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Cross matching Lab 3
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Cross matching Lab 3

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Questions and Answers

What is the primary purpose of conducting a Complete Blood Count (CBC) on anesthetic patients?

  • To diagnose parasitic infections.
  • To evaluate the electrolyte balance.
  • To determine liver function.
  • To assess the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood. (correct)
  • Which type of autoclave uses a vacuum pump to improve steam penetration for sterilization?

  • Dry heat sterilizer
  • Flash sterilizer
  • Prevacuum sterilizer (correct)
  • Gravity displacement autoclave
  • What indicates the full sterilization of items in an autoclave?

  • Visible steam in the chamber.
  • All items are placed loosely in the chamber.
  • Items are dried after the cycle.
  • Proper color change in chemical indicators. (correct)
  • What relationship between temperature, pressure, and exposure time is critical for effective sterilization?

    <p>Correct balance ensures destruction of all living microorganisms.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test would you perform to confirm liver function abnormalities?

    <p>ALT test.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    To maintain accurate documentation of laboratory results, what is crucial?

    <p>Recording the time of each test performed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the time exposure at 121°C required for proper autoclave sterilization?

    <p>9-15 minutes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of indicator is primarily used to check the effectiveness of the autoclave process?

    <p>Chemical sterilization indicators.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What two main types of autoclaves are commonly used?

    <p>Gravity displacement and prevacuum sterilizers.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When analyzing RBC morphology, which abnormality might indicate a potential health issue?

    <p>Anisocytosis.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of examining the recipient’s RBCs before performing a cross-match?

    <p>To rule out auto-agglutination or hemolysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a step in the preliminary test of the cross-match procedure?

    <p>Perform a PCV/TP on both recipient and donor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What significant finding in the recipient’s blood indicates that further testing in the cross-match may not be necessary?

    <p>Presence of schistocytes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the centrifuge speed and time recommended for processing donor and recipient EDTA tubes?

    <p>3000 rpm for 5 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the cross-match procedure, why is it important to carefully remove only the plasma without disturbing the buffy coat or RBCs?

    <p>To minimize contamination of the plasma sample</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of cross-match involves testing the recipient’s plasma against the donor’s red blood cells?

    <p>Minor cross-match</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is true about centrifugation during the cross-match procedure?

    <p>It is used to separate different components of blood</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are schistocytes indicative of when seen in a recipient's blood?

    <p>Destruction of red blood cells by the body</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When performing the cross-match, what should be documented?

    <p>All observations throughout the procedure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it crucial to perform a saline wash on the EDTA tubes of the recipient and donor?

    <p>To remove any residual anticoagulant</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of adding 0.95 ml of saline to the blood in the cross-match procedure?

    <p>To create a saline solution that aids in evaluating agglutination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During the major cross-match, which components are combined in the D cells/R plasma tube?

    <p>1 drop of D cells and 2 drops of R plasma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be observed after centrifugation to confirm a compatible cross-match?

    <p>Clear supernatant liquid without agglutination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an important step to document after completing a cross-match procedure?

    <p>All steps and reactions observed during the procedure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the minor cross-match procedure, which specific components are used?

    <p>1 drop of R cells and 2 drops of D plasma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of incubating the tubes at room temperature for 20-30 minutes during cross-match testing?

    <p>To allow for optimal temperature for reactions between cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the outcome when agglutination occurs during a cross-match procedure?

    <p>The cross-match must be reported as incompatible</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is primarily assessed to ensure compatibility in the cross-match tests?

    <p>The occurrence of hemolysis and agglutination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it important to wash RBC samples multiple times in the cross-match procedure?

    <p>To remove any contaminants that may skew test results</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be checked for after centrifugation of the cross-match samples?

    <p>Gross hemolysis or evidence of agglutination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct procedure for a Major Cross-match?

    <p>Place 1 drop of Donor RBC cells and 2 drops of Recipient plasma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a positive result for auto-control in a blood crossmatch indicate?

    <p>Recipient auto-agglutination may be occurring</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the presence of schistocytes indicate regarding a patient's red blood cells?

    <p>Destruction of red blood cells is occurring</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method is considered the most effective for administering blood transfusions?

    <p>Intravenous</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of filtering blood products during administration?

    <p>Trap cellular debris and avoid adverse reactions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of the packed cell volume (PCV) during blood transfusion preparation?

    <p>To ensure the donor's PCV is high enough for effective transfusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What possible complication might arise if the recipient's blood is auto-agglutinating?

    <p>The transfusion may worsen the recipient's condition</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a Minor Cross-match, which components are mixed?

    <p>1 drop of Recipient RBC cells and 2 drops of Donor plasma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What patient condition is cryoprecipitate particularly indicated for?

    <p>Hemophilia A</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What laboratory technique is used to assess the morphology of red blood cells?

    <p>Microscopy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Lab Work

    • CBC & Chemistry should be performed on all anesthetic patients.
    • FECAL tests should be performed on all anesthetic patients.
    • HW or FeLV/FIV tests should be performed on all anesthetic patients.

    Autoclave

    • Chemical sterilization indicators are used when using autoclave bags
    • Autoclave tape, culture test indicators, and chemical sterilization indicators are forms of autoclave effectiveness testing.
    • Gravity displacement and prevacuum sterilizers are the two main types of autoclaves.
    • Gravity displacement introduces steam from the top of the chamber, forcing air to the bottom.
    • Prevacuum sterilizers evacuate air via vacuum pump prior to steam introduction, leading to faster and more even steam penetration.
    • Complete sterilization is achieved when all materials are exposed to steam at the correct temperature and duration.
    • 9-15 minutes of exposure at 121 degrees C (250 degrees F) are necessary to destroy all microorganisms.

    Cross Matching

    • Red blood cells (RBCs) are "washed" multiple times to remove extraneous elements like WBCs, microfilaria, platelets, and factor VII for accurate testing.
    • Coverslips help distinguish rouleaux from auto-agglutination by applying weight on the sample, potentially breaking apart rouleaux.
    • Auto-agglutination occurs when a recipient's RBCs clump together due to their own antibodies.
    • Schistocytes are fragmented RBCs, indicating that the patient's body is attacking its own cells.
    • Blood transfusions are contraindicated when the recipient's blood displays auto-agglutination or schistocytes.
    • The major cross-match involves mixing 1 drop of donor RBCs with 2 drops of recipient plasma.
    • The minor cross-match involves mixing 1 drop of recipient RBCs with 2 drops of donor plasma.
    • Agglutination during cross-matching indicates incompatibility.
    • Domestic shorthair cats are most commonly Type A blood.
    • Auto-controls in blood crossmatching help rule out recipient auto-agglutination.
    • Intravenous administration is the preferred route for blood transfusion therapy.
    • Blood product filtration traps cellular debris, minimizing adverse reactions.
    • Cryoprecipitate is used to treat hemophilia A.
    • Steam under pressure is the agent used for autoclave sterilization.

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    Description

    This quiz covers essential lab work and autoclave procedures for anesthetic patients. You will learn about necessary tests such as CBC, Chemistry, and FECAL tests, as well as the importance of chemical sterilization indicators and the different types of autoclaves. Understand the key concepts to ensure effective sterilization and patient safety.

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