance and/or increase _______________
  • Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid that can be used alone to decrease inflammation in this disease
  • This inhaled drug directly increases guanylyl cyclase and relaxes smooth muscle
Down
  • Theophylline blocks this enzyme
  • Shunting is an example of mismatch between ventilation and __________________
  • This volume represents small airway collapse at low lung volumes
  • COPD patients experience an increase in this V/Q mismatch during sleep
  • Montelukast blocks conversion of arachidonic acid to these mediators
  • This volume is left in the lungs after maximal expiration
  • This preservative in propofol antagonizes its ability to block bronchoconstriction

Respiratory Worksheet

  • FRC Volume of air is at lung and use PEEp to improve on this volume
  • General anesthesia can cause partial alveolar closure or collapse known as atelectasis
Compliance
  • Change in lung volume for a given value Turbulent air flow and decreases in lung volumes increase airway resistance Physiologic Dead space = inspired air that does not enter (or participate in) gas exchanging alveoli

  • Shunt-Venous blood that returns to the heart without exposure to ventilated alveoli.

  • More O2 is offloaded to tissues (decreased affinity shifts RIGHT side with acidotic/ hyperthermia and increase of DPG

An oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve shift to the LEFT indicates an increased affinity for oxygen binding by hemoglobin.

  • 3 situations Hypothermia or Fetal hemoglobin or Alkalosis or Low DPG

  • COPD Elevate Paco2 & characterized with low low FEV1/FVC ratio and decreased Forced expiratory volume,Restrictive airway disease is characterized by a normal FEV1/FVC ratio and decreased forced expiratory volume. Asthma - is characteristized with inflammatory airway disease characterized by bronchospasm, edema, mucus secretion and proliferation of smooth muscle cells

Low flow oxygen delivery device - nasal canula & High Oxygen delivery devices Venturi mask delivery

  • Parasympathetic nerve Vagus. with neurotransmitter ACH activating the M 3 receptor resulting on bronchial constrictions

Sympathetic influence Airways Direct Muscle relation through B2 by NANC is in smooth relaxation, Shark Fin (More repsiratory rate)

Beta 2 agonist

  • Increase intracellular cAMP levels in smooth muscle vasodilation/broncodilation and tachycardia

Initial Acute bronchospasm is 4 to 6 Puff 15 Q 90 MCG Mucaranic antagonist blocks and decrease Ca + w/ Ipratro Theophyllene blocks both The toxicity is above 20 with Immunocompromisedinfoection and Hyperglacemia/ and Osteoprosis

Propofol - and Ketamine cause Bronco Dialation and Vascular Vascular with alpa 2 prostacyin /endothelin

CG MP effect ca inhibitors

  • k hyper polarization and activations

-Pulmonary hypertention is above 20 and Use sildenafil and Anticholinergics

E popro
  • increase the hormone which targets IP receptors gs protein – increase cAMP – smooth muscle relaxation = vasodilation Prostacycline

NEURO PHARMACOLOGY CROSSWORD

    1. Bradykinesia 9. Decrease 13. Droperidol 14. Dopamine 15. Glutamate 17. Post-dural 18. Hypoglycemia 19. Basal ganglia 22. Inactive 24. Inducers
    1. Keppra 2. Doxpram 3. Lewy bodies 4. Gabapentinoids 5. Tumors 7. Extrapyramidal 8. NDMR’s 10. HOTN 11. MAOI 12. Valproic Acid 16. Beta-blocker 17. Phenytoin 20. Diazepam 0.1mcg/ml Q 10 minutes not exceeding 30 mcg 21. Levodopa 23. Status epilepticus

NEURO PHARMACOLOGY WORKSHEET

Anti-Parkinsonian Restin tremors with stiffness / rigidity b/ bradykinesia and an unstable gate/shuffle Dopamine depletion/ excess of AcH activity Anesthesia consideration are Rigid & Bradykinesia of respiratory and pharyngeal muscles avoid Beta Blockers Cardiovascular side effects of Levodopa are Orthostatic hypotension & tachycardia Parkinsoniasm gives Levodopa for support care with AC and PLC

  • MAO-B antagonize the MOB from breaking down Dompamine & balances it with Anti cholestering
  • Anti emetic use DROPERIDOL not Anti epileptics and possible symptoms will give Loss of convulations and focal movements seizure, Aura - Postictal states promote spreads by hypo w/ dec and inc Increased dose of propofol /Midazolom Seizure is gaba inhibitor GABA will have no effect on kePpRa Keppra -htn decrease with dec Will need I’me Induce - will need inc CNS & down regulates catecholamine w/ Phenylephrine/ epi and vaso Stimulating Medullary with carid chemo - doxepam. Methylxanthines of effect adenosine / activates

What drugs can been given post duel to meth ·PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY CROSSWORD Acros ·a muscle relax that can be given to neuropleptic is dantrolene

· Typical

  • A extra paramidal caused the hypotalaum / extrapyamidal caused with BP

· Anticholinergic affects side effects · Avoid KETAMINE serotonin/ lithium

  • High food sodium
  • Increase requirements
  • Tyrmadine
  • Serti line

PsychoPham

S- Regulation outside the CNS

  • Peristalisis / Clitoting

CNS Regulation

  • Affective /social / Conitive

Serotonon Reuptake Inhibitors

Increases serotonen at the synapse Srs Have a black Box that related to thoughts populations drug given during Anesthic periods autonomic change and neuromuscular abilities

SN R1

Venaiaxe blocks

T

And

Btc

Axe And b block A Anesthesia

Glaucoma and heart issues Mayo-block down syndrome

- lithium

Increases inhibition

Haloperio 30 Causes in volantaire Restless Mussel ridigity

Nm

Mh

NM - the drug list Methylphenahte and Anxierty

5-Dietary Supplements-

  • *_ indications

  • major elective major a or trauma Burns, hepatic dysfunction Placement of Tube is for period or Bowl Condition by rapid intro tube feeds : hyper stim-

  • rapid administration of feeds can lead diarrhea Potential is pulmonary aspirations _should to for related long term Monitor fluids and electrolytes to the blood

  • *_A,D,E and K

  • Echinacea may cause with overactive autoimmune Cardiovascular is cause cardio instability- Should hold for garlic 35 hr or 7 days Warfarin with Ginger Ginkgo is increase bleeding Gluconse related can cause hypotemia

  • is increase related to increase Used to is anixety

Endocrome

Pathway the is is homeostasis and released which pituitary Glucagon and the to reduce 23 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. .a 25. 26. Replace for ACTH release inhibit it Etomodate Vasopressin release. stim.a vasopress, cortisol of splancher blood flow Vasopporesion Refractiory HOTN activation of receptor smooth release inhibit, B and

.a 27. .a 28. 29. .a 30. .a 31. .a 32. 33. 34.

hormone release in b. what glands, the glands & hormones), a. .aa b. what is released the adrenal, what and, which in hormone 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

The

is a from the

what a/effect what does cause

puzzlemaker is a for creates.s

Gastrointestinal Pharmacology Crossword

Across The antiemetic most common in anesthetic practice which may cause headache and QT prolongation. Trade name! Ondansetron. 1st Generation histamine receptor antagonists are known to cause the common side effect. sedation The nervous system stimulates GI tract motility and gastric fluid secretion - Parasympathetic. Oral antacids remove - ion Hormones & and acidity Factors affecting pulmonary aspiration risk volume. This neurotransmitter contracts muscle increases secretion Abbrev: histamine The neurotransmitter blocked Neurokinin This Proten is prodroms and is and. pantoprazale the as pain, in This benamamide motility

  • cells secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor or.
  • QTC blacked prolongations - butyrophenone Down - - brain born nausea, opiots used for delays the absorptions digestion has is with, and . is- and This The

-Gastrointestinal Pharmacology WORKSHEET

What : . What a. b. C.

the blood : .. : :. and (30- What of that are from

. • stores

  1. acute gastrtreis • 2) and • What are used for to are is • : : and • 1) . :. ..::3) • Are What 3 and a. C.. ..: C.. ..: i) H, . ., and What are the -

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