Aircraft Landing Procedures Quiz

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Questions and Answers

What is the primary reason for wheelbarrowing in aircraft landings?

  • Excessive pitch up during approach
  • Touching down with full flaps
  • Arriving in the touchdown zone too slowly
  • Inadvertently pushing too much on the nosewheel (correct)

Which of the following best describes a ballooning error in landing?

  • Touchdown occurs prematurely, leading to a bounce.
  • A gradual descent results in a porpoise effect.
  • Over-flaring leads to an excessive climb after touchdown.
  • The pilot abruptly pitches up due to the sensation of rapid ground approach. (correct)

What is the safest correction during a bounce landing?

  • Initiate a go-around. (correct)
  • Continue with the landing attempt.
  • Attempt to land on the main wheels only.
  • Increase descent speed.

What typically causes porpoising during landing?

<p>Excess speed combined with an incorrect landing attitude. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under which circumstances should a pilot consider a go-around?

<p>In the event of bad weather or crosswinds. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What triggers reverted rubber hydroplaning?

<p>Prolonged locked-wheel skid during heavy braking (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does water play in reverted rubber hydroplaning?

<p>It facilitates a steam layer that keeps the tire off the runway. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main characteristic of wake turbulence?

<p>It is stronger when the aircraft is clean, heavy, and slow. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is it recommended to avoid flying below and behind a large aircraft?

<p>During takeoff roll after rotation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do stronger winds affect wake turbulence?

<p>They push the vortices away from the runway. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a sign of possible fuel icing during operation?

<p>Reduced engine power (B), Increased fuel consumption (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should fuel caps be vented?

<p>To allow for fuel expansion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be done when suspecting water contamination in the fuel?

<p>Thoroughly check the entire fuel system (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When fueling with a drum, which is a recommended procedure?

<p>Let the drum stand to settle contaminants (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the proper oil capacity for a C172S aircraft?

<p>8 quarts (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can lead to ice crystals contaminating fuel lines in cold weather?

<p>Water present in the fuel (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended action regarding fuel caps during pre-flight inspections?

<p>Check for secure fit (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a consideration when taxiing an aircraft?

<p>Monitor distance between aircraft (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum time required to spot and identify a potential mid-air collision threat?

<p>10 seconds (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a stabilized approach?

<p>High rate of descent (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which conditions is mid-air collision most likely to occur?

<p>During daylight in VFR conditions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended practice when scanning for other aircraft?

<p>Stop and focus on specific areas while keeping your head still (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should a pilot prepare for landing beyond touchdown?

<p>Establish a plan for fuel and parking (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the critical area to focus on when scanning for traffic?

<p>60 degrees to the left and right, and 10 degrees up and down (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What altitude and distance should a good landing start according to common practice?

<p>5,000 feet at 10 miles back (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is essential for effective communication with ATC during flight?

<p>Providing precise updates and requests (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum separation time required in a non-radar environment between a heavy and light aircraft?

<p>2 minutes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does ground effect reduce induced drag during landing?

<p>High pressure flows from under the wing is stopped by the ground. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which situation can lead to abnormal operations during take-off due to ground effect?

<p>Allowing the aircraft to lift off too early (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition increases the risk of an aircraft bouncing or porpoising during landing?

<p>Fast approach speed (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of induced drag when an aircraft is in ground effect?

<p>Induced drag decreases significantly. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When does ground effect cease to be beneficial during take-off?

<p>When the aircraft is just above stall speed (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does ground effect help during normal landings?

<p>It assists in a slower downward attitude for touchdown. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor increases the risk of running off the end of the runway upon landing?

<p>Fast approach leading to floating (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a pilot do when encountering ash that can cause engine failure?

<p>Perform a 180-degree turn to escape (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary risk of flying low in poor weather conditions?

<p>Overestimating airspeed (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can happen if snow becomes ice during the take-off roll?

<p>Take-off may be prevented (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an important safety measure to prevent carbon monoxide poisoning in winter operations?

<p>Ensuring cabin heaters are free of cracks (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does CARs 602.11 state regarding take-offs and critical surface contamination?

<p>Take-off is prohibited with ice on critical surfaces (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of de-icing fluid is characterized as having low viscosity and used for de-icing?

<p>Type 1 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which recommendation is least appropriate for collision avoidance?

<p>Ensure passengers do not look for traffic (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a notable consequence of ice jamming control surfaces in winter operations?

<p>Alteration of weight and balance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main effect of reverted rubber during hydroplaning?

<p>It acts as a seal that delays water exit from the tire footprint area. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which phase of flight does wake turbulence begin?

<p>When the aircraft rotates for takeoff. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor directly relates to the intensity of wake turbulence?

<p>Aircraft weight and speed. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a recommended action when taking off behind a large aircraft?

<p>Lift off before the preceding aircraft and have a steeper flight path. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which situation is most likely to create significant wake turbulence?

<p>A large aircraft flying at a slow speed with clean configuration. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be done immediately if water contamination is suspected in the fuel system?

<p>Perform a complete system check. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can happen if fuel tanks are filled to the very top in warmer conditions?

<p>It may lead to fuel expansion and potential leaks. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these procedures is recommended when using a drum for fueling?

<p>Let the drum stand to allow contaminants to settle. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common sign of engine issues that may indicate fuel icing?

<p>Reduced engine power and rough running. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the proper oil capacity for a Seneca aircraft?

<p>6 quarts. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the pre-flight inspection, why is it important to ensure that fuel caps are secure?

<p>To avoid fuel leakage and contamination. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a pilot do when taxiing to ensure safety?

<p>Consider environmental factors like wind and ground surface condition. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does 'immediate take-off' indicate during taxiing?

<p>Taxiing and taking off are done in one continuous movement. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a pilot not do when landing to prevent excessive wear on the braking system?

<p>Land with brakes already applied (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition decreases the friction needed to stop and maneuver the aircraft?

<p>Hydroplaning (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the go-around procedure, which action should be taken first after smoothly applying full power?

<p>Establish a level flight attitude (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of dynamic hydroplaning?

<p>It results from a complete loss of tire contact with a thicker layer of water (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should brakes be used after landing to avoid potentially damaging techniques?

<p>Apply positive brake pressure until stopped (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is a condition under which hydroplaning can occur?

<p>On wet or icy runways (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the threshold velocity for hydroplaning when the tire is not rotating, expressed in terms of tire pressure?

<p>$7.7 imes Tire Pressure$ (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary factor that affects hydroplaning risk during landing?

<p>Surface type and conditions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a major reason for ensuring the cleanliness of an aircraft before flight?

<p>To improve the pilot's visibility through a clean windshield (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a proper practice when fueling an aircraft?

<p>Ensuring the hose nozzle makes metal-to-metal contact (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be verified regarding the aircraft's carburetor air filters?

<p>They must be free from contamination (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which action is NOT recommended regarding aircraft movement on the ground?

<p>Pushing on the propeller blades to move the aircraft (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to check drain grommets before flight?

<p>To prevent contamination from moisture (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does static electricity affect fueling an aircraft?

<p>It can build up and ignite fuel vapors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for pilots to perform thorough flight preparation?

<p>To avoid accidents and ensure safe performance (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it advised to fill aircraft tanks after flying?

<p>To reduce the likelihood of fuel expansion causing spills (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum required separation time between heavy and light aircraft in a non-radar environment?

<p>2 minutes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary factor that triggers induced drag during flight?

<p>Low airspeed and high angle of attack (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must pilots do to mitigate risks when unexpectedly lifted off during a take-off?

<p>Ensure the aircraft is above stall speed (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During landing, what can occur if an aircraft approaches too fast?

<p>Floating down the runway (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main concern associated with initiating a take-off before reaching take-off speed?

<p>Risk of stalling (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What flight situation can ground effect negatively influence during landing?

<p>Floating after touchdown (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What describes the condition when ground effect ceases to be beneficial during take-off?

<p>When the aircraft reaches one wingspan of altitude (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should pilots remember regarding their responsibility during wake turbulence warnings?

<p>It is the pilot's responsibility to maintain caution (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What impact can blocked aircraft components from blowing snow have during winter operations?

<p>It can lead to ice jamming control surfaces. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true regarding take-off and critical surface contamination?

<p>A clean aircraft configuration is mandatory for take-offs. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What strategy should pilots employ when encountering vapors during low flying operations?

<p>Make a 180-degree turn to escape. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a critical consideration regarding cabin heaters in cold weather operations?

<p>Heaters must be free of cracks to prevent carbon monoxide poisoning. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which de-icing fluid type is designed for use when the V1 speed is greater than 100 knots?

<p>Type 1 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of snow turning into ice during the take-off roll?

<p>It may prevent reaching sufficient take-off speed. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which recommendation is essential to avoid a collision during flight?

<p>Keep windshields clean and stable. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be done to restore an aircraft to a clean configuration after de-icing?

<p>Utilize heated de-icing fluids and ensure drying. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a solid red signal indicate to an aircraft?

<p>Do not land. Continue circling (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should be taken when a flashing red signal is displayed?

<p>Taxi clear of the runway immediately (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does alternating green and red signals in the air indicate?

<p>Danger. Be on alert (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which signal instructs a vehicle to vacate the runway immediately?

<p>Blinking runway lights (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is indicated by a solid green signal while in the air?

<p>Cleared for take-off (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the ARCAL system in aerodrome lighting?

<p>To allow pilots to activate aerodrome lighting from the aircraft (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How far can approach lights be seen, depending on airport operations?

<p>Varies based on runway size and instrument approaches (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of light configuration is typically found on a runway?

<p>Two parallel lines of lights visible at least 2 miles (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic feature of the Beacon light in aerodrome lighting?

<p>It rotates with a cycle of 2-3 seconds (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the operational distance of the VASIS for a safe slope?

<p>Approximately 4 nautical miles (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which requirement is necessary for entering Class A airspace?

<p>IFR equipped aircraft (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes Class F airspace from other airspace classes?

<p>It has defined dimensions with specific activities. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is required for pilots operating within Class A airspace?

<p>Instrument rating (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to Class F airspace when it is inactive?

<p>It follows the regulations of surrounding airspace. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is true regarding flight information regions in Canadian airspace?

<p>Canadian airspace has seven flight information regions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic that distinguishes an airport from a registered aerodrome?

<p>An airport is certified and inspected for compliance. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What procedure must be followed when moving an aircraft on the surface of an aerodrome?

<p>Follow the designated taxiways and signs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are runway numbers determined according to the bearing?

<p>They are the bearing rounded to the nearest ten degrees. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of an aerodrome, which area is specifically intended for loading and unloading passengers and cargo?

<p>Apron (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of registering an aerodrome?

<p>To publish aeronautical information in the Canadian Flight Supplement. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which part of an aerodrome is used for the take-off and landing of aircraft?

<p>Maneuvering Area (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'certified aerodrome' imply?

<p>It must meet specific Transport Canada inspection standards. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an essential function of standardized aerodromes?

<p>They ensure consistent procedures for pilots. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum allowable deviation in nautical miles from the flight plan when operating within the Air Defence Identification Zone (ADIZ)?

<p>20 nm (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what altitude does high level airspace begin?

<p>FL180 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of a displaced threshold on a runway?

<p>It indicates an area that cannot be used for landing. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What marking indicates that a section of the runway is closed?

<p>White X (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the frequency used to monitor or broadcast in uncontrolled airspace?

<p>126.7 MHz (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly defines Controlled Low Level Airspace?

<p>Airspace from 2,200' AGL to 12,499' ASL (C), Airspace from 12,500' ASL to 17,999' ASL classified as 'B' (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the Engineered Material Arrestor System (EMAS)?

<p>A safety system to prevent overrunning runways. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What feature distinguishes temporary runway markings from permanent ones?

<p>Durability of materials used (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic of T Routes in the low-level airspace?

<p>They have a 4 nm primary obstacle protection buffer. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of perimeter markers around unpaved runways?

<p>To delineate the boundaries and enhance visibility. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the altitude range classification for Class F airspace located within Low Level Airspace?

<p>2,200' AGL to 12,499' ASL (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is required from a pilot when there is a change in flight plan while in the ADIZ?

<p>Notify ATC immediately. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does wind direction affect runway usage?

<p>It dictates the runway configurations for landing. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What indication does a wind sock provide about wind conditions?

<p>The prevailing wind direction. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In high-level airspace, which level is designated as the Arctic Control Area?

<p>FL270 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which color is commonly associated with non-certified perimeter markers?

<p>International orange (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum distance apart that adjacent taxiway lights can be placed?

<p>200 feet (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does ARCAL stand for in aerodrome lighting operations?

<p>Aircraft Control of Aerodrome Lighting (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of light is used at the ends of a runway for identification purposes?

<p>Fixed white light or strobe (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long can ARCAL lighting be activated using the 'K' signal?

<p>15 minutes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the visibility range of a beacon light used in aerodrome operations?

<p>10 nm (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes an airport from a registered aerodrome?

<p>An airport is inspected periodically for compliance with standards. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is primarily the purpose of standardized aerodromes?

<p>To ensure consistent procedures and safety for pilots. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are runway numbers determined?

<p>They correspond to the bearing, rounded to the nearest 10 degrees. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main characteristic of a maneuvering area in an aerodrome?

<p>It is the area intended for take-off, landing, and aircraft movement. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly describes a registered aerodrome?

<p>It can publish aeronautical information but is not certified. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What activities are typically conducted in an apron area of an aerodrome?

<p>Loading/unloading of passengers and cargo, and fueling. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key requirement for maintaining a registered aerodrome's operational status?

<p>The operational condition of the aerodrome must be sufficient. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about the last zero in runway numbering is correct?

<p>It is omitted when displaying the runway number. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What sets the flight altitude and level in Southern Domestic Airspace?

<p>Based on magnetic tracks (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Prior to departure in the Standard Pressure Region, which altimeter setting should be used?

<p>Current altimeter setting or elevation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are surface winds reported in Northern Domestic Airspace?

<p>Based on true track (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum altitude included in the Southern Domestic Airspace where altitude settings apply?

<p>17,999 feet (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does Class F airspace behave when it is inactive?

<p>It assumes the rules of surrounding airspace. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Northern Domestic Airspace, what is the altimeter set to during cruise?

<p>29.92&quot; Hg (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true regarding the altimeter setting for approaches in Southern Domestic Airspace?

<p>Set to current altimeter setting for the intended airport (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the requirement for approval to enter restricted Class F airspace?

<p>Prior permission is needed. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What kind of airspace requires ATC clearance before entry?

<p>Class A (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main navigation challenge in Northern Domestic Airspace?

<p>Erratic compass behavior (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic of Flight Information Regions within Canadian airspace?

<p>They provide flight information services. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When cruising in Southern Domestic Airspace, how often should the altimeter be adjusted?

<p>To the nearest reported altimeter setting along the route (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical altitude range for Control Area Extensions?

<p>2,200' AGL – 17,999' ASL (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of airspace requires VFR pilots to establish 2-way radio communication with ATC before entering?

<p>Class D (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct procedure for descending via VASIS when aligned with the centerline?

<p>Only descend after established on the centerline. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines Class G airspace?

<p>Uncontrolled airspace with no ATC authority (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of the Remote Communications Outlet (RCO)?

<p>To advise pilots remotely about conditions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which Class of airspace is designated for high volumes of traffic with arrival and departure control?

<p>Terminal Control Area (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the usual broadcast frequency at uncontrolled airports?

<p>123.2 MHz if no specific frequency is listed. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does Class C airspace treat IFR and VFR aircraft while in operation?

<p>ATC provides separation for both IFR and VFR traffic (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended altitude and distance for joining a traffic circuit at an uncontrolled airport?

<p>3,000’ AGL at 5 nm. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what scenario might a pilot join a downwind leg at an uncontrolled airport?

<p>If traffic is confirmed clear. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic of Class B airspace?

<p>ATC instructions required for all aircraft (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following indicates a standard left-hand circuit at a controlled airport?

<p>All turns should be made to the left. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which airspace class is separation only provided for IFR traffic?

<p>Class E (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the surface area width of low-level air routes in Class G airspace?

<p>9 nautical miles (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must a pilot receive before entering controlled airspace?

<p>Clearance from the control tower. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of communication is necessary in Class D airspace when ATC is operating?

<p>2-way radio communication (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which operation requires strict adherence to pilot clearance and good weather conditions?

<p>Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should pilots do if they encounter NORDO aircraft while approaching an uncontrolled aerodrome?

<p>Visually ascertain runway conditions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which airspace classification transitions to Class E when ATC is not operating?

<p>Class D (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is typically the purpose of standard radio calls at uncontrolled airports?

<p>To communicate intentions and position for safety. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Reverted Rubber Hydroplaning

A type of hydroplaning caused by heavy braking, leading to a prolonged locked-wheel skid that heats the rubber, reverting it to its original state. This creates a seal delaying water exit, causing water steaming and keeping the tire off the runway.

Wake Turbulence

Turbulence created by an aircraft. Intensity depends on aircraft weight, wingspan, and speed. It's most significant with heavy, slow, clean-configured aircraft.

Wake Turbulence Avoidance

Strategies to avoid wake turbulence, like staying behind and above large aircraft during flight and taxi.

Wheelbarrowing Landing Error

Pushing too hard on the nosewheel during landing, leading to loss of control and/or braking. Often caused by excess speed during the approach with full flaps.

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Wake Turbulence Intensity Factors

Factors affecting wake turbulence severity, including aircraft weight, speed, and wingspan.

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Balloon Landing Error

Pilot feels the ground approaching faster than it is, causing an abrupt upward pitch and a climb (ballooning). Usually results from excess speed.

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Wake Turbulence Direction

Wake turbulence flows outwards and backwards from the preceding aircraft.

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Pre-flight fuel inspection

A crucial check of the fuel system before flight, ensuring its proper function and identifying any potential contaminants.

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Bounce Landing Error

Inappropriate flare (slow or late), resulting in the nosewheel hitting the runway first. Can lead to a bouncing landing (porpoising).

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Fuel contamination

Presence of unwanted substances in fuel, such as water, sand, or microorganisms.

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Porpoising Landing Error

Aircraft bounces back and forth between the nosewheel and main wheels. Caused by insufficient flare or incorrect landing attitude plus excess speed during the approach.

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Fuel icing

Formation of ice crystals in fuel lines or filters due to low temperatures, potentially causing engine problems.

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Go-Around Procedure

Stopping a landing attempt and returning to the circuit. Used when encountering traffic, bad weather, crosswinds, ATC instructions, unstable approach, etc. and when the pilot judges the landing conditions are not suitable for a safe landing.

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Fueling with drum

Procedure for transferring fuel from a drum using a filter/water separator and a portable pump.

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Oil capacity

Amount of oil required for an aircraft to operate safely and efficiently; varies according to the aircraft model.

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Pre-flight inspection

Thorough examination of an aircraft's systems and components prior to flight to ensure everything is functioning correctly.

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Taxiing

Moving an aircraft on the ground using its own power.

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Take-off procedure

Series of steps to initiate an aircraft's flight.

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Ground Effect

Reduced induced drag near the ground, affecting aircraft performance.

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Induced Drag

Drag created by the airflow around the wing, especially at high angles of attack (AoA).

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Landing Separation

Minimum time between landings of aircraft, usually 2 minutes for heavy/light, 3 minutes for different runway usage.

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Take-off Ground Effect

Aircraft can take off prematurely due to reduced induced drag near the ground, leading to a stall.

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Landing Ground Effect

Using ground effect to help aircraft slow down and control touchdown.

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Aircraft Separation

ATC ensures safe spacing between aircraft, measured in distance or time.

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En-Route Considerations

Factors to consider during flight, including airspace types, weather conditions, communication with ATC and FSS, and flight preparation before approach/landing.

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Mid-Air Collision Prevention

Actively scanning the airspace for other aircraft and maintaining a safe distance, critically important for preventing collisions, especially during daylight in VFR conditions near the aerodrome.

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Scanning Technique

Eyes should scan the area 60° to the left and right, and 10° up and down, and slower aircraft require a greater span of time for scanning

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Aircraft Performance for Approach and Landing

Consider the capabilities of the plane during the approach and landing phase, focusing on how it handles different conditions and altitudes throughout its journey, as the plane’s capabilities change.

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Stabilized Approach

Maintaining a consistent flight path, adjusting airspeed accurately and managing descent rate, and having the proper configuration, ensuring the approach is controlled.

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Landing Errors in an Approach

Potential issues during an approach, such as an inconsistent approach path, significant airspeed deviations, and improper flight configuration, leading to difficulties in accomplishing a successful and safe landing.

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Pre-Landing Preparation (Approach)

Preparing the aircraft and flight plan 15 miles out at 5,000ft, ensuring all critical factors such as airport conditions, and runway awareness are considered.

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Mid-Air Collision Time

The minimum time required to perceive a mid-air collision risk (spotting, identifying, acknowledging the threat, and taking corrective action) is 10 seconds.

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Aircraft Fire at Night

Aircraft can experience fire at night, often caused by ash from volcanic eruptions, and can impact engine performance.

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Low Flying Recommendations

Reduce airspeed when weather conditions are poor, control throttle, and avoid intentional low flying during poor weather.

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Winter Operations Hazards

Winter weather can impact aircraft, such as with snow weight, blocked components, control surface issues, and potential carbon monoxide poisoning.

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Critical Surface Contamination

Aircraft must be free of contamination (frost, ice, snow) on critical surfaces before takeoff.

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De-Icing Methods

Use heated hangars, brooms for light snow, heated de-icing fluids, and follow de-icing and anti-icing procedures using appropriate fluids.

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De-Icing Fluid Types

Types 1-4 provide different de-icing and anti-icing functionalities for various weather conditions and V1 speeds.

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Collision Avoidance

Maintain awareness and proper pre-flight planning. Use scanning techniques, clean windshields, and assess for passenger visibility and collision courses.

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Weight of Snow on Parked Aircraft

Snow accumulated on parked aircraft can lead to imbalances and structural damage.

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Jet Blast

Powerful exhaust from a jet engine that can affect nearby aircraft or objects.

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Wake Turbulence: Impact on Aircraft

Turbulence generated by an aircraft, primarily caused by wingtip vortices. Its intensity is proportional to aircraft weight, inversely proportional to wingspan and speed. Heavier, slower, clean-configured aircraft produce stronger wake turbulence.

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Wake Turbulence Avoidance: Flight

During flight, keep a safe distance below and behind large, heavy aircraft. To avoid potential turbulence, maintain at least 1,000 feet below and behind the preceding aircraft.

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Wake Turbulence Avoidance: Taxi

Maintain a safe distance behind and avoid flying below helicopters during taxiing. This helps to avoid any potential turbulence they might cause.

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Wake Turbulence Avoidance: Take-off

Take off earlier than the preceding aircraft and maintain a steeper climb path to avoid its wake turbulence. This provides greater separation during ascent.

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Wake Turbulence Avoidance: Crosswind

A slight crosswind can help move wingtip vortices over parallel runways, making it safer to take off or land nearby.

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Aircraft Cleanliness

Maintaining a clean aircraft is crucial for safety and performance. It includes cleaning the exterior, removing insects, ensuring clear drain grommets, and keeping the windshield free of obstructions.

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Pre-flight Preparation

Thorough pre-flight preparation is essential for a safe and successful flight. This includes checking weather, NOTAMS, routing, airspace, aircraft status, flight gear, and charts.

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Ground Handling

Moving an aircraft on the ground safely requires specific techniques. These techniques vary based on the aircraft type and include using a tow bar, pushing on specific points, and avoiding pushing the propeller.

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Static Electricity

Static electricity can build up on an aircraft during flight, especially in cold weather. This can be dangerous during refueling if not properly grounded.

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De-icing and Anti-icing

De-icing removes existing ice and frost from the aircraft, while anti-icing prevents ice from forming. Different fluids and methods are used depending on the type of ice and weather conditions.

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What is hydroplaning?

A dangerous situation where a tire loses contact with the runway surface due to a layer of water, resulting in a loss of braking and steering ability.

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Types of hydroplaning

There are three types – viscous, dynamic, and reverted rubber. Viscous occurs with a thin layer of water at low speeds, dynamic with a deeper layer and complete loss of contact, and reverted rubber with locked brakes causing a skid.

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Threshold velocity for hydroplaning

The minimum speed at which a rolling tire can hydroplane is calculated using the formula: Vkts = 9 * Tire Pressure (in PSI). For a stationary tire, the formula is Vkts = 7.7 * Tire Pressure.

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Braking Technique

Apply positive brake pressure until the aircraft stops or slows down significantly. Avoid pumping the brakes, as this can be ineffective on wet or icy surfaces.

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Flat Spotted Tires

Occur due to sudden braking on landing, causing a flat spot on the tire. Keep your feet flat on the floor during landing to help prevent this.

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Volcanic Ash and Aircraft

Volcanic ash can damage an aircraft's engine by melting inside and causing failure. It's an important safety concern during nighttime operations.

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Ash Encounter Actions

If an aircraft encounters volcanic ash, it should reduce power, turn 180 degrees to escape the ash cloud, and report the incident.

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Low Flying in Poor Weather

Pilots are advised to avoid intentional low flying in bad weather. Reduce speed and keep one hand on the throttle for better control.

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Landing at Calculated Speed

Landing at the appropriate speed for the runway conditions and aircraft weight to ensure a safe and controlled landing.

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Lower Nosewheel Slowly

During landing, lower the nosewheel slowly and gently to ensure a smooth and controlled touchdown.

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Ground Effect Take-Off

An aircraft taking off prematurely due to ground effect, potentially leading to a stall.

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Ground Effect Landing

Using ground effect to help an aircraft slow down and control the landing.

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Ground Effect - Abnormal Operations

Situations where the ground effect can lead to unusual aircraft behavior during takeoff or landing.

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What to do if ground effect causes early takeoff?

Increase airspeed and climb out of ground effect, ensuring the aircraft reaches a safe altitude and speed.

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Ground Effect and Stall

Reduced induced drag in ground effect can make an aircraft vulnerable to stalling during takeoff.

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Ground Effect - Low-wing aircraft

Low-wing aircraft are more affected by ground effect compared to high-wing aircraft.

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Ground Effect and Induced Drag

Ground effect reduces induced drag, allowing the aircraft to generate more lift with less effort.

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Aerodrome

Any area of land, water, or other surface used or designated for the arrival, departure, movement, or servicing of aircraft, including buildings, installations, and equipment.

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Registered Aerodrome

An aerodrome that is not certified but registered for the purpose of publishing aeronautical information in the Canadian Flight Supplement (CFS).

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Airport

A certified aerodrome that meets Transport Canada Standards through periodic inspections.

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Runway Numbering

Runways are numbered according to their magnetic heading, rounded to the nearest 10 degrees, with the last zero omitted.

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Apron

The area at an aerodrome used for loading/unloading passengers and cargo, refueling, maintenance, parking, and other aircraft servicing.

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Movement Area

The parts of an aerodrome used for surface movement, including runways, taxiways, maneuvering areas, and aprons.

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Maneuvering Area

The parts of an aerodrome intended for aircraft takeoff, landing, and movement, including runways and taxiways.

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Surface Movement

The movement of aircraft on the ground within the aerodrome, including taxiing and maneuvering.

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Clear to land

An air traffic control clearance instructing aircraft to descend and land on the runway. This signal is given to a pilot when the runway is clear and the conditions are safe for landing.

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Solid Red

A signal from air traffic control indicating that the aircraft must not land. This signal instructs the pilot to continue circling or abort the landing attempt.

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Flashing White

A ground signal instructing an aircraft to return to its starting point on the airport. This signal is used when there is a reason not to land.

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Blinking Runway Lights

A ground signal indicating to vehicles and pedestrians on the runway to clear the runway immediately. The lights are blinking to warn them of an approaching aircraft.

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What is the role of Air Traffic Control?

Air traffic control is responsible for safety in the airspace, managing and directing aircraft traffic for efficient flow, providing separation between aircraft to prevent collisions, and coordinating with other services like military or rescue operations.

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ARCAL

Aircraft Control of Aerodrome Lighting. Pilots can request runway lights using ARCAL codes – K for 7 clicks in 5 seconds followed by 7, 5, 3 clicks; J for 5 clicks in 5 seconds. The lights are on for 15 minutes.

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Visual Approach Slope Indicator System (VASIS)

VASIS is a visual guidance system used during approach to help pilots maintain the correct glide path. It uses lights to indicate if the aircraft is too high or too low.

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Beacon Light

A rotating white light on an aerodrome that is visible up to 10 nautical miles away. It identifies the location of the airport.

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Runway Lighting

Runway lighting consists of parallel lines of white lights visible for at least 2 miles in all directions. Additional lights are used at taxiways and aprons.

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Approach Lights

Various types of lights used to guide aircraft during approach to landing. The type of approach lights depends on the airport's operations and the size of the runway.

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Magnetic Bearing

The compass bearing used in Southern Domestic Airspace. It's the true bearing, meaning it directly relates to the Earth's magnetic field.

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Runway Threshold

The beginning of the usable runway portion where landings and take-offs are permitted. It's marked by a series of white lines.

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Displaced Threshold

A section at the beginning of the runway deemed unsuitable for landing or take-off. It's typically marked with a white 'X'.

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Relocated Threshold

A section of the runway temporarily closed for taxiing, landing, and take-off. It's marked with a white 'X'.

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Pre-Threshold Area

The area before the usable runway where landing roll-outs and take-off roll-ins occur. It's typically marked with a white 'X' and may include stopways.

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Taxiways

Designated pathways on the airport used for moving aircraft to and from the runway. They are marked with yellow lines.

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Wind Indicator

A device that shows the wind direction and speed. It's usually a cone or sock.

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Unpaved Runway Markings

Perimeter markings on unpaved runways consist of frangible, weatherproof markers. These markers are typically pyramid or cone-shaped, with more markers at the corners.

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Class A Airspace

The highest class of airspace, requiring clearance to enter and providing ATC separation for all aircraft. Pilots must have an instrument rating, fly an IFR-equipped aircraft and a Mode C transponder.

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Class F Airspace

A defined area with specific activities, often used for military or restricted operations. Can be controlled, uncontrolled, or a mix of both. Can be temporary for events like fires.

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Flight Information Region (FIR)

A large airspace region within a country, providing flight information and alternating services to aircraft operating within that region.

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IFR (Instrument Flight Rules)

Flight rules for aircraft flying in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC), requiring specialized equipment and pilot qualifications.

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Special VFR (Visual Flight Rules)

Allows pilots to fly in Class G airspace under certain conditions, even when visibility is limited.

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What is ADIZ?

An Air Defence Identification Zone established for security around North America, encompassing both Canada and the USA. It is defined in the Canada Air Pilot and various charts.

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What are the requirements for a Defence Flight Plan?

Aircraft operating within an ADIZ must adhere to a Defence Flight Plan, which requires radio contact and allows deviations of no more than +/- 20nm and +/- 5 minutes from the flight plan centerline.

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What is the difference between Controlled and Uncontrolled Airspace?

Controlled airspace provides ATC services and some or all aircraft are subject to ATC regulations. Uncontrolled airspace operates free from ATC control, but still requires adherence to CARs. Air traffic control is present (subject to specific frequencies) and is required (mandatory) in Controlled Airspace. Uncontrolled Airspace essentially is as you please, but still adhering to rules, which can apply to a large airspace, so it is not necessarily a free-for-all.

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High Level Airspace

Airspace above FL 180, further divided into: - Southern Control Area (SCA), - Northern Control Area (NCA), - Arctic Control Area (ACA). Each area is defined by specific flight levels and boundaries.

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Low Level Airspace

Includes all airspace below FL 180, covering everything from ground level to 18,000 feet. It can be controlled or uncontrolled.

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What are Low Level Airways?

Controlled airways designated for aircraft operating below FL 180, primarily using VOR and NDB navigation systems.

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What are T Routes?

Controlled RNAV routes designated as T routes, providing primary and secondary obstacle protection.

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What is the difference between a VHF/UHF Airway and a LF/MF Airway?

VHF/UHF Airways are based on VOR and NDB navigation systems, providing more precise navigation. LF/MF Airways use older radio navigation systems, offering less accurate guidance.

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VASI

A visual approach slope indicator system using lights to guide pilots onto the correct glide path.

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PAPI

Precision Approach Path Indicator. A lighting system using 4 lights to assist pilots in maintaining the correct approach slope.

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Uncontrolled Airport

An airport without a control tower or active air traffic control.

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Remote Communications Outlet (RCO)

A facility at an uncontrolled airport that provides advisory services and communication support.

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Aerodrome Traffic Frequency (ATF)

A radio frequency used for communication at uncontrolled airports that do not meet mandatory radio requirements.

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Traffic Circuit

A standardized pattern of flight maneuvers used at an airport for air traffic control and safety.

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Left-hand circuit

A standardized traffic pattern where all turns are made to the left, used at most airports.

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LAHSO (Land and Hold Short Operations)

Procedures where aircraft land and hold short of a runway intersection, allowing for efficient use of multiple runways.

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Control Tower

A facility at a controlled airport providing air traffic control services for aircraft.

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RONLY (Receiver Only)

An aircraft equipped with a radio receiver but not a transmitter, relying on others to transmit information.

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Magnetic Tracks

In Southern Domestic Airspace (SDA), flight altitudes, flight levels, airways, air routes, runways, and surface winds are all based on magnetic tracks.

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True Tracks

In Northern Domestic Airspace (NDA), flight altitudes, flight levels, airways, air routes, runways, and surface winds are all based on true tracks.

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Altimeter Setting Region

The Southern Domestic Airspace (SDA) is considered an Altimeter Setting Region. The altimeter setting must be set to the current pressure at the intended airport.

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Standard Pressure Region

The Northern Domestic Airspace (NDA) is considered a Standard Pressure Region. The altimeter is set to 29.92 inches of mercury.

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Control Area Extension (CAE)

Controlled airspace for IFR traffic management, usually within a defined radius. Extends from 2,200' AGL to 17,999' ASL, typically covering Class E airspace below 12,500' and Class B above.

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Transition Area

Controlled airspace below CAE, from 700' AGL to 2,200' AGL (or overlying airspace). It's 15nm wide, transitioning pilots from uncontrolled airspace to controlled airspace.

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Terminal Control Area (TCA)

Controlled airspace with high traffic volume, responsible for arrival and departure control. Upward-facing cone shape, typically with Class A, B, C, D, or E airspace. VFR traffic can operate underneath.

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Study Notes

General Airmanship - AER100

  • Airmanship involves understanding all aspects of a flight.
  • Pilot responsibility includes preparation, weather, NOTAMS, routing, airspace, performance, aircraft status, flight gear, and charts.
  • Proper planning prevents poor performance, following CAR 602.71 and CAR 602.72 regarding pre-flight information and weather information.

Airplane Cleanliness

  • A dirty aircraft, including the propeller, can affect performance.
  • Ensure drain grommets are clear.
  • Use approved cleaning agents.
  • A clean windshield is crucial.
  • Bugs can obscure or look like aircraft from a distance.
  • Scratches can hinder pilot vision.
  • Remove/cover open areas.
  • Carburetor air filters must be free from contamination.
  • Inspect exhaust heaters for leaks/cracks for potential engine wear.

Ground Handling

  • Use tow bar or push on horizontal stabilizer or wing strut root fitting or main gear strut.
  • Low-wing aircraft are best pushed on the leading edge.
  • Never push/pull on propeller blades.

Fueling

  • Aircraft and hose nozzle must be grounded to prevent static electricity buildup.
  • Rubber tires do not dissipate static electricity build-up.
  • Hose nozzle should make metal-to-metal contact.
  • Fuel tanks fill after flight to prevent water from entering.
  • Pre-flight inspection should involve checking fuel system thoroughly.
  • Any water contamination requires thorough system check.
  • Water can cause ice crystals in cold weather, affecting fuel lines and filters. Use de-icing additives.
  • Keep fuel caps secure.
  • Use a filter/water separator for fueling with a drum.
  • Portable pumps bonded to drums are useful to transfer fuel.
  • Chamois-lined funnels are emergency options when using drums.

Oil

  • Use approved oil specified by the manufacturer.
  • Leave space for expansion when filling oil.
  • Do not over-tighten oil caps (finger-tight).
  • Overtightening can cause oil leaks due to expansion.

Checking Oil

  • C172S capacity is 8 quarts, POH indicates 5 quarts of oil for operation.
  • Seneca runs on 6 quarts of oil.
  • Never overfill oil tanks.

Pre-Flight Inspection

  • Follow the POH (Pilot Operating Handbook).
  • Check for issues during walk-around examination.
  • Be prepared to take action if issues are found.

Taxiing

  • Move the aircraft on the ground under its own power.
  • Aircraft taxiing factors include considerations, looking inside/out, listening, brake pressure, speed, distance between aircraft, ground surface conditions, and wind conditions. Be aware of jet blast danger zones when taxiing near larger aircraft. Consider differences in ground handling requirements based on aircraft (tricycle, high wing, low wing).

Jet Blast

  • Be aware of jet blast danger zones for different aircraft types and follow appropriate ground safety measures in relation. Sizes and distances vary; understand the associated differences (e.g., jumbo jet vs. executive jet).

Take-Off

  • Taxi to runway end.
  • Final check instruments.
  • Verify approach and departure ends of runway.
  • Be clear on the specifics of intersection take-offs and their procedures, and always consider additional preparation before takeoff.

En-Route

  • Perform workload management checks.
  • Check administrative items such as time, fuel, distance, weather, airspace, and other factors.
  • Use available communication for navigation.
  • Prepare for the next part of the journey.

Mid-Air Collision

  • FTGU: "Pilot in a high-speed executive transport aeroplane observes a jet 1 1/2 miles distant on a 90-degree converging track has 7 seconds to take evasive action.. "
  • Minimum response time for a potential mid-air collision is 10 seconds.
  • Consider minimum required actions, and identify required corrective actions.
  • Utilize "SEE AND AVOID" principle.

Mid-Air Collision - Scanning

  • Eye sees what the brain/mind lets it see.
  • Recognize several factors affecting scanning, including those discussed in Human Factors.
  • Identify critical areas for scanning (60 deg left/right, 10 deg up/down).
  • Be aware of different types of aircraft requiring longer scans.
  • Scan with head still and use external scan as needed.

Approach & Landing

  • Be aware of aircraft position.
  • Check for correct aircraft performance.
  • Check airport and runway conditions.
  • Preparation for landing continues through taxiing, fueling, and parking procedures.
  • Conduct a preflight review.
  • Always follow correct procedures and precautions to avoid errors.

Landing Errors

  • Unstable approaches must meet specific criteria.
  • Correct flight path, attitude, and speed are key for a stable approach.
  • Rate of descent should not exceed 1000 feet per minute (fpm).
  • Correct configuration is important.
  • Aircraft must be able to finish landing within the designated touchdown zone.

Wheelbarrowing

  • Inadvertently pushing too much on the nosewheel.
  • Directional control loss and braking caused by excess speed during the landing with full flaps.
  • Aircraft touch down with little or no rotation.
  • Best to go-around if executing incorrectly.

Balloon

  • Sensation that the ground is approaching quickly can cause an abrupt pitch up.
  • Pilot over-corrects causing a secondary balloon or bounce.
  • To avoid a possible bounce, pilot should re-establish cruise, add power, and then flare in a well-rehearsed and planned procedure.
  • Safer solution is to go-around if conditions and procedures are not being correctly met.

Bounce

  • Due to slow/late flare, nose wheel contacts runway.
  • Pilot late reaction resulting in a bounce.
  • Early correction is better, but a go-around is often best if executing correctly and avoiding further bounce or stalling.
  • Analyze what caused the bounce (e.g., speed, flare technique).

Porpoise Landing

  • Aircraft condition that bounces back and forth between the nose and main wheels.
  • Incorrect landing attitude and excess speed can cause porpoising.
  • Violent and unstable, with a go-around often the best solution.

Go-Around/Overshoot (Balked Landing)

  • Pilot decides to avoid the landing due to various factors, including preparation checks and preflight assessment.
  • Understand the necessary steps for a go-around in relation to preflight checklists.

Go-Around/Overshoot

  • A go-around may be necessary for any number of factors from traffic, weather conditions, or unstable or poor aircraft approach, or communicated instructions from ATC.
  • Use fluid procedure to apply full power and establish level flight.

Seneca C172S Go-around Procedure

  • Understand the criteria for a go-around to execute safely.
  • Including specific checklists in completing the procedure.
  • Understand that the flap settings should not be altered during a go-around if they are below 20 degrees.

Braking Technique

  • Excessive braking can wear down the braking system.
  • Never apply brakes before landing.
  • The nosewheel should be lowered slowly and gently when landing, using smooth control inputs.
  • Firm pressure should be applied on landing to stop, but avoid pumping the brakes.
  • Braking on wet, icy runways should be minimized (or modified).

Flat Spotted Tires

  • Flat spotted tires occur from brakes being engaged upon landing.
  • Heels should be on the floor when landing to reduce the risk of tire damage.

Hydroplaning

  • Occurs on wet or icy runways. Types include dynamic, viscous, and reverted rubber.
  • Inflated tires are required for this assessment.
  • If hydroplaning occurs, evaluate tire pressure.
  • Understanding all three types of hydroplaning can prepare the pilot for such situations. Always check the appropriate POH for specifics in regard to the aircraft.
  • Note threshold velocities to prepare for hydroplaning on rolling/non-rotating tires.

Dynamic Hydroplaning

  • Occurs on surface with standing water that is deeper than the tread depth of the tire.
  • Results in brakes locking up, and tire/water riding action causing skidding.

Viscous Hydroplaning

  • Caused by the viscous properties of water.
  • A thin layer of water (no more than .001 inch) can occur, and occurs at a reduced speed compared to dynamic hydroplaning. Lower speed and a smooth surface are key factors when analyzing.
  • Requires smooth surface and lower speeds to avoid hydroplaning.

Reverted Rubber

  • Heavy braking may cause the rubber to liquify and create steam, creating a temporary seal between the tire and the runway.
  • A thin water film creates the conditions to allow this.

Miscellaneous

  • Include a variety of factors that may involve procedures, conditions, and checks to assist in pilot assessment. Be aware that "miscellaneous" can include a variety of potential issues.

Wake Turbulence

  • Understand aircraft are likely to suffer from pressure differential, wing-tip vortices, and other wake-related factors.
  • Heavier, slower, clean aircraft are more likely to produce severe wake-related problems.

Wake Turbulence Avoidance

  • Understand the factors affecting aircraft, especially prior to takeoff and/or landing.
  • Be aware of minimum distances that must be maintained for various aircraft sizes.
  • Analyze the different types of wake turbulence by reviewing the appropriate aircraft in question.

Separation Minima

  • Know the separation minimum requirements based on aircraft size to ensure safety during landing and takeoff procedures.
  • Utilize the provided separation charts to guide wake turbulence avoidance during takeoff and landing procedures.
  • There are specific separation clearances needed to ensure safety in following behind another aircraft, and specific procedures must be followed depending on the type of aircraft and how close other aircraft may be nearby.

Ground Effect

  • Recall induced and parasite drag.
  • High pressure occurs on the underside of the wing, low pressure on the upper side.
  • Gravity related air pressure creates lift; more down-going air requires more work to generate lift.
  • Low airspeed and high angle of attack conditions can create increased induced drag. When the aircraft is higher and above half its wingspan, ground effect diminishes.
  • Understand the procedures for normal and abnormal operations of take-offs, and landings based on ground effect and other considerations.
  • Avoid issues with aircraft taking off prematurely or floating on the runway during landing.

Wind Shear

  • Abrupt wind speed changes from factors such as differences in wind speed and direction at various altitudes will affect aircraft inertia. Be aware and properly execute procedures and consider all appropriate steps if encountering wind shear.
  • Pilots must be prepared and aware when taking off or landing in conditions concerning an aircraft's ability to perform. Recognize that wind shear conditions can cause performance loss and problems such as stalls, undershoots, or overshoots. Adjust power and other controls as appropriate to mitigate the potential issues.

Wind Shear - Crosswind

  • Wind shear can cause a change in the required crab angle to control and compensate for the wind direction and speed during takeoff and landing.

Gusting Conditions

  • Gusts can cause momentary increases in wind velocity causing potential issues to the approach procedures and/or landing process.
  • Recognize that increased wing loading may occur due to gusts. Be prepared to reduce airspeed to compensate for gusting during flight by adjusting throttle positions and/or using other controls, or to go-around when appropriate.

Rain

  • Discuss illusions (which may be covered in Human Factors modules) that occur in rain conditions.
  • The horizon can appear lower than it appears to be from the ground.
  • The pilot must compensate for this visual illusion when flying during a rain event. Be aware of potential factors that can arise during a rain/storm based upon any potential issues with lighting.
  • Recognize and mitigate the effects of rain on visibility.

Volcanic Ash

  • Volcanic ash is a significant problem, affecting aircraft as it's the equivalent of being sandblasted during such events.
  • Melting of ash can cause engine failures. Pilots should be aware when adverse conditions may occur, and use weather charts to inform their decisions. Follow procedures to mitigate any potential issues.

Low Flying Recommendations

  • Reduce airspeed, and always keep one hand on the throttle when flying in poor weather conditions.
  • Overestimating airspeed in low flight is a potential safety issue.
  • Rout the flight path to avoid major cities.
  • Avoid intentional low-level flight as a method of mitigating potential issues. Always follow required procedures and consider other factors in mitigating issues.

Cold/Winter Operations

  • Be aware of potential issues involved with winter flight including weight of snow, frost, ice, temperatures, and other factors.
  • Weight of snow can jam aircraft components and ice can damage aircraft.
  • Cabin heaters should be rigorously examined.
  • Landing and take-off distances increase, and maximum crosswinds are reduced when dealing with winter conditions.
  • Be prepared to adjust procedures for conditions that may arise during the flight in relation to cold/winter operational issues.

Critical Surface Contamination

  • Maintain aircraft contamination-free status.
  • CARs 602.11 applies to contamination on any critical surface of an aircraft, and involves a thorough review of conditions and factors involved in weather preparation.
  • Recognize that contaminated conditions affect aircraft performance during take-off and landing.
  • Recognize increased stall speed.

De-Icing

  • Properly execute the steps/procedures for restoring aircraft to a suitable and safe configuration.
  • Utilize heated hangars for the purpose of drying the aircraft effectively.
  • Wing covers aid in preventing contamination from snow and/or ice.
  • Brooming should be used for light snow/frost.
  • Larger aircraft use heated de-icing fluid under pressure.

De-Icing Fluid Types

  • Different de-icing fluids have varied properties.
  • The fluids' viscosities and temperature ratings differ based on their designated category.

Collision Avoidance

  • Utilize scanning techniques and pre-flight plan preparations to prevent collisions.
  • Be prepared to take action in case of any factors impacting visibility.
  • Be aware of passenger visibility issues.
  • Be prepared to execute any maneuvers needed to ensure safety and control of the aircraft. Always keep aircraft clearly in sight to avoid collision and take the appropriate measures to avoid collisions.

The End

  • Review the concepts covered. Answer any remaining questions. Be prepared to follow procedures and mitigate any issues with proper communication regarding potential issues or needs from any parties involved with, or concerned about, the procedures being followed.

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