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Questions and Answers

What is a primary characteristic of allergens?

  • They are exclusively synthetic compounds.
  • They are innocuous environmental antigens that trigger an exaggerated immune reaction. (correct)
  • They elicit a normal immune response.
  • They are solely derived from injected materials.

Sensitization to an inhaled allergen involves which sequence of events?

  • Antigen presentation by APCs, activation of T cells, IgE production, and mast cell binding. (correct)
  • Inhibition of T cell activation, leading to tolerance.
  • Immediate degranulation of basophils upon allergen exposure.
  • Direct activation of mast cells followed by IgE production.

In an asthmatic response to an inhaled allergen, what characterizes the immediate phase?

  • An initial decrease in expiratory flow rate within 30 minutes of exposure. (correct)
  • Resolution of symptoms without intervention.
  • A slow, progressive increase in expiratory flow rate.
  • A reaction occurring after 6-48 hours, mediated by T cells.

What is the primary immunological mechanism behind late-phase allergic reactions?

<p>T cell-mediated inflammation and cytokine production. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale behind allergy skin tests?

<p>To observe if an individual exhibits symptoms when exposed to a specific allergen. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes an in vivo test for allergy?

<p>Performing an allergy skin test. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of 'allergy shots' (hyposensitization) in treating allergies?

<p>They involve regular administration of increasing doses of allergenic extracts. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of an allergist or pharmacist when evaluating a patient for a potential allergy?

<p>To determine if the adverse reaction is an allergy and, if so, identify the specific allergens. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When performing allergy skin tests for immediate hypersensitivity, how long should one wait to observe the reaction?

<p>15-30 minutes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of allergy test is used to confirm allergens involved in allergic contact dermatitis?

<p>Patch Test (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of non-standardized allergenic extracts?

<p>There are no US reference standards for them. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of the 'Classic View' of infection?

<p>The parasite and its interaction with anti-infective drugs. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the 'Triad of Infection'?

<p>The contributions of the parasite, host, and drug. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of virulence factors in parasites?

<p>They enable parasites to more effectively invade and thrive in the host. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of infectious diseases, what does 'immunopathology' refer to?

<p>The contribution of the host's immune response to the disease. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary characteristic of opportunistic infections?

<p>They are caused by microorganisms with low pathogenicity in immunocompromised individuals. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the host's immune response play in patient recovery from an infection?

<p>It is the primary factor, potentially assisted by anti-infectives to reduce parasite load. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main goal of anti-infective therapy?

<p>To alter the host-parasite balance in favor of the host. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of non-specific host defenses in combating infectious diseases?

<p>They are of vital importance and cannot be overemphasized. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is most crucial for a parasite's pathogenicity?

<p>Its ability to survive and thrive in the host. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might antimicrobial activity be less effective in vivo compared to in vitro?

<p>Because of poor drug distribution and rapid metabolism/excretion in the body. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary target of anti-infective therapy?

<p>To alter the host-parasite balance in favor of the host. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an example of a toxigenic infection?

<p>Tetanus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the critical difference between exotoxins and endotoxins?

<p>Exotoxins are secreted proteins, while endotoxins are cell wall constituents. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do antibodies protect against toxigenic infections?

<p>By neutralizing the toxin with toxin-neutralizing IgG or antitoxin. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What component of endotoxin is responsible for inducing a strong immune response leading to septic shock?

<p>Lipid A (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of IgM bacteriolysins in protection against endotoxins?

<p>They cause lysis of Gram-negative bacteria (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What bacterial characteristic is most likely to increase its survival in extracellular infection?

<p>Ability to produce an anti-phagocytic capsule (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of SIgA proteases during extracellular infection?

<p>They promote bacterial attachment to the host cell (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is the most critical characteristic of facultative intracellular bacteria?

<p>The ability to survive, replicate, and grow outside and inside of host cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of Immunity response do facultative intracellular bacteria incite to assist with the healing process?

<p>Cell Mediated Immunity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes obligate intracellular bacteria?

<p>Can only replicate within the cell of a eukaryotic or prokaryotic cell. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a major virus interaction during obligate intracellular infection?

<p>Acute (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most critical determinant of pathology in viral disease?

<p>Tissue tropism of the virus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of Interferon in General Immunologic Principles of Virus Infection?

<p>A major nonspecific defense mechanism. - NK and T cells contribute (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary rationale for conducting allergy skin tests?

<p>To observe if an individual exhibits symptoms when exposed to a specific allergen. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In allergy skin testing, what is typically considered a positive result for IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity?

<p>The presence of a wheal and flare reaction at the site of allergen exposure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a limitation of using food allergens in cutaneous allergy testing?

<p>They are generally not highly reliable. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary readout for allergy skin tests evaluating delayed hypersensitivity?

<p>Erythema at the site of allergen exposure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do antihistamines (H1 antagonists) affect immediate hypersensitivity skin tests?

<p>They can suppress skin test reactions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the effect of oral corticosteroids on allergy skin tests?

<p>They have little effect on immediate skin tests but may depress cell-mediated reactions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of allergy diagnostics, what is the purpose of RAST, MAST, and FAST tests?

<p>To measure allergen-specific IgE antibodies in a blood sample. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of a provocative test in the diagnosis of allergies?

<p>To assess the responsiveness of a target tissue to increasing doses of an allergen under controlled conditions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of 'elimination' in the context of allergy testing and management?

<p>To identify and remove a particular allergen to see if the patient's symptoms improve. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main principle behind immunotherapy using allergenic extracts?

<p>To administer increasing doses of allergenic extracts, modifying the immune response. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of successful allergen-specific immunotherapy on IgE and IgG4 levels over time?

<p>Decrease in IgE levels and increase in IgG4 levels. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of non-specific host defenses in combating infection?

<p>To provide a broad range of protective mechanisms effective against many different pathogens. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the 'classic view' of infection, what is the primary cause of disease?

<p>The pathogenicity of the parasite. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of the 'Triad of Infection', what three components are considered to be in a dynamic relationship?

<p>Parasite, host, and drug/therapy. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term describes the host's response to an infection that contributes to tissue damage and disease?

<p>Immunopathology. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic that distinguishes opportunistic infections from other types of infections?

<p>They only occur in individuals with compromised immune systems. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main goal of anti-infective therapy in the context of the host-parasite relationship?

<p>To alter the host-parasite balance of power in favor of the host. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What component of the host's immune system causes lysis of gram-negative bacteria?

<p>IgM bacteriolysins (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What bacterial structure is an important virulence factor that protects against phagocytosis?

<p>Anti-phagocytic capsule (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During extracellular infection, which of the following describes the function of bacterial SIgA proteases?

<p>They aid in the attachment to epithelial receptors. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical immune response for facultative intracellular bacteria?

<p>Cell-mediated immunity (CMI). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the four frames of reference for host-parasite interactions, which type requires the infectious agent to use host cell mechanisms to replicate?

<p>Obligate intracellular infection (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following immune responses are important to prevent reinfection?

<p>sIgA and/or serum IgG (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which measure can be taken to minimize exposure to allergens?

<p>Avoiding exposure to the specific allergen (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not an example of Immunologic Diagnostic Tests for Allergy?

<p>Minimizing exposure to allergens (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the goal of first determining with a patient that might have an allergic reaction?

<p>If the disease is allergy and, if so, what are the specific allergens? (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the importance of the Physical Examination step in diagnosing allergies?

<p>Determine if there are any temporal relationships (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the Physical Examination step in relation to a patient's history?

<p>A thorough physical examination is usually required as a follow-up to the history to help rule out other causes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do weight/volume (w/v) units express regarding allergenic extracts?

<p>The weight of the original material extracted (grams) per the current volume (ml) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following FDA approved Sublingual immunotherapy treats house dust mite allergies?

<p>Odactra (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the name of the FDA approved Oral immunotherapy that treats peanut-induced allergy?

<p>Palforzia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what manner is the 'detailed history' step in the diagnosis of allergies?

<p>Essential! (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the role of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) in the sensitization phase of an allergic reaction to an inhaled allergen?

<p>Capturing, processing, and presenting the allergen to T cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which immunotherapy aims to reduce allergic reactions over time?

<p>Increasing the levels of allergen-specific IgG4 antibodies. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do oral corticosteroids primarily influence allergy skin test results for delayed hypersensitivity reactions?

<p>Suppress cell-mediated reactions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST accurate description of allergenic extracts used in allergy testing and therapy?

<p>Aqueous solutions of allergens for diagnosis and therapy produced for particular patient profiles. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Weight/volume (w/v) concentrations are used to express the strength of allergenic extracts. What does a higher w/v ratio indicate?

<p>A greater weight of allergen per volume of solution. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with known seasonal allergies undergoes allergy skin testing. Which of the following observations would indicate a positive result for an IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reaction?

<p>The appearance of a wheal and flare within 15-30 minutes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the primary objective of provocative allergy testing?

<p>To assess the responsiveness of target tissues to increasing doses of a specific allergen. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key difference between standardized and non-standardized allergenic extracts?

<p>Standardized extracts have established US reference standards for potency and composition. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to allergen profiles, after a patient's history is conducted an allergist may want to remove some common allergens from a preliminary test, but they would most likely:

<p>Add other allergens that may be suspected. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While anti-infective therapy is geared towards removing an infection, according to the 'Emphasis on the Host and Host-Parasite interaction' view, what else is paramount towards patient recovery?

<p>Bolstering the host's immune defenses. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of the 'triad of infection', how do the host, parasite, and therapy interact?

<p>They are in a dynamic relationship where changes in one affect the others. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are some key characteristics of the 'classic view' on infection

<p>Posits the pathogen's pathogenicity as the primary cause of disease. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of host-pathogen interactions, what is the MOST critical determinant of whether a microorganism will cause disease?

<p>The microorganism's ability to survive and thrive in the host environment. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A bacteria survives an extracellular infection due to a capsule. How does one of the functions of the capsule assist with extracellular infection?

<p>Inhibits complement activation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference between host responses to extracellular versus obligate intracellular infections?

<p>Host response to extracellular infections can result in collateral damage induced by the antibody and complement-mediated killing. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are anti-infectives potentially less effective in vivo compared to in vitro?

<p>Drug distribution and metabolism complexities. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the characteristics of exotoxins?

<p>They are soluble proteins secreted by Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are exotoxins generally managed or treated?

<p>Using active immunization with toxoids for prophylaxis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is indicated by the presence of Lipid A?

<p>Presence of a gram-negative bacteria (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic of certain cancer-causing infectious agents explains why some infections may be asymptomatic initially but have significant long-term adverse effects?

<p>Cause tissue damage that may take years to manifest as disease. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most important attribute of facultative intracellular bacteria?

<p>Ability to survive and replicate both inside and outside of host cells. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which immune response is MOST effective against facultative intracellular bacteria?

<p>Cell-mediated immunity (CMI). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do opportunistic infections arise, particularly in immunocompromised individuals?

<p>Infections caused by microorganisms with low pathogenicity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a primary function of the host's inflammatory response to a parasitic infection?

<p>Contributing to tissue damage and disease. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the role of B lymphocytes during immune response?

<p>Producing antibodies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a general approach to infectious disease?

<p>Immune Status of the Host (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the "review of systems" part of gathering the patient's history important?

<p>To rule out underlying conditions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the FIRST step in diagnosing possible allergies in patients?

<p>Ruling out if the adverse reaction is infact an allergy. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the responses relates BEST to the FDA approved sublingual immunotherapies?

<p>Oralair and Grastek treats allergies associated with Mixed grass pollen-induced allergic rhinitis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many FDA approved Standardized allergenic extracts are there?

<p>19 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to establish the temporal relationship of the patient's symptoms during physical examination?

<p>To establish temporal relationships and rule out other causes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an advantage of using in vitro allergy tests?

<p>Reduced risk of systemic reactions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What kind of tests should an allergist perform to confirm allergens involved in atopic dermatitis?

<p>Patch Tests (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

What is an Allergy?

An exaggerated immune response to harmless environmental substances.

What are Allergens?

Allergens are inhaled, injected, ingested, or contacted substances that cause allergic reactions.

Allergen Sensitization

Allergen is processed by antigen-presenting cells, presented to T cells, activating IgE production.

Allergic Reaction Mechanism

Immediate reaction after re-exposure involving mast cell degranulation releasing inflammatory mediators, causing Type I hypersensitivity.

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Allergy Diagnosis Steps

Allergy is diagnosed via comprehensive history, physical exam, and immunologic tests.

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Purpose of Allergy Skin Tests

Allergy skin tests detect IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reactions to allergens.

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Cutaneous Allergy Testing.

Cutaneous allergy test administering allergen via prick or scratch, observing for wheal and flare.

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Intradermal Allergy Tests

Intradermal allergy test involves injecting allergen intradermally to assess reaction.

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Delayed Hypersensitivity test

Delayed Hypersensitivity Tests assesses cell-mediated immune responses, observing for erythema.

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Provocative Allergy Tests

Provocative tests involve controlled allergen exposure and assessing target tissue response.

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Allergy Therapy Components

Treatment minimizing allergen exposure, symptomatic drugs and immunotherapy.

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What is Immunotherapy?

Immunotherapy involves regular allergen administration, leading to desensitization or hyposensitization.

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Allergenic Extracts

Aqueous allergen solutions used for allergy diagnosis and therapy.

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Non-standardized Extracts

Not standardized allergenic extracts lacking US reference standards, differing among manufacturers.

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Triad of Infection

The infectious disease outcome depends on host, parasite, and drug interaction.

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Pathogenicity and Disease

Disease occurs when a pathogen’s ability to cause damage overcomes host defenses.

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Immunopathology

Host response to infection can contribute to disease manifestation.

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Allergy Therapy Components

Minimize Allergan Exposure, use symptomatic drugs and immunotherapy.

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Host Immune Response

Host's innate/adaptive immune response, inflammation, and memory after pathogen exposure.

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Microorganism Exposure

Normal flora and transient microbes of the human body are normal but can cause issues.

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Parasite requirement for Pathogenicity

Ability to survive and thrive in the host is critical for a parasite’s pathogenicity.

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Infection Types

Toxigenic, extracellular, facultative intracellular, and obligate intracellular.

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Bacterial Virulence factors

Bacterial surface components help to invade the host and cause disease.

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What are Exotoxins?

A soluble protein synthesized and secreted by bacteria.

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What are Endotoxins (LPS)?

A part of cell wall constituent of all gram-negative bacteria.

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Septic Shock Treatment

Antibodies (IgM bacteriolysins and IgG capsular antibodies) and anti-inflammatory products.

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What is an Extracellular infection?

A bacterial infection that lives outside the cell.

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What is a Facultative intracellular infection?

Can grow and multiply inside or outside of cells.

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What is an Obligate Intracellular?

A bacterial infection cannot replicate outside of a host cell.

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Tissue Tropism for Viruses

The ability of a virus to infect a particular cell type or tissue.

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How pathogens are defended against?

Innate immunity, inflammation, adaptive immunity, protective immunity are all ways to defend against pathogens.

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Allergen-Specific Immunotherapy Effects

Antigen-specific T cells and effector cells are generated, an increase in IgG4 occurs, and mast cell/eosinophil activity decreases.

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Allergy Skin Test Principle

Individual displays allergenic symptoms upon allergen exposure.

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Provocation Testing

Target tissue is challenged with increasing allergen doses to assess reactivity.

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Diagnosis goals for allergy

Goal is to establish that a disease is allergy (immunologic reaction) & determine the specific allergen(s)

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B cell contribution in Atopy

B cells become allergen-specific IgE factories and produce large amounts of IgE antibody.

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What is a pathogen?

A disease-causing agent.

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What is the Triad Of Infection about?

The triad includes the contributions of parasite, host and drug.

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What is disease pathogenicity?

The ability of microorganisms to cause disease by overcoming the body's defense.

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What causes Infections?

Host defenses are overcome, breaching immunity's lines.

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What is Immunopathology?

The host response to infection can cause this.

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What is Host Defense based upon

Normal Immunity and Normal Physiology

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What is Innate Immunity?

Non-specific host defenses are vital.

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Requirements for Pathogenicity

Ability to survive and thrive in the host.

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What is Therapy?

Anti-infectives to enhance host's advantage against pathogen.

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What is Atopy?

A condition where the immune system reacts disproportionately to harmless environmental antigens.

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Common Allergens

Plant pollens, dust mite feces, insect venom, drugs, peanuts, shellfish, plant oil and metal.

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Allergic Reaction Timing

Immediate reaction occurs within 30 minutes whereas late reaction occurs after 6-48 hrs.

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In vitro Allergy Tests

IgE tests in blood include RAST, MAST and FAST.

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Provocative tests

Involves challenge with increasing doses, assessing respiratory, gastrointestinal, or cutaneous responsiveness under controlled conditions.

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Immunotherapy Effects

Decreased mast cell/basophil degranulation and decreased type 1 skin test reactivity occur

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What is Immunity?

A state of protection or resistance to a disease or pathogen.

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Discovery by Antoni van Leeuwenhoek

Microscope, microorganisms.

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Pathogenicity

Disease occurs primarily because of the disease-producing ability of the parasite.

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Immunocompromised Patients

Host defenses are central to survival but restoring immunocompetence is essential for favorable long-term response.

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Ideal Goal of treatment

Preventing establishment of infection or completing parasite eradication prevents this.

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Allergen extract potency

Weight (grams) of original material extracted per volume (ml).

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ALK-Abello

These include non-standardized allergenic extracts.

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Immunity

Nonspecific host defenses are of vital importance

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Parasitic Survival

The basic requirement for pathogenicity of the parasite is its ability to do this

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Bacterial Toxins

Bacterial proteins which have specific host cell activity

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Enhance Host

The main function of anti-infectives is to do this.

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Study Notes

Sensitization to Inhaled Allergens (First Exposure)

  • Allergen uptake and processing occurs via antigen-presenting cells like macrophages and dendritic cells
  • Processed antigen presentation occurs to naive T cells.
  • Th2 cells induce B cells to produce allergen-specific IgE
  • IgE binds to the Fc-epsilon receptor on mast cells and other cells.
  • Mast cells and basophils produce histamine, pro-inflammatory mediators, and chemicals.

Immediate and Late Phase Reactions to Allergens

  • Immediate reactions occur after re-exposure to the allergen and result in Type I hypersensitivity
  • Degranulation involves the release of vasoactive amines, lipid mediators, chemokines, and cytokines.
  • Immediate reaction occurs within 30 minutes
  • Late reaction occurs after 6-48 hours.

Diagnosis of Allergies

  • Goals include establishing that the disease is an immunologic reaction and to determine the specific allergens

General Steps in Diagnosing Allergies

  • Comprehensive history is essential
  • Physical examination helps establish temporal relationships and rule out other causes.
  • Non-immunologic tests vary depending on the condition.
  • Immunologic tests are essential.

Immunologic Diagnostic Tests for Allergy

  • In vivo tests involve allergy skin tests.
  • In vitro tests check for IgE antibodies.
  • Provocative and elimination tests.

Allergy Skin Tests for IgE-Mediated Immediate Hypersensitivity

  • Skin tests induce reaction within fifteen-30 minutes.
  • An allergic individual exhibits symptoms upon allergen exposure.

Cutaneous Tests

  • Allergenic extract injected via cutaneous routes like prick, puncture, or scratch tests
  • A positive test includes wheal and flare.

Intradermal Tests

  • Allergenic extract injected intradermally
  • Testing is effective for common allergies, except food and drug allergies.

Efficacy of Skin Tests

  • Common pollens, dust, and insect venoms tests are highly effective
  • Aeroallergen tests are effective for some allergens
  • Food allergen tests are variable and generally not highly reliable
  • Testing for Immune Complex Disease is generally not done
  • Reactions appear in 2-4 hours and are like late reactions following a positive IgE-mediated reaction.

Allergy Skin Tests for Delayed Hypersensitivity

  • Maximum reaction occurs in 48-72 hours.
  • It evaluates cell-mediated immune response, using a battery of common allergens

Examples of Tests

  • Tuberculin is for the Tuberculin or Mantoux test
  • Spherusol for Coccidioidomycosis
  • Candin for Candida albicans
  • Standardized short ragweed

Reading the test

  • Positive test is determined by Erythema

Patch Test

  • Patch tests confirm allergens in allergic contact dermatitis.
  • Thin-layer rapid use epicutaneous (T.R.U.E.) patch test and Rubber Panel T.R.U.E. test

Effects of Drugs on Skin Tests

  • Antihistamines (H1 antagonists) and other drugs with antihistamine activity depress immediate sensitivity tests
  • Long-acting agents may suppress reactions for up to six weeks
  • H2-antagonists do not suppress immediate skin-test reactions but may act synergistically with H1-antagonists.
  • Oral and parenteral beta 2-agonists may suppress these tests to a small degree
  • Methylxanthines, inhaled beta 2-agonists, and cromolyn do not generally interfere with skin tests
  • Beta-blocking agents can increase immediate skin test reactions
  • Patients on beta blockers may be less responsive to beta agonists used to treat adverse reactions.
  • Oral corticosteroids have little effect on immediate skin tests, but can depress cell-mediated reactions in patch testing
  • Potent topical corticosteroids may locally suppress all skin tests but tests should not be administered on diseased skin.

In Vitro Allergy Tests

  • IgE blood tests include RAST (Radioallergosorbent), MAST (Multiple allergosorbent), and FAST (Fluorescent Allergosorbent)
  • Other tests involve eosinophil counts, blood differential, and serum immunoglobulin electrophoresis.

Provocative and Elimination Tests

  • Provocative tests challenge with an increased dose of allergen to assess responsiveness in target tissues.
  • Target tissue responsiveness, whether respiratory, gastrointestinal, or cutaneous, is assessed under controlled conditions

Elimination Tests

  • Elimination tests involve removing particular allergens.

Allergy Therapy

  • Minimize exposure to allergens and irritants
  • Utilize Symptomatic drug therapy such as cromolyn sodium, corticosteroids, antihistamines, and epinephrine

Immunotherapy

  • Immunotherapy uses allergenic extracts, also called desensitization or hyposensitization
  • Administration involves regular subcutaneous injections of increasing doses of allergenic extracts for prolonged periods
  • Commonly referred to as desensitization (or hyposensitization)
  • Therapeutic allergenic extracts are used for immunotherapy.
  • Hyposensitization or desensitization (old terms) or allergy shots (nonscientific common term) for allergy immunotherapy.
  • Subcutaneous immunotherapy (SCIT) treats asthma, rhinitis, and insect hypersensitivity per regional allergen profile

FDA-Approved Sublingual Immunotherapy (SLIT)

  • Oralair (Stallergenes S.A.) and Grastek (ALK-Abello A/S) are used for mixed grass pollen-induced allergic rhinitis
  • Ragwitek (ALK-Abello A/S, Horshlom Denmark) is used for short ragweed pollen-induced allergic rhinitis
  • Odactra (ALK-Abello A/S) treats allergy induced by house dust mite.

FDA-Approved Oral Immunotherapy

  • Palforzia (Aimmune Therapeutics) treats peanut-induced allergy.
  • Efficacy evaluation is difficult, relying on patient's subjective impression

Allergenic Extracts Composition

  • Aqueous solutions of allergens for diagnosis and therapy
  • Most crude pharmaceuticals with weight/volume dilutions of 1:50, 1:100, 1:1,000, 1:10,000
  • Six licensed manufacturers of non-standardized extracts with non-identical products, including Allergy Laboratories based in Oklahoma (for information only)
  • 19 Standardized extracts compared with FDA reference standards

Composition and Standardization

  • Concentrated allergen solutions or suspensions for diagnostic tests or therapeutic purposes
  • Potency is often expressed in weight/volume (w/v), representing weight of original material extracted per current volume
  • Radioallergosorbent Tests (RAST) and modern protein analysis methods are being applied The FDA has approved standardized extracts, but they are not chemically and biologically uniform like conventional drugs

Licensed Manufacturers

  • ALK-Abello
  • Allergy Laboratories
  • Allermed Laboratories
  • Antigen Laboratories
  • Greer
  • Jubilant-HollisterStier LLC

Allergen Profile

  • Interactive websites can provide results on allergen levels
  • National Allergy Bureau Pollen and Mold Report

Regional Allergen Profile (TX, OK)

  • Nine tree allergens include Ash, White; Birch, Common Silver; Cedar, Mountain; Cottonwood; Elm, American; Maple/Box Elder; Mulberry, White; Oak, White; Pecan, and Hickory

Regional Allergen Profile (TX, OK)

  • Two grass allergens include Bermuda Grass and Timothy Grass

Regional Allergen Profile (TX, OK)

  • Four mold allergens include Alternaria alternata, Aspergillus fumigatus, Cladosporium herbarum, and Penicillium chrysogenum

Regional Allergen Profile (TX, OK)

  • Six animal/dust allergens include Cat Dander, Cockroach (German), Dermatophagoides farinae, D. pteronyssinus, Dog Dander, and Mouse Urine

Lecture Topic: Immunity to Infection

  • Normal immunity and normal physiology, or defenses, are of vital importance to fighting host infections
  • Exposure to microorganisms is normal and a source of potential infections in the host

Host Immune Response

  • Host immune response occurs in different phases, which include:
  • Innate immunity is a genetically conferred, immediate response to destroy pathogens
  • Inflammation is a response to tissue damage
  • Adaptive immunity is a response from the host's lymphatic system to deal with a specific pathogen.
  • Protective response, mediated through the adaptive immune system
  • Immunological memory, mediated through the adaptive immune system

The Pathogen

  • The basic requirement for pathogenicity of the parasite is its ability to survive and thrive in the host.
  • Once introduced, differ in their pathogenicity or virulence which is measured as cell receptors for penetration, mechanisms to resist host defenses, ability to persist in tissues and/or to produce tissue damaging substances.

Differences Between in vitro and in vivo models

  • The environment of the parasite in the host is quite different from that in vitro
  • Antimicrobial activity is rarely as optimal in vivo as in vitro
  • Poor drug distribution and rapid metabolism/excretion may complicate therapy

General Approach to an Infectious Disease

  • Consider immune status of the host includes age, systems etc
  • Characteristics of the Parasite and identification of the pathogen
  • Type of Host–Parasite interaction
  • Management involves more than just anti-infective drugs

Infectious Disease Management: Ideal Goals

  • Prevent establishment of infection and complete eradication of parasite
  • Prevent any tissue damage and complete recovery with no permanent sequelae
  • Establishment of lifelong immunity

Host-Pathogen interactions

  • Types of Host–Parasite interaction
  • Toxigenic Infection
  • Extracellular Infection
  • Facultative Intracellular infection
  • Obligate Intracellular Infection

Toxigenic Infections

  • Soluble proteins synthesized and secreted by some of the Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, also called Exotoxins
  • Intoxication is generally Botulism
  • Toxigenic infection is Diphtheria and Tetanus
  • Toxin Involvement along with other virulence factors, such as Scarlet fever and Staphylococcus aureus

Toxins

  • Compared to endotoxin, exotoxins are diverse in their toxicological activity and have potent and specific activity.

Lipopolysaccharide

  • Cell wall constituent (lipopolysaccharides, or LPS) of Gram-negative bacteria is known as Endotoxin

Immune Response (Septic Shock)

  • Lipid A induces release of pro-inflammatory (IL-1beta & TNF-alpha) cytokines in the host

Septic shock

  • Endotoxin or lipopolysaccharide (specifically, lipid A: portion of endotoxin or LPS) induces IL-1 beta and TNF-alpha release from macrophages.
  • These cytokines are intensely inflammatory with actions on granulocytes, the complement and coagulation systems

Immune Response & Antibodies

  • IgM bacteriolysins: causes lysis of Gram-negative bacteria
  • IgG anti-capsular antibody -may actually be more protective but the capsular polysaccharides are often weakly immunogenic
  • IgM antibody for lipid A

Anti-Sepsis Products

  • Utilized products such as anti-inflammatory products and Activated protein C.

Extracellular Infections

  • Includes most common bacterial infections for Gram + & Gram - bacteria such as Spirochetes and Mycoplasma
  • Most susceptible to current anti-infectives
  • Important virulence factor for bacteria: anti-phagocytic capsule

Facultative Intracellular Infections

  • Includes Mycobacteria, Actinomycetes, Fungi, and some other bacteria
  • Infection steps involves Attachment to epithelial receptors and Penetration of epithelium (endocytosis
  • Infection resists intracellular killing by neutrophils which die and release organisms
  • Monocyte/Macrophage Involvement: May harbor organisms
  • Efferent phase of immune response: Cell mediated immunity or CMI (e.g., IFN gamma) with Macrophage Activation
  • Anti-infectives available but therapy generally less effective
  • Results in Complete Cure (Successful CMI), Latency through viable organisms that remain in macrophages and finally Disease which ranges from fulminating to chronic

Obligate Intracellular Infection

  • Includes Viruses which causes diseases such as Coronavirus, Chlamydia, and Rickettsia
  • Major Virus Interactions presents as Acute, Chronic, & Latent infections
  • Pathology is determined by Tissue tropism of the virus, Cytopathology of the virus, and Immunologically-mediated tissue damage being very common

Viral Defense

  • Interferon (Type I) is major non-specific defense
  • NK and T cells contribute through CD8+ cytotoxic T cells that are most important for recovery
  • Protective activity of sIgA and/or serum IgG prevent reinfection

Historical Developments in Immunity to Infection

  • Antoni van Leeuwenhoek (1632-1723) invented the microscope and discovered micro-organisms.
  • Robert Koch (1843-1910) developed Koch’s postulates.
  • Edward Jenner (1749-1823) developed smallpox vaccination.
  • Louis Pasteur (1822-1895) was known for organic chemistry, microbiology, and vaccines.
  • Alexander Flemming discovered Penicillin in 1929.
  • Eli Metchnikoff discovered phagocytosis in 1939.

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