Amino Acid Structure Quiz
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Questions and Answers

Which of the following applies to the structure of the isoleucine side chain?

  • Contains an aromatic ring
  • Contains a branched hydrocarbon chain (correct)
  • Contains the sulfhydryl group
  • Contains a positively charged side chain

Which of the following amino acids has the basic properties?

  • Histidine (correct)
  • Leucine
  • Tryptophan
  • Threonine

Stereoisomers exist for all amino acids, except: Glycine

True (A)

The primary structure of the protein is the ______ in a protein.

<p>linear sequence of amino acids joined by peptide bonds</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of bond is formed between the non-protein and protein part in the phosphoprotein molecule?

<p>Phosphoester (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the amino acid with its prevalence in the structure of collagen:

<p>Alanine = No Serine = No Lysine = No Glycine = Yes</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the isoelectric point?

<p>the pH at which the net charge of the protein is neutral</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the reaction of pentose phosphate pathway that is accompanied by dehydrogenation and decarboxylation:

<p>6-phosphogluconate → ribulose-5-phosphate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the reactions of glycolysis that are accompanied by isomerization:

<p>glucose-6-phosphate → fructose-6-phosphate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the correct sequence of the enzymes of pyruvate dehydrogenase complex:

<p>dihydrolipoyl transacetylase (A), dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase (B), pyruvate decarboxylase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the correct sequence of the coenzymes of multienzyme complex performing oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate:

<p>NAD+ (A), FAD (B), TPP (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the correct sequence of citrate cycle stages:

<p>substrate-level phosphorylation at a level of succinyl-CoA (A), succinate dehydrogenation (B), fumarate hydratation (C), malate dehydrogenation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the correct sequence of dehydrogenase reactions in Krebs cycle:

<p>isocitrate dehydrogenation (A), α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenation (B), conversion of succinate to fumarate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the possible causes of hyperenzymemia:

<p>Increased number of cells producing the enzyme (tumor) (A), Obstruction of ducts through which enzymes are excreted into the cavities (B), Damaged tissue (cell necrosis, inflammation) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Hypoenzymemia may be due to:

<p>Congenital enzyme deficiency (A), Presence of inhibitors of the enzyme activity (B), Decreased synthesis of enzymes resulted from the development of pathological process (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the correct answers about parietal digestion of carbohydrates:

<p>Lactose is broken down to glucose and galactose (A), Enzymes are located on the brush border of enterocytes (C), Maltose cleavage is catalyzed by maltase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During anaerobic glycolysis ATP is synthesized by the mechanism of substrate-level phosphorylation.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Synthesis of glucose from other organic non-carbohydrate compounds is called ________.

<p>Gluconeogenesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the biological role of the non-oxidative phase of the pentose phosphate pathway?

<p>Provides ribose-5-phosphate</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the factors necessary for the elongation of translation:

<p>GTP (B), aminoacyl-tRNA (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the factors necessary for the termination of translation:

<p>codons UAA, UGA or UAG (A), GTP (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose processes that require GTP energy during translation:

<p>attaching aminoacyl-tRNA to the aminoacyl center (A), movement of the ribosome along mRNA (B), formation of initiation complex (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

MRNA is involved in the processes of:

<p>transcription (A), translation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

TRNA is involved in the processes of:

<p>translation (B), recognition (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose main metabolic effect of insulin:

<p>lowers the blood glucose level (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone binds to nuclear receptors?

<p>Thyroxine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Identify the correct sequence of events in the cascade mechanism of hormonal signal transduction:

<p>the formation of second messenger (A), activation of protein kinase (B), the phosphorylation of proteins (enzymes) (C), the interaction of the hormone with a specific receptor (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Waxes are composed of:

<p>Esters of an alcohol and fatty acid (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Simple lipids include:

<p>Triacylglycerols (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Palmitic acid is a:

<p>Saturated fatty acid containing 16 carbon atoms (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cholesterol belongs to which classification of lipids?

<p>Unsaponifiable lipids (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are common structural components for mono-, di- and triacylglycerols?

<p>Residues of trihydric alcohol glycerol and fatty acids (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following are amphipathic lipids?

<p>Phospholipids and free cholesterol (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What region of phospholipid molecules is hydrophobic?

<p>Fatty acid residues attached to the alcohol (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are triacylglycerols completely insoluble in water?

<p>They do not include groups capable of dissociation or having polarity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The diagnosis confirmation was provided by the finding of high blood level of:

<p>Cortisol (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

All these effects are characteristic of insulin, except:

<p>It interacts with nuclear receptors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

All statements regarding insulin are true, except:

<p>Increases lipolysis in adipose tissue (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Insulin is necessary for transport of glucose to the following pair of tissues:

<p>Adipose tissue and skeletal muscle (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Binding of insulin to its receptor results in stimulation of enzyme activity, except for:

<p>Glycogen phosphorylase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Diabetes is characterized by all of the following metabolic changes, except:

<p>Stimulation of lipogenesis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Glucocorticoids have a catabolic effect on:

<p>Skeletal muscle (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

All the following compounds are produced in the liver, except:

<p>Chylomicrons (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

One of the main functions of the liver is to maintain blood glucose level. Even with the complete exclusion of carbohydrates from the diet, glucose blood level is maintained mainly due to:

<p>Gluconeogenesis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Unconjugated bilirubin in blood is transferred bound to albumin because:

<p>It is poorly soluble in water (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Feces normally contain:

<p>Stercobilin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Obstructive jaundice is accompanied by increasing blood level of:

<p>Direct bilirubin (C), Stercobilin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Hemolytic jaundice is accompanied by:

<p>Stercobilin increase in urine (C), Indirect bilirubin increase in the blood (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Decreased antitoxic function of the liver is accompanied by the following changes in the blood:

<p>Increasing indirect bilirubin (B), Increasing ammonia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

This reaction is used in the processes of: a) oxidative deamination b) indirect deamination of amino acids c) citric acid cycle d) ornithine cycle

<p>a, c (B), a, b (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the enzymes involved in the oxidative deamination of amino acids in the human body: a) oxidases of D-amino acids b) glutamate dehydrogenase c) α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase d) glutamine synthetase

<p>a, c (B), a, b (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose ketogenic amino acids: a) Gly b) Lys c) Leu d) Ala

<p>a, c (A), b, c (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose possible ways to use nitrogen-free products of the transamination and deamination reactions: a) the synthesis of new amino acids b) use as an energy source c) conversion to glucose d) conversion to nucleotides

<p>a, c, d (A), b, c, d (B), a, b, c (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Amino acids are the main substrates for gluconeogenesis in fasting. Choose the amino acid metabolites that can be used for the synthesis of glucose: a) pyruvate b) HMG-CoA c) acetoacetyl-CoA d) oxaloacetate

<p>b, d (A), a, b (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After a meal, amino acids are the primary energy producing substrates for hepatocytes. Choose the pathways which allow to use ALA as an energy source during this period: a) synthesis of ketone bodies b) transamination c) oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate d) TCA cycle

<p>b, c, d (A), a, b, d (C), a, b, c (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the correct answer. Hydrochloric acid in the stomach: a) cause denaturation of proteins b) has a bactericidal effect c) stimulates lipase d) cause activation of pepsinogen

<p>a, c, d (A), a, b, d (B), b, c, d (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose exopeptidases: a) carboxypeptidases A and B b) aminopeptidase c) trypsin d) elastase

<p>a, c (C), a, b (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the coenzyme of transaminases:

<p>Pyridoxal phosphate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose an enzyme involved in the neutralization of biogenic amines:

<p>Oxidase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the compound that is formed from aspartate in the transamination reaction:

<p>Oxaloacetate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Histamine is formed in the process of:

<p>Decarboxylation of His (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the function of GABA:

<p>Inhibitory transmitter in the central nervous system (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

From these statements, choose the one that characterizes the serotonin:

<p>It is a transmitter in the central nervous system (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the correct ending of the sentence. Aminotransferases:

<p>Use pyridoxal phosphate as a coenzyme (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which vitamin is a part of coenzyme that is used by amino acid decarboxylases?

<p>Pyridoxine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Catecholamines are synthesized from:

<p>Tyrosine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What disease is caused by the deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase?

<p>Phenylketonuria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Melanin is synthesized from:

<p>Tyrosine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme catalyzes the following reaction: Pyruvate + Glutamate ↔ Alanine + α-Ketoglutarate

<p>Alanine aminotransferase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the missing component to the ornithine cycle reaction:

<p>? = arginine</p> Signup and view all the answers

Select the appropriate enzyme for the ornithine cycle reaction: citrulline + aspartate → argininosuccinate

<p>argininosuccinate synthetase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The final product of detoxification of ammonia in the liver is:

<p>urea (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Select the cause of elevated level of urea in blood:

<p>renal failure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the amino acid that participates in the formation of disulfide bonds:

<p>cysteine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the amino acid that is a precursor of catecholamines:

<p>tyrosine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Select the altered chemical reaction in patients with alcaptonuria:

<p>homogentisate → fumarylacetoacetate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the enzyme that catalyzes the reaction Glu + NH3 + ATP → Gln +ADP + H3PO4:

<p>glutamine synthetase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the correct statement:

<p>carbamoylphosphate synthetase I neutralizes ammonia in the liver (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Select the pathology associated with DOPA decarboxylase deficiency:

<p>Parkinson's disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What transformations occur during post-transcriptional mRNA processing? Match each process to its description:

<p>a, b = splicing, capping, polyadenylation b, d = repression, emulsification a, c = splicing, polyadenylation</p> Signup and view all the answers

The diagnosis confirmation was provided by the finding of high blood level of:

<p>Cortisol (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

All these effects are characteristic of insulin, except:

<p>It interacts with nuclear receptors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

All statements regarding insulin are true, except:

<p>Increases lipolysis in adipose tissue (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Insulin is necessary for transport of glucose to the following pair of tissues:

<p>Adipose tissue and skeletal muscle (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Binding of insulin to its receptor results in stimulation of enzyme activity, except for:

<p>Glycogen phosphorylase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Diabetes is characterized by all of the following metabolic changes, except:

<p>Stimulation of lipogenesis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Glucocorticoids have a catabolic effect on:

<p>Skeletal muscle (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

All the following compounds are produced in the liver, except:

<p>Chylomicrons (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

One of the main functions of the liver is to maintain blood glucose level. Even with the complete exclusion of carbohydrates from the diet, glucose blood level is maintained mainly due to:

<p>Gluconeogenesis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Unconjugated bilirubin in blood is transferred bound to albumin because:

<p>It is poorly soluble in water (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Indirect bilirubin is produced in:

<p>Macrophages (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ethanol oxidation has the following characteristics:

<p>Occurs mostly in the liver (A), Can be catalyzed by microsomal ethanol oxidizing system (MEOS) (B), Catalyzed by alcohol dehydrogenase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Obstructive jaundice is accompanied by increasing blood level of:

<p>Direct bilirubin (B), Stercobilin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Hemolytic jaundice is accompanied by:

<p>Stercobilin increase in urine (A), Indirect bilirubin increase in the blood (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Hepatic jaundice is accompanied by:

<p>Appearing of urobilin in urine (A), Increased alanine aminotransferase activity in serum (B), Increased direct bilirubin in the blood (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Hageman factor:

<p>Is a serine protease (A), Is activated after contact with a surface different from normal endothelium (B), Is activated after contact with the membrane of activated platelets (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Initiation complex of extrinsic pathway of coagulation contains:

<p>Сa2+ (B), Factor VII (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Tenase complex contains:

<p>Factor VIIIa (A), Factor IXa (C), Ca2+ (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the correct statements about role of calcium ions (factor IV) in blood coagulation:

<p>Activate some plasma clotting factors (B), Provide binding of factors II, VII, IX, X on the plasma membrane of the activated platelets (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Antithrombin III:

<p>Is a natural primary anticoagulant (B), Irreversibly inhibits most of serine proteases of coagulation system (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The anticoagulant activity of heparin is based on:

<p>Its ability to activate antithrombin III (B), Its ability to perform non-enzymatic fibrinolysis (C), Its ability to form unstable complexes with some clotting factors, thus limiting their participation in coagulation process (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the plasminogen activators:

<p>Protein С (S) (A), Urokinase (B), Tissue plasminogen activator (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Protein C:

<p>Hydrolyses factor Va (A), Is activated by protein S (B), Is a serine protease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Factor Xa:

<p>Is a vitamin K-dependent protein (A), Its activity depends on the amount of factor VIII (B), Is a constituent of prothrombinase complex (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Factor XIII:

<p>Is a transpeptid (B), Cleaves fibrinogen (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Vitamin K takes part in the synthesis of γ-carboxyglutamate in:

<p>Factor Х (A), Factor VII (B), Factor II (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Plasma proteins have all these functions, except:

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Albumins perform all of the following functions, except:

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Haptoglobin - is:

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Paraproteinemia - is:

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The reduced content of haptoglobin in blood results in:

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the correct statements regarding the formation of ketone bodies:

<p>Ketone bodies are synthesized from acetyl-CoA (C), Acetone is a product of acetoacetate decarboxylation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In diabetes, ketosis could develop due to the following reasons:

<p>Oxaloacetate deficiency and decreased utilization of acetyl-CoA in Krebs cycle (B), Reduced insulin concentration and raised glucagon level in blood (C), Reduced rate of fatty acid synthesis because of NADPH.H+ lacking (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For ketone bodies utilization, the following conditions are required:

<p>Sufficient level of oxaloacetate in cells to ensure the functioning Krebs cycle (B), Presence of mitochondria in cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the correct statements regarding the ketone bodies:

<p>Ketosis develops when 'insulin/glucagon' ratio in blood decreases (A), Synthesis of ketone bodies increases in diabetes and fasting (B), Erythrocytes use ketone bodies as an energy source (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Liberation of arachidonic acid from membrane phospholipids catalyzed by phospholipase A2 is inhibited by:

<p>Glucocorticoids (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Anti-inflammatory activity of aspirin is based on inhibition of:

<p>Cyclooxygenase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Key enzyme in leukotriene synthesis is:

<p>Lipoxygenase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Amino Acid Structure

  • Isoleucine side chain contains a branched hydrocarbon chain
  • Phenylalanine side chain contains an aromatic ring
  • Methionine side chain contains a sulfomethyl group
  • Histidine has basic properties
  • Glycine is the only amino acid that does not have stereo-isomers
  • Lysine, arginine, and histidine have no charge in a weakly alkaline medium
  • All hydrophobic amino acids except lysine have no charge

Protein Structure

  • Primary structure: linear sequence of amino acids joined by peptide bonds
  • Primary structure is stabilized by peptide bonds
  • Basis of the protein primary structure is the polypeptide chain
  • Tertiary structure: arrangement of the entire polypeptide chain in space
  • Factors that form the protein tertiary structure: water environment, hydrophobic interactions, and ionic bonds
  • Quaternary structure: location of protomers and the character of bonds between them in an oligomeric protein

Protein-Ligand Interactions

  • Western blot analysis involves antigen-antibody interactions
  • Protein-ligand interactions are complementary in shape and charge
  • Myoglobin has a non-protein part (heme) that binds to globin via a coordination bond
  • In lipoproteins, hydrophobic bonds are formed between lipid and protein parts
  • In nucleoproteins, ionic bonds are formed between nucleic acid and protein parts

Protein Stability and Denaturation

  • Factors affecting protein stability: charge of the protein molecule, hydration shell, and molecular weight
  • Denaturation involves the destruction of non-covalent bonds, including hydrogen, ionic, and disulfide bonds
  • Denaturation leads to changes in protein solubility, loss of function, and changes in non-covalent bonds

Enzymes

  • Characteristics of enzymes: high specificity, high efficiency, and optimal pH and temperature
  • Factors affecting enzyme activity: substrate concentration, enzyme concentration, pH, temperature, and inhibitors
  • Competitive inhibitors bind to the active site, while non-competitive inhibitors bind to an allosteric site
  • Allosteric effectors can be activators or inhibitors, and their action can be reversed by increasing substrate concentration
  • Coenzymes: NAD+, NADP+, FMN, and FAD are coenzymes of oxidoreductases
  • Enzyme regulation: feedback inhibition, allosteric regulation, and covalent modification

Enzyme Kinetics

  • Michaelis-Menten constant (Km) is the substrate concentration at which the reaction rate is half-maximal
  • Km value indicates the enzyme's affinity for the substrate
  • Lineweaver-Burk graph: built in the double reciprocals of enzymatic reaction rate and substrate concentration
  • Types of enzyme inhibitors: competitive, non-competitive, and uncompetitive

Enzyme Classification

  • Oxidoreductases: catalyze oxidation-reduction reactions
  • Transferases: catalyze the transfer of a functional group
  • Hydrolases: catalyze the hydrolysis of a covalent bond
  • Ligases: catalyze the formation of a covalent bond
  • Lyases: catalyze the cleavage of a covalent bond without hydrolysis
  • Isomerases: catalyze the rearrangement of a molecule### Enzymes
  • A quaternary structure refers to the arrangement of multiple polypeptide chains (subunits) in an enzyme
  • Enzymes have 4 isoenzyme forms
  • Lactate dehydrogenase catalyzes the reaction of reversible conversion of pyruvate to lactate
  • Oxidoreductases, like lactate dehydrogenase, catalyze oxidation and reduction reactions
  • Enzymes can be used as drugs, but their use is limited by their short duration of action, high specificity, low stability, and difficulty in obtaining highly purified preparations

Enzyme Leaks

  • Enzyme leakage from the cell into the blood is influenced by:
    • Size of enzyme molecules
    • Presence of enzyme activators
    • Intracellular localization of enzymes
    • Enzyme life-time

Immobilized Enzymes

  • Advantages of immobilized enzymes over non-immobilized enzymes:
    • Reusability
    • Increased stability
    • Directional transport (targeted delivery)

Urine Diastase

  • Urine diastase is:
    • A diagnostic test for pancreatic diseases
    • Measures amylase activity in urine
    • Not a measure of starch or its cleavage products in urine

Treatment of Septic Wounds

  • Enzymes used in treatment of septic wounds:
    • Trypsin
    • Deoxyribonuclease
    • Not alkaline phosphatase or amylase

Pancreatic Autolysis

  • Activation of trypsin and other enzymes can lead to pancreatic autolysis

Indicator Enzymes

  • Indicator enzymes are:
    • Enzymes whose increased activity in plasma indicates pathology in internal organs and tissues
    • Examples: aminotransferases, lactate dehydrogenase, creatine kinase

Aerobic Glycolysis

  • Reaction of aerobic glycolysis associated with oxidative phosphorylation:
    • Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate + NAD+ + H3PO4 → 1,3-Diphosphoglycerate + NADH

Gluconeogenesis

  • Gluconeogenesis is the synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources
  • Gluconeogenesis involves the reversal of glycolysis, with some modifications
  • Phosphofructokinase is not a gluconeogenic enzyme

Glycogenolysis

  • Glycogenolysis is the breakdown of glycogen to glucose
  • Glycogen phosphorylase cleaves α-1,4-glycosidic bonds in glycogen

Glycogen Synthesis

  • Glycogen synthase catalyzes the formation of α-1,4-glycosidic bonds in glycogen
  • The inclusion of 1 mole of glucose into glycogen requires 6 moles of high-energy compounds

Phosphofructokinase

  • Phosphofructokinase catalyzes the phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-diphosphate

Glycolysis

  • Pyruvate kinase catalyzes the conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate
  • During anaerobic glycolysis, NADH is oxidized to NAD+ while reducing pyruvate to lactate
  • During aerobic glycolysis, NADH is oxidized to NAD+ in the electron transport chain

Glucose Transport

  • Insulin-dependent glucose transporters are present in:
    • Adipose tissue
    • Skeletal muscles

Indigestible Polysaccharides

  • Indigestible polysaccharides include:
    • Cellulose
    • Pectins
    • Not glycogen or lactulose

Carbohydrate Metabolism

  • Stages of aerobic glucose oxidation to end products (CO2 and H2O):
    • Glycolysis
    • Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate
    • Tricarboxylic acid cycle

Pentose Phosphate Pathway

  • The pentose phosphate pathway:
    • Generates NADPH in the cytosol
    • Provides ribose-5-phosphate for nucleic acid synthesis
    • Involves the reduction of NADP+

Uronic Acid Pathway

  • The uronic acid pathway:
    • Provides UDP-glucuronic acid for detoxification of xenobiotics and biosynthesis of glycosaminoglycans
    • Involves the oxidation of glucose to glucuronic acid

Glucose-6-Phosphatase Deficiency

  • Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency leads to:
    • Von Gierke's disease
    • Impaired glycogenolysis and glucose release from the liver

Blood Glucose Regulation

  • Insulin decreases blood glucose by:
    • Stimulating glycolysis
    • Inhibiting gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis
  • Glucagon and epinephrine increase blood glucose by:
    • Stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
    • Inhibiting glycolysisHere are the study notes:
  • Lipid Metabolism*

Fatty Acid Oxidation

  • Electron Transport Chain: Uncoupling of tissue respiration and phosphorylation occurs due to increasing the permeability of the inner mitochondrial membrane to protons.
  • Inhibitors of Cytochrome c Oxidoreductase: Cyanides bind to the iron atoms of cytochromes a and a3, inhibiting tissue respiration.

Regulation of Lipid Metabolism

  • Regulatory Enzymes of Citric Acid Cycle: Isocitrate dehydrogenase is the regulatory enzyme of the citric acid cycle.
  • Inhibitor of Regulatory Enzymes: ATP is an inhibitor of regulatory enzymes of the citric acid cycle.

Lipid Structure and Classification

  • Triacylglycerols: Consist of a glycerol backbone and three fatty acid chains.
  • Phospholipids: Amphipathic molecules composed of a glycerol backbone, two fatty acid chains, and a phosphate group.
  • Lecithin: A type of phospholipid with a choline head group.
  • Sphingomyelin: A type of phospholipid with a sphingosine backbone and a choline head group.
  • Styrene: A type of simple lipid.
  • Cholesterol: A type of unsaponifiable lipid.

Lipid Digestion and Absorption

  • Lipases: Pancreatic lipase hydrolyzes triacylglycerols into fatty acids and glycerol.
  • Micelle Formation: Bile salts facilitate the formation of micelles, which are absorbed into enterocytes.

Fatty Acid Synthesis

  • Acetyl-CoA Carboxylase: The key enzyme in fatty acid synthesis, catalyzing the reaction of acetyl-CoA and CO2 to form malonyl-CoA.
  • NADPH: The coenzyme required for fatty acid synthesis.

Cholesterol Synthesis

  • Mevalonate: An intermediate in cholesterol synthesis.
  • Farnesyl Pyrophosphate: An intermediate in cholesterol synthesis, with 15 carbon atoms.

Eicosanoids

  • Arachidonic Acid: The precursor for eicosanoid synthesis.
  • Thromboxanes: Involved in platelet aggregation.

Let me know if you'd like me to clarify or expand on any of these points!

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