Aircraft Landing Procedures Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What is the primary reason for wheelbarrowing in aircraft landings?

  • Excessive pitch up during approach
  • Touching down with full flaps
  • Arriving in the touchdown zone too slowly
  • Inadvertently pushing too much on the nosewheel (correct)
  • Which of the following best describes a ballooning error in landing?

  • Touchdown occurs prematurely, leading to a bounce.
  • A gradual descent results in a porpoise effect.
  • Over-flaring leads to an excessive climb after touchdown.
  • The pilot abruptly pitches up due to the sensation of rapid ground approach. (correct)
  • What is the safest correction during a bounce landing?

  • Initiate a go-around. (correct)
  • Continue with the landing attempt.
  • Attempt to land on the main wheels only.
  • Increase descent speed.
  • What typically causes porpoising during landing?

    <p>Excess speed combined with an incorrect landing attitude.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under which circumstances should a pilot consider a go-around?

    <p>In the event of bad weather or crosswinds.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What triggers reverted rubber hydroplaning?

    <p>Prolonged locked-wheel skid during heavy braking</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does water play in reverted rubber hydroplaning?

    <p>It facilitates a steam layer that keeps the tire off the runway.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main characteristic of wake turbulence?

    <p>It is stronger when the aircraft is clean, heavy, and slow.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is it recommended to avoid flying below and behind a large aircraft?

    <p>During takeoff roll after rotation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do stronger winds affect wake turbulence?

    <p>They push the vortices away from the runway.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a sign of possible fuel icing during operation?

    <p>Reduced engine power</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why should fuel caps be vented?

    <p>To allow for fuel expansion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done when suspecting water contamination in the fuel?

    <p>Thoroughly check the entire fuel system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When fueling with a drum, which is a recommended procedure?

    <p>Let the drum stand to settle contaminants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the proper oil capacity for a C172S aircraft?

    <p>8 quarts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can lead to ice crystals contaminating fuel lines in cold weather?

    <p>Water present in the fuel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended action regarding fuel caps during pre-flight inspections?

    <p>Check for secure fit</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a consideration when taxiing an aircraft?

    <p>Monitor distance between aircraft</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum time required to spot and identify a potential mid-air collision threat?

    <p>10 seconds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a stabilized approach?

    <p>High rate of descent</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which conditions is mid-air collision most likely to occur?

    <p>During daylight in VFR conditions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended practice when scanning for other aircraft?

    <p>Stop and focus on specific areas while keeping your head still</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should a pilot prepare for landing beyond touchdown?

    <p>Establish a plan for fuel and parking</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the critical area to focus on when scanning for traffic?

    <p>60 degrees to the left and right, and 10 degrees up and down</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What altitude and distance should a good landing start according to common practice?

    <p>5,000 feet at 10 miles back</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is essential for effective communication with ATC during flight?

    <p>Providing precise updates and requests</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum separation time required in a non-radar environment between a heavy and light aircraft?

    <p>2 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why does ground effect reduce induced drag during landing?

    <p>High pressure flows from under the wing is stopped by the ground.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which situation can lead to abnormal operations during take-off due to ground effect?

    <p>Allowing the aircraft to lift off too early</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition increases the risk of an aircraft bouncing or porpoising during landing?

    <p>Fast approach speed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of induced drag when an aircraft is in ground effect?

    <p>Induced drag decreases significantly.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When does ground effect cease to be beneficial during take-off?

    <p>When the aircraft is just above stall speed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does ground effect help during normal landings?

    <p>It assists in a slower downward attitude for touchdown.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor increases the risk of running off the end of the runway upon landing?

    <p>Fast approach leading to floating</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should a pilot do when encountering ash that can cause engine failure?

    <p>Perform a 180-degree turn to escape</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary risk of flying low in poor weather conditions?

    <p>Overestimating airspeed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can happen if snow becomes ice during the take-off roll?

    <p>Take-off may be prevented</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an important safety measure to prevent carbon monoxide poisoning in winter operations?

    <p>Ensuring cabin heaters are free of cracks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does CARs 602.11 state regarding take-offs and critical surface contamination?

    <p>Take-off is prohibited with ice on critical surfaces</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of de-icing fluid is characterized as having low viscosity and used for de-icing?

    <p>Type 1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which recommendation is least appropriate for collision avoidance?

    <p>Ensure passengers do not look for traffic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a notable consequence of ice jamming control surfaces in winter operations?

    <p>Alteration of weight and balance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main effect of reverted rubber during hydroplaning?

    <p>It acts as a seal that delays water exit from the tire footprint area.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which phase of flight does wake turbulence begin?

    <p>When the aircraft rotates for takeoff.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factor directly relates to the intensity of wake turbulence?

    <p>Aircraft weight and speed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a recommended action when taking off behind a large aircraft?

    <p>Lift off before the preceding aircraft and have a steeper flight path.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which situation is most likely to create significant wake turbulence?

    <p>A large aircraft flying at a slow speed with clean configuration.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done immediately if water contamination is suspected in the fuel system?

    <p>Perform a complete system check.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can happen if fuel tanks are filled to the very top in warmer conditions?

    <p>It may lead to fuel expansion and potential leaks.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these procedures is recommended when using a drum for fueling?

    <p>Let the drum stand to allow contaminants to settle.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common sign of engine issues that may indicate fuel icing?

    <p>Reduced engine power and rough running.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the proper oil capacity for a Seneca aircraft?

    <p>6 quarts.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During the pre-flight inspection, why is it important to ensure that fuel caps are secure?

    <p>To avoid fuel leakage and contamination.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should a pilot do when taxiing to ensure safety?

    <p>Consider environmental factors like wind and ground surface condition.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does 'immediate take-off' indicate during taxiing?

    <p>Taxiing and taking off are done in one continuous movement.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should a pilot not do when landing to prevent excessive wear on the braking system?

    <p>Land with brakes already applied</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition decreases the friction needed to stop and maneuver the aircraft?

    <p>Hydroplaning</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the go-around procedure, which action should be taken first after smoothly applying full power?

    <p>Establish a level flight attitude</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key characteristic of dynamic hydroplaning?

    <p>It results from a complete loss of tire contact with a thicker layer of water</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should brakes be used after landing to avoid potentially damaging techniques?

    <p>Apply positive brake pressure until stopped</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is a condition under which hydroplaning can occur?

    <p>On wet or icy runways</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the threshold velocity for hydroplaning when the tire is not rotating, expressed in terms of tire pressure?

    <p>$7.7 imes Tire Pressure$</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary factor that affects hydroplaning risk during landing?

    <p>Surface type and conditions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a major reason for ensuring the cleanliness of an aircraft before flight?

    <p>To improve the pilot's visibility through a clean windshield</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a proper practice when fueling an aircraft?

    <p>Ensuring the hose nozzle makes metal-to-metal contact</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be verified regarding the aircraft's carburetor air filters?

    <p>They must be free from contamination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which action is NOT recommended regarding aircraft movement on the ground?

    <p>Pushing on the propeller blades to move the aircraft</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it important to check drain grommets before flight?

    <p>To prevent contamination from moisture</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does static electricity affect fueling an aircraft?

    <p>It can build up and ignite fuel vapors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason for pilots to perform thorough flight preparation?

    <p>To avoid accidents and ensure safe performance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it advised to fill aircraft tanks after flying?

    <p>To reduce the likelihood of fuel expansion causing spills</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum required separation time between heavy and light aircraft in a non-radar environment?

    <p>2 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary factor that triggers induced drag during flight?

    <p>Low airspeed and high angle of attack</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must pilots do to mitigate risks when unexpectedly lifted off during a take-off?

    <p>Ensure the aircraft is above stall speed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During landing, what can occur if an aircraft approaches too fast?

    <p>Floating down the runway</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main concern associated with initiating a take-off before reaching take-off speed?

    <p>Risk of stalling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What flight situation can ground effect negatively influence during landing?

    <p>Floating after touchdown</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What describes the condition when ground effect ceases to be beneficial during take-off?

    <p>When the aircraft reaches one wingspan of altitude</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should pilots remember regarding their responsibility during wake turbulence warnings?

    <p>It is the pilot's responsibility to maintain caution</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What impact can blocked aircraft components from blowing snow have during winter operations?

    <p>It can lead to ice jamming control surfaces.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding take-off and critical surface contamination?

    <p>A clean aircraft configuration is mandatory for take-offs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What strategy should pilots employ when encountering vapors during low flying operations?

    <p>Make a 180-degree turn to escape.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical consideration regarding cabin heaters in cold weather operations?

    <p>Heaters must be free of cracks to prevent carbon monoxide poisoning.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which de-icing fluid type is designed for use when the V1 speed is greater than 100 knots?

    <p>Type 1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of snow turning into ice during the take-off roll?

    <p>It may prevent reaching sufficient take-off speed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which recommendation is essential to avoid a collision during flight?

    <p>Keep windshields clean and stable.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done to restore an aircraft to a clean configuration after de-icing?

    <p>Utilize heated de-icing fluids and ensure drying.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a solid red signal indicate to an aircraft?

    <p>Do not land. Continue circling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should be taken when a flashing red signal is displayed?

    <p>Taxi clear of the runway immediately</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does alternating green and red signals in the air indicate?

    <p>Danger. Be on alert</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which signal instructs a vehicle to vacate the runway immediately?

    <p>Blinking runway lights</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is indicated by a solid green signal while in the air?

    <p>Cleared for take-off</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the ARCAL system in aerodrome lighting?

    <p>To allow pilots to activate aerodrome lighting from the aircraft</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How far can approach lights be seen, depending on airport operations?

    <p>Varies based on runway size and instrument approaches</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of light configuration is typically found on a runway?

    <p>Two parallel lines of lights visible at least 2 miles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic feature of the Beacon light in aerodrome lighting?

    <p>It rotates with a cycle of 2-3 seconds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the operational distance of the VASIS for a safe slope?

    <p>Approximately 4 nautical miles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which requirement is necessary for entering Class A airspace?

    <p>IFR equipped aircraft</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes Class F airspace from other airspace classes?

    <p>It has defined dimensions with specific activities.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required for pilots operating within Class A airspace?

    <p>Instrument rating</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to Class F airspace when it is inactive?

    <p>It follows the regulations of surrounding airspace.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true regarding flight information regions in Canadian airspace?

    <p>Canadian airspace has seven flight information regions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic that distinguishes an airport from a registered aerodrome?

    <p>An airport is certified and inspected for compliance.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What procedure must be followed when moving an aircraft on the surface of an aerodrome?

    <p>Follow the designated taxiways and signs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How are runway numbers determined according to the bearing?

    <p>They are the bearing rounded to the nearest ten degrees.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of an aerodrome, which area is specifically intended for loading and unloading passengers and cargo?

    <p>Apron</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of registering an aerodrome?

    <p>To publish aeronautical information in the Canadian Flight Supplement.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of an aerodrome is used for the take-off and landing of aircraft?

    <p>Maneuvering Area</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'certified aerodrome' imply?

    <p>It must meet specific Transport Canada inspection standards.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an essential function of standardized aerodromes?

    <p>They ensure consistent procedures for pilots.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum allowable deviation in nautical miles from the flight plan when operating within the Air Defence Identification Zone (ADIZ)?

    <p>20 nm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what altitude does high level airspace begin?

    <p>FL180</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of a displaced threshold on a runway?

    <p>It indicates an area that cannot be used for landing.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What marking indicates that a section of the runway is closed?

    <p>White X</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the frequency used to monitor or broadcast in uncontrolled airspace?

    <p>126.7 MHz</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly defines Controlled Low Level Airspace?

    <p>Airspace from 2,200' AGL to 12,499' ASL</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the Engineered Material Arrestor System (EMAS)?

    <p>A safety system to prevent overrunning runways.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What feature distinguishes temporary runway markings from permanent ones?

    <p>Durability of materials used</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of T Routes in the low-level airspace?

    <p>They have a 4 nm primary obstacle protection buffer.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of perimeter markers around unpaved runways?

    <p>To delineate the boundaries and enhance visibility.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the altitude range classification for Class F airspace located within Low Level Airspace?

    <p>2,200' AGL to 12,499' ASL</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required from a pilot when there is a change in flight plan while in the ADIZ?

    <p>Notify ATC immediately.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does wind direction affect runway usage?

    <p>It dictates the runway configurations for landing.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What indication does a wind sock provide about wind conditions?

    <p>The prevailing wind direction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In high-level airspace, which level is designated as the Arctic Control Area?

    <p>FL270</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which color is commonly associated with non-certified perimeter markers?

    <p>International orange</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum distance apart that adjacent taxiway lights can be placed?

    <p>200 feet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does ARCAL stand for in aerodrome lighting operations?

    <p>Aircraft Control of Aerodrome Lighting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of light is used at the ends of a runway for identification purposes?

    <p>Fixed white light or strobe</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long can ARCAL lighting be activated using the 'K' signal?

    <p>15 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the visibility range of a beacon light used in aerodrome operations?

    <p>10 nm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes an airport from a registered aerodrome?

    <p>An airport is inspected periodically for compliance with standards.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is primarily the purpose of standardized aerodromes?

    <p>To ensure consistent procedures and safety for pilots.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How are runway numbers determined?

    <p>They correspond to the bearing, rounded to the nearest 10 degrees.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main characteristic of a maneuvering area in an aerodrome?

    <p>It is the area intended for take-off, landing, and aircraft movement.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement correctly describes a registered aerodrome?

    <p>It can publish aeronautical information but is not certified.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What activities are typically conducted in an apron area of an aerodrome?

    <p>Loading/unloading of passengers and cargo, and fueling.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key requirement for maintaining a registered aerodrome's operational status?

    <p>The operational condition of the aerodrome must be sufficient.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the last zero in runway numbering is correct?

    <p>It is omitted when displaying the runway number.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What sets the flight altitude and level in Southern Domestic Airspace?

    <p>Based on magnetic tracks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Prior to departure in the Standard Pressure Region, which altimeter setting should be used?

    <p>Current altimeter setting or elevation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How are surface winds reported in Northern Domestic Airspace?

    <p>Based on true track</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum altitude included in the Southern Domestic Airspace where altitude settings apply?

    <p>17,999 feet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does Class F airspace behave when it is inactive?

    <p>It assumes the rules of surrounding airspace.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In Northern Domestic Airspace, what is the altimeter set to during cruise?

    <p>29.92&quot; Hg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is true regarding the altimeter setting for approaches in Southern Domestic Airspace?

    <p>Set to current altimeter setting for the intended airport</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the requirement for approval to enter restricted Class F airspace?

    <p>Prior permission is needed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What kind of airspace requires ATC clearance before entry?

    <p>Class A</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main navigation challenge in Northern Domestic Airspace?

    <p>Erratic compass behavior</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic of Flight Information Regions within Canadian airspace?

    <p>They provide flight information services.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When cruising in Southern Domestic Airspace, how often should the altimeter be adjusted?

    <p>To the nearest reported altimeter setting along the route</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical altitude range for Control Area Extensions?

    <p>2,200' AGL – 17,999' ASL</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of airspace requires VFR pilots to establish 2-way radio communication with ATC before entering?

    <p>Class D</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct procedure for descending via VASIS when aligned with the centerline?

    <p>Only descend after established on the centerline.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines Class G airspace?

    <p>Uncontrolled airspace with no ATC authority</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of the Remote Communications Outlet (RCO)?

    <p>To advise pilots remotely about conditions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which Class of airspace is designated for high volumes of traffic with arrival and departure control?

    <p>Terminal Control Area</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the usual broadcast frequency at uncontrolled airports?

    <p>123.2 MHz if no specific frequency is listed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does Class C airspace treat IFR and VFR aircraft while in operation?

    <p>ATC provides separation for both IFR and VFR traffic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended altitude and distance for joining a traffic circuit at an uncontrolled airport?

    <p>3,000’ AGL at 5 nm.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what scenario might a pilot join a downwind leg at an uncontrolled airport?

    <p>If traffic is confirmed clear.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic of Class B airspace?

    <p>ATC instructions required for all aircraft</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following indicates a standard left-hand circuit at a controlled airport?

    <p>All turns should be made to the left.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which airspace class is separation only provided for IFR traffic?

    <p>Class E</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the surface area width of low-level air routes in Class G airspace?

    <p>9 nautical miles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must a pilot receive before entering controlled airspace?

    <p>Clearance from the control tower.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of communication is necessary in Class D airspace when ATC is operating?

    <p>2-way radio communication</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which operation requires strict adherence to pilot clearance and good weather conditions?

    <p>Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO).</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should pilots do if they encounter NORDO aircraft while approaching an uncontrolled aerodrome?

    <p>Visually ascertain runway conditions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which airspace classification transitions to Class E when ATC is not operating?

    <p>Class D</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is typically the purpose of standard radio calls at uncontrolled airports?

    <p>To communicate intentions and position for safety.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    General Airmanship - AER100

    • Airmanship involves understanding all aspects of a flight.
    • Pilot responsibility includes preparation, weather, NOTAMS, routing, airspace, performance, aircraft status, flight gear, and charts.
    • Proper planning prevents poor performance, following CAR 602.71 and CAR 602.72 regarding pre-flight information and weather information.

    Airplane Cleanliness

    • A dirty aircraft, including the propeller, can affect performance.
    • Ensure drain grommets are clear.
    • Use approved cleaning agents.
    • A clean windshield is crucial.
    • Bugs can obscure or look like aircraft from a distance.
    • Scratches can hinder pilot vision.
    • Remove/cover open areas.
    • Carburetor air filters must be free from contamination.
    • Inspect exhaust heaters for leaks/cracks for potential engine wear.

    Ground Handling

    • Use tow bar or push on horizontal stabilizer or wing strut root fitting or main gear strut.
    • Low-wing aircraft are best pushed on the leading edge.
    • Never push/pull on propeller blades.

    Fueling

    • Aircraft and hose nozzle must be grounded to prevent static electricity buildup.
    • Rubber tires do not dissipate static electricity build-up.
    • Hose nozzle should make metal-to-metal contact.
    • Fuel tanks fill after flight to prevent water from entering.
    • Pre-flight inspection should involve checking fuel system thoroughly.
    • Any water contamination requires thorough system check.
    • Water can cause ice crystals in cold weather, affecting fuel lines and filters. Use de-icing additives.
    • Keep fuel caps secure.
    • Use a filter/water separator for fueling with a drum.
    • Portable pumps bonded to drums are useful to transfer fuel.
    • Chamois-lined funnels are emergency options when using drums.

    Oil

    • Use approved oil specified by the manufacturer.
    • Leave space for expansion when filling oil.
    • Do not over-tighten oil caps (finger-tight).
    • Overtightening can cause oil leaks due to expansion.

    Checking Oil

    • C172S capacity is 8 quarts, POH indicates 5 quarts of oil for operation.
    • Seneca runs on 6 quarts of oil.
    • Never overfill oil tanks.

    Pre-Flight Inspection

    • Follow the POH (Pilot Operating Handbook).
    • Check for issues during walk-around examination.
    • Be prepared to take action if issues are found.

    Taxiing

    • Move the aircraft on the ground under its own power.
    • Aircraft taxiing factors include considerations, looking inside/out, listening, brake pressure, speed, distance between aircraft, ground surface conditions, and wind conditions. Be aware of jet blast danger zones when taxiing near larger aircraft. Consider differences in ground handling requirements based on aircraft (tricycle, high wing, low wing).

    Jet Blast

    • Be aware of jet blast danger zones for different aircraft types and follow appropriate ground safety measures in relation. Sizes and distances vary; understand the associated differences (e.g., jumbo jet vs. executive jet).

    Take-Off

    • Taxi to runway end.
    • Final check instruments.
    • Verify approach and departure ends of runway.
    • Be clear on the specifics of intersection take-offs and their procedures, and always consider additional preparation before takeoff.

    En-Route

    • Perform workload management checks.
    • Check administrative items such as time, fuel, distance, weather, airspace, and other factors.
    • Use available communication for navigation.
    • Prepare for the next part of the journey.

    Mid-Air Collision

    • FTGU: "Pilot in a high-speed executive transport aeroplane observes a jet 1 1/2 miles distant on a 90-degree converging track has 7 seconds to take evasive action.. "
    • Minimum response time for a potential mid-air collision is 10 seconds.
    • Consider minimum required actions, and identify required corrective actions.
    • Utilize "SEE AND AVOID" principle.

    Mid-Air Collision - Scanning

    • Eye sees what the brain/mind lets it see.
    • Recognize several factors affecting scanning, including those discussed in Human Factors.
    • Identify critical areas for scanning (60 deg left/right, 10 deg up/down).
    • Be aware of different types of aircraft requiring longer scans.
    • Scan with head still and use external scan as needed.

    Approach & Landing

    • Be aware of aircraft position.
    • Check for correct aircraft performance.
    • Check airport and runway conditions.
    • Preparation for landing continues through taxiing, fueling, and parking procedures.
    • Conduct a preflight review.
    • Always follow correct procedures and precautions to avoid errors.

    Landing Errors

    • Unstable approaches must meet specific criteria.
    • Correct flight path, attitude, and speed are key for a stable approach.
    • Rate of descent should not exceed 1000 feet per minute (fpm).
    • Correct configuration is important.
    • Aircraft must be able to finish landing within the designated touchdown zone.

    Wheelbarrowing

    • Inadvertently pushing too much on the nosewheel.
    • Directional control loss and braking caused by excess speed during the landing with full flaps.
    • Aircraft touch down with little or no rotation.
    • Best to go-around if executing incorrectly.

    Balloon

    • Sensation that the ground is approaching quickly can cause an abrupt pitch up.
    • Pilot over-corrects causing a secondary balloon or bounce.
    • To avoid a possible bounce, pilot should re-establish cruise, add power, and then flare in a well-rehearsed and planned procedure.
    • Safer solution is to go-around if conditions and procedures are not being correctly met.

    Bounce

    • Due to slow/late flare, nose wheel contacts runway.
    • Pilot late reaction resulting in a bounce.
    • Early correction is better, but a go-around is often best if executing correctly and avoiding further bounce or stalling.
    • Analyze what caused the bounce (e.g., speed, flare technique).

    Porpoise Landing

    • Aircraft condition that bounces back and forth between the nose and main wheels.
    • Incorrect landing attitude and excess speed can cause porpoising.
    • Violent and unstable, with a go-around often the best solution.

    Go-Around/Overshoot (Balked Landing)

    • Pilot decides to avoid the landing due to various factors, including preparation checks and preflight assessment.
    • Understand the necessary steps for a go-around in relation to preflight checklists.

    Go-Around/Overshoot

    • A go-around may be necessary for any number of factors from traffic, weather conditions, or unstable or poor aircraft approach, or communicated instructions from ATC.
    • Use fluid procedure to apply full power and establish level flight.

    Seneca C172S Go-around Procedure

    • Understand the criteria for a go-around to execute safely.
    • Including specific checklists in completing the procedure.
    • Understand that the flap settings should not be altered during a go-around if they are below 20 degrees.

    Braking Technique

    • Excessive braking can wear down the braking system.
    • Never apply brakes before landing.
    • The nosewheel should be lowered slowly and gently when landing, using smooth control inputs.
    • Firm pressure should be applied on landing to stop, but avoid pumping the brakes.
    • Braking on wet, icy runways should be minimized (or modified).

    Flat Spotted Tires

    • Flat spotted tires occur from brakes being engaged upon landing.
    • Heels should be on the floor when landing to reduce the risk of tire damage.

    Hydroplaning

    • Occurs on wet or icy runways. Types include dynamic, viscous, and reverted rubber.
    • Inflated tires are required for this assessment.
    • If hydroplaning occurs, evaluate tire pressure.
    • Understanding all three types of hydroplaning can prepare the pilot for such situations. Always check the appropriate POH for specifics in regard to the aircraft.
    • Note threshold velocities to prepare for hydroplaning on rolling/non-rotating tires.

    Dynamic Hydroplaning

    • Occurs on surface with standing water that is deeper than the tread depth of the tire.
    • Results in brakes locking up, and tire/water riding action causing skidding.

    Viscous Hydroplaning

    • Caused by the viscous properties of water.
    • A thin layer of water (no more than .001 inch) can occur, and occurs at a reduced speed compared to dynamic hydroplaning. Lower speed and a smooth surface are key factors when analyzing.
    • Requires smooth surface and lower speeds to avoid hydroplaning.

    Reverted Rubber

    • Heavy braking may cause the rubber to liquify and create steam, creating a temporary seal between the tire and the runway.
    • A thin water film creates the conditions to allow this.

    Miscellaneous

    • Include a variety of factors that may involve procedures, conditions, and checks to assist in pilot assessment. Be aware that "miscellaneous" can include a variety of potential issues.

    Wake Turbulence

    • Understand aircraft are likely to suffer from pressure differential, wing-tip vortices, and other wake-related factors.
    • Heavier, slower, clean aircraft are more likely to produce severe wake-related problems.

    Wake Turbulence Avoidance

    • Understand the factors affecting aircraft, especially prior to takeoff and/or landing.
    • Be aware of minimum distances that must be maintained for various aircraft sizes.
    • Analyze the different types of wake turbulence by reviewing the appropriate aircraft in question.

    Separation Minima

    • Know the separation minimum requirements based on aircraft size to ensure safety during landing and takeoff procedures.
    • Utilize the provided separation charts to guide wake turbulence avoidance during takeoff and landing procedures.
    • There are specific separation clearances needed to ensure safety in following behind another aircraft, and specific procedures must be followed depending on the type of aircraft and how close other aircraft may be nearby.

    Ground Effect

    • Recall induced and parasite drag.
    • High pressure occurs on the underside of the wing, low pressure on the upper side.
    • Gravity related air pressure creates lift; more down-going air requires more work to generate lift.
    • Low airspeed and high angle of attack conditions can create increased induced drag. When the aircraft is higher and above half its wingspan, ground effect diminishes.
    • Understand the procedures for normal and abnormal operations of take-offs, and landings based on ground effect and other considerations.
    • Avoid issues with aircraft taking off prematurely or floating on the runway during landing.

    Wind Shear

    • Abrupt wind speed changes from factors such as differences in wind speed and direction at various altitudes will affect aircraft inertia. Be aware and properly execute procedures and consider all appropriate steps if encountering wind shear.
    • Pilots must be prepared and aware when taking off or landing in conditions concerning an aircraft's ability to perform. Recognize that wind shear conditions can cause performance loss and problems such as stalls, undershoots, or overshoots. Adjust power and other controls as appropriate to mitigate the potential issues.

    Wind Shear - Crosswind

    • Wind shear can cause a change in the required crab angle to control and compensate for the wind direction and speed during takeoff and landing.

    Gusting Conditions

    • Gusts can cause momentary increases in wind velocity causing potential issues to the approach procedures and/or landing process.
    • Recognize that increased wing loading may occur due to gusts. Be prepared to reduce airspeed to compensate for gusting during flight by adjusting throttle positions and/or using other controls, or to go-around when appropriate.

    Rain

    • Discuss illusions (which may be covered in Human Factors modules) that occur in rain conditions.
    • The horizon can appear lower than it appears to be from the ground.
    • The pilot must compensate for this visual illusion when flying during a rain event. Be aware of potential factors that can arise during a rain/storm based upon any potential issues with lighting.
    • Recognize and mitigate the effects of rain on visibility.

    Volcanic Ash

    • Volcanic ash is a significant problem, affecting aircraft as it's the equivalent of being sandblasted during such events.
    • Melting of ash can cause engine failures. Pilots should be aware when adverse conditions may occur, and use weather charts to inform their decisions. Follow procedures to mitigate any potential issues.

    Low Flying Recommendations

    • Reduce airspeed, and always keep one hand on the throttle when flying in poor weather conditions.
    • Overestimating airspeed in low flight is a potential safety issue.
    • Rout the flight path to avoid major cities.
    • Avoid intentional low-level flight as a method of mitigating potential issues. Always follow required procedures and consider other factors in mitigating issues.

    Cold/Winter Operations

    • Be aware of potential issues involved with winter flight including weight of snow, frost, ice, temperatures, and other factors.
    • Weight of snow can jam aircraft components and ice can damage aircraft.
    • Cabin heaters should be rigorously examined.
    • Landing and take-off distances increase, and maximum crosswinds are reduced when dealing with winter conditions.
    • Be prepared to adjust procedures for conditions that may arise during the flight in relation to cold/winter operational issues.

    Critical Surface Contamination

    • Maintain aircraft contamination-free status.
    • CARs 602.11 applies to contamination on any critical surface of an aircraft, and involves a thorough review of conditions and factors involved in weather preparation.
    • Recognize that contaminated conditions affect aircraft performance during take-off and landing.
    • Recognize increased stall speed.

    De-Icing

    • Properly execute the steps/procedures for restoring aircraft to a suitable and safe configuration.
    • Utilize heated hangars for the purpose of drying the aircraft effectively.
    • Wing covers aid in preventing contamination from snow and/or ice.
    • Brooming should be used for light snow/frost.
    • Larger aircraft use heated de-icing fluid under pressure.

    De-Icing Fluid Types

    • Different de-icing fluids have varied properties.
    • The fluids' viscosities and temperature ratings differ based on their designated category.

    Collision Avoidance

    • Utilize scanning techniques and pre-flight plan preparations to prevent collisions.
    • Be prepared to take action in case of any factors impacting visibility.
    • Be aware of passenger visibility issues.
    • Be prepared to execute any maneuvers needed to ensure safety and control of the aircraft. Always keep aircraft clearly in sight to avoid collision and take the appropriate measures to avoid collisions.

    The End

    • Review the concepts covered. Answer any remaining questions. Be prepared to follow procedures and mitigate any issues with proper communication regarding potential issues or needs from any parties involved with, or concerned about, the procedures being followed.

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    Description

    Test your knowledge on critical aircraft landing procedures and safety measures. This quiz covers topics such as wheelbarrowing, ballooning errors, and go-arounds, as well as important considerations regarding fuel management and wake turbulence. Perfect for aspiring pilots and aviation enthusiasts!

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