Aerodrome Lighting and Airspace Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What is the purpose of the ARCAL system in aerodrome lighting?

  • To provide a backup lighting system in case of failure
  • To allow aircraft control of lights through a series of clicks (correct)
  • To synchronize lighting with air traffic control schedules
  • To automate the lighting systems based on ambient light

    • How far can beacon lights be seen at an aerodrome?

  • 10 nm (correct)
  • 15 nm
  • 5 nm
  • 20 nm

    • What is the purpose of approach lights at an aerodrome?

  • To indicate the direction of the nearest taxiway
  • To assist in landing by providing visual guidance (correct)
  • To signal aircraft to maintain altitude
  • To illuminate the runway at night for better visibility

    • What is the safe obstruction distance typically maintained for a Visual Approach Slope Indicator System (VASIS)?

    <p>Within 6 degrees</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about runway lights is incorrect?

    <p>Taxiway lights can be spaced more than 200 feet apart</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an aerodrome?

    <p>Any area used for aircraft arrival, departure, movement, or servicing.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes an airport from a registered aerodrome?

    <p>Airports are required to be certified with Transport Canada standards.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a requirement to enter Class A airspace?

    <p>ATC clearance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is included in the movement area of an aerodrome?

    <p>Parts of the aerodrome used for aircraft surface movement.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of a Mode C transponder in Class A airspace?

    <p>Provides altitude information</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is runway numbering primarily determined?

    <p>By the bearing rounded to the nearest ten degrees.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does Class F airspace behave when it is inactive?

    <p>It adapts to the rules of surrounding airspace</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of standardizing procedures across aerodromes?

    <p>To ensure consistent procedures and promote safety.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of airspace requires prior permission for entry?

    <p>Restricted airspace</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What indicates that a registered aerodrome is suitable for operations?

    <p>The aerodrome meets certain condition standards.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does the maneuvering area of an aerodrome serve?

    <p>It is designated for aircraft take-offs, landings, and movements.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about Canadian airspace is correct?

    <p>It is divided into seven flight information regions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where can you find the identification displayed for runways?

    <p>On the approach end of the runway.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary basis for flight altitude and flight levels in Southern Domestic Airspace?

    <p>Magnetic tracks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the standard pressure setting for altimeters in Northern Domestic Airspace prior to the Top of Climb (TOC)?

    <p>29.92” Hg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the airspace included in Canadian Domestic Airspace?

    <p>All airspace over Canadian land mass and high seas</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended altimeter setting before departure in Southern Domestic Airspace?

    <p>Current altimeter setting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How are surface winds indicated in Northern Domestic Airspace?

    <p>In true direction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main configuration of runways and airways in Southern Domestic Airspace?

    <p>Based on magnetic tracks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what altitude does the Northern Domestic Airspace altimeter setting of 29.92” Hg apply?

    <p>Up to 18,000’ and above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should pilots adjust their altimeters to during cruise in Southern Domestic Airspace?

    <p>The nearest reported altimeter setting along the route</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended distance from the runway for a yellow hold short line?

    Signup and view all the answers

    When should a pilot not descend via VASIS while approaching?

    <p>Until aligned with the centerline</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required at uncontrolled airports regarding radio communication?

    <p>Aircraft must be radio equipped and report position</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of Remote Communications Outlets (RCO)?

    <p>To advise pilots of information remotely</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the standard circuit for a controlled airport?

    <p>Left-hand circuit where all turns are to the left</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which signal indicates a recall signal from air to ground?

    <p>Flashing green light</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What designates the minimum altitude for joining the circuit in uncontrolled airports with MF?

    <p>3,000' AGL within 5 NM</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should pilots do at an uncontrolled airfield without marked frequencies?

    <p>Use 122.8 MHz as a default</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In land and hold short operations (LAHSO), what must pilots do?

    <p>Stop before the intersection after accepting clearance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common procedure when joining from the downwind leg at controlled airports?

    <p>Must be cleared to land and can join as directed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of circuit is normally operated at uncontrolled airports?

    <p>Standard left-hand or optional right-hand circuits</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of a displaced threshold on a runway?

    <p>It is used for obstacle clearance during approach.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the appearance of non-certified perimeter markers for an unpaved runway?

    <p>Completely orange without any pattern.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where can green 'follow me' lights be typically found?

    <p>In the center of taxiways.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes an EMAS?

    <p>It is a safety feature designed to arrest an aircraft during overruns.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is the runway in use typically determined?

    <p>By evaluating the direction of wind using indicators.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What indicates a relocated threshold on a runway?

    <p>A prominent red X marking.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What wind speed corresponds to a horizontal position of the wind indicator?

    <p>15 knots</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which area is typically marked with a white X to indicate non-usage?

    <p>Pre-threshold area.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key responsibility of a pilot before each flight?

    <p>To familiarize themselves with all aspects of the flight</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does a dirty aircraft affect its performance?

    <p>It can lead to premature engine wear</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why should an aircraft and hose nozzle be grounded during fueling?

    <p>To prevent static electricity build-up</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one reason for filling fuel tanks after flying?

    <p>To manage center of gravity more effectively</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What could a leak in exhaust heaters potentially lead to?

    <p>Carbon monoxide poisoning</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which action is NOT recommended during ground handling of an aircraft?

    <p>Pushing/pulling on the propeller blades</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following actions helps maintain aeroplane cleanliness?

    <p>Using approved cleaning agents and removing bugs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it important for carburetor air filters to be free from contamination?

    <p>To ensure optimal fuel mixtures</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if there is any suspicion of water contamination in the fuel system?

    <p>Inspect the fuel system thoroughly</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it important not to overfill the oil in an aircraft?

    <p>It can cause oil leaks due to increased pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done when refueling with a drum to ensure safety?

    <p>Allow the drum to stand for a while for contaminants to settle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is an indication of possible fuel icing in an aircraft?

    <p>Reduced engine power</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary consideration during taxiing of an aircraft?

    <p>Ground surface condition and distance between aircraft</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can happen if unnecessary engine power is used during a take-off?

    <p>Reduced fuel efficiency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended action regarding fuel caps during pre-flight inspection?

    <p>Ensure they are tightly sealed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the capacity for oil in a C172S aircraft?

    <p>8 quarts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is primarily necessary for reverted rubber hydroplaning to occur?

    <p>A thin film of water on the runway</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does skidding have on the rubber in contact with the runway during reverted rubber hydroplaning?

    <p>It reverts the rubber to its original uncured state</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During wake turbulence, what factor has the most significant influence on the intensity of the wake vortices generated?

    <p>Weight of the aircraft</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary guideline for avoiding wake turbulence during taxiing behind a helicopter?

    <p>Stay well behind and avoid going below the helicopter</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is wake turbulence the most severe?

    <p>With heavy, slow, and clean configured aircraft</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What corrective action should be taken during decreased performance due to wind shear?

    <p>Momentarily add more power</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What result can occur if an aircraft has excess speed during the landing phase?

    <p>Floating down the runway</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is most severe with respect to wind shear?

    <p>Take-off and landing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom of encountering wind shear during flight?

    <p>Fluctuating airspeed and heading</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can the effect of gusting conditions lead to during an approach?

    <p>Reduction in speed during normal flight</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should pilots typically respond to a crosswind during approach?

    <p>Initiate a go-around</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the potential effect of increased tailwind during wind shear conditions?

    <p>Undershoot tendency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What critical action should be taken if volcanic ash is encountered?

    <p>Report it to air traffic control</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done to avoid engine failure due to ash during night flights?

    <p>Reduce power and make a 180-degree turn</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor increases as landing and take-off distances are affected in winter operations?

    <p>Contaminated taxiway and runway surfaces</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does frost, ice, or snow on critical surfaces affect aircraft performance during take-off?

    <p>It may increase stall speed by at least 5-10%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of the de-icing process for aircraft?

    <p>To prevent contamination and maintain control</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In collision avoidance, what is an effective scanning technique?

    <p>Completing maneuver turns for better clearance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of de-icing fluid is classified as having low viscosity for de-icing purposes?

    <p>Type 1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can result from parked aircraft being loaded with snow?

    <p>Snow can block components and lead to control issues</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should pilots do to ensure the cabin heater is safe during winter operations?

    <p>Confirm it is free of cracks to prevent CO poisoning</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum separation time required between a heavy aircraft and a light aircraft in a non-radar environment?

    <p>2 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs to induced drag when an aircraft approaches the ground at low airspeed and a high angle of attack?

    <p>Induced drag increases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Ground effect reduces induced drag due to which of the following reasons?

    <p>High pressure flow from below the wing is stopped by the ground</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can happen if an aircraft takes off prematurely due to ground effect?

    <p>Risk of stalling during climb</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What strategy is recommended for short or soft field take-off procedures?

    <p>Accelerate after take-off</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which scenario poses the greatest risk of running out of runway during landing?

    <p>Fast approach causing aircraft to float down the runway</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During landing, how is ground effect typically utilized?

    <p>To assist in slowing the aircraft down</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential problem if induced drag increases during take-off?

    <p>A higher chance of stalling the aircraft</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Aerodromes & Airspace

    • Aerodrome is any area of land, water, or other supporting surface designed for aircraft arrival, departure, movement, or servicing.
    • Includes buildings, installations, and equipment situated on or associated with the area.
    • An airport is a certified aerodrome. Certification is maintained by Transport Canada Standards.

    Types of Aerodromes

    • Registered aerodrome: Not certified but registered for publishing aeronautical information in the Canadian Flight Supplement (CFS).
    • Access may be private or public.
    • Must ensure aerodrome condition is sufficient for operations.

    Surface Movement

    • Apron: Area used for loading, unloading, fueling, servicing, maintenance, and parking of aircraft and cargo.
    • Movement area: Parts of the aerodrome used for surface movement, including maneuvering areas and aprons.
    • Maneuvering area: Areas used for take-off, landing, and movement of aircraft.

    Runway Numbering

    • Corresponds to bearing, rounded to the nearest 10°.
    • Last zero is omitted.
    • Runway numbers on the approach ends are 180° apart.
    • Magnetic bearing is used in Southern Domestic Airspace, and true bearing is used in Northern Domestic Airspace.
    • Left, Centre, Right (L, C, R)

    Runway Markings - Paved

    • Threshold: Beginning of the usable runway.
    • Displaced threshold: Unusable portion of the runway is displaced, not suitable for landing.
    • Obstacle clearance during approach.
    • Paved area behind the threshold can be used for taxiing, landing rollout, and initial takeoff.
    • Temporary and permanent displaced thresholds.
    • Markings indicate runway width, aiming point, center lines, and touchdown zones.

    Runway Markings - Unpaved

    • Perimeter established with frangible, weatherproof markers (pyramid or cone-shaped).
    • More markers are required at the four corners.
    • Certified markings are painted in alternate stripes of international orange and white.
    • Non-certified markings are often all orange.
    • Evergreen trees may be used, especially for snow-covered landing strips.
    • The markings define usable areas for aircraft movements.

    Wind Indicator

    • Runway in use is determined by wind direction, using a windsock or wind cone.
    • Flutter indicates gusts.
    • Larger runways have a wind indicator at each end, smaller runways have one centrally located.
    • Wind speed and angle are usually displayed numerically for pilots.

    Aerodrome Lighting

    • Operation at night needs parallel lines of lights.
    • Lights are not more than 200 feet apart.
    • Retroreflectors at aerodromes (2nm); fixed white lights/strobes at either runway end.
    • Double lights at intersections.
    • ARCAL – control of Aerodrome Lighting - K (7 clicks 5 sec, 7,5,3) J (5 clicks 5 sec) 15 min duration.

    Beacon Lights

    • Rotating white light (2-3 seconds) visible from 10 nautical miles radius.
    • Approach lights: Varying types depending on the runway size and instrument approach.

    Visual Approach Slope Indicator System (VASIS)

    • Visible from approximately 4 nautical miles.
    • Usually for a 3-degree slope; obstructions within 6 degrees of the centerline.
    • Eye-to-wheel-height (EWH).
    • VASI - V0-10, VI10-25, V2 25-45
    • PAPIs - AP0-10, PI0-10, P2 10-25, P3 25-45.

    Mandatory Frequency (MF)

    • Uncontrolled airports without a control tower (potentially controlled airspace).
    • Often using a UNICOM frequency (122.8 MHz) or Community Aerodrome Radio (CARS) frequency.
    • Remote Communication Outlet (RCO) – providing remote advisory service.
    • Aircraft are required to be radio equipped and report position and intentions.

    Aerodrome Traffic Frequency (ATF)

    • Airports that do not meet mandatory frequency requirements (often uncontrolled airspace).
    • Using UNICOM (122.8 MHz) or 123.2 MHz.
    • Pilots are responsible for visually ascertaining runway conditions.

    Traffic Circuit

    • A pattern for aircraft movements and approach/departure into an airport, including turns and legs.

    Traffic Procedures - Uncontrolled Airport

    • No tower.
    • 123.2 MHz for broadcast, often using UNICOM (122.8 MHz) or Community Aerodrome Radio (CARS) frequency.
    • Same radio calls are used, however, pilots are responsible for monitoring other aircraft visually.
    • Specific information accessed from CFS (MF &ATF).
    • Left (standard) or right-hand circuits; specific aircraft information available in the CFS.

    Traffic Procedures - Controlled Airport

    • Tower in operation.
    • Standard left-hand circuit (may have a right-hand circuit).
    • Pilots must establish radio communications with the tower.
    • Required 1,000' above ground level.
    • Specific information accessible from CFS.

    Taxiways

    • Aircraft movement to and from the runway.
    • Yellow center line. Yellow hold short lines (200 feet) to prevent collisions with aircraft.
    • Identified by letters (A, B, C, etc.).
    • Green "follow-me" lights.

    Airside Guidance Signs and Markings

    • Guidance to pilots; signs/markings for closed runways, runway holding positions, non-movement area boundaries, ILS, and taxiway holding positions.
    • Includes details of various sign/marking types.

    Altimeter Setting Region

    • Southern Domestic Airspace: Altimeter regularly adjusted to current setting.
    • Pre-departure and cruise setting to the nearest reporting station, or 150 nm apart.
    • Approach adjusting altimeter to airport setting.
    • Airspace up to 17,999 feet.

    Standard Pressure Region

    • Northern Domestic Airspace.
    • Setting altimeter to a standard pressure (29.92'' Hg).
    • TOC/Cruise maintain setting of 29.92''Hg.
    • Approach using airport altimeter setting.
    • Airspace up to 18,000 ft.

    Air Defence Identification Zone (ADIZ)

    • Security zone around the continent, denoted on charts.
    • Required flight plans; deviations limited to +/- 20 nm and +/- 5 minutes.
    • Radio contact required; ATC notifications necessary for changes.

    Airspace Types

    • Controlled airspace: ATC control/separation procedures required.
    • Uncontrolled airspace: No ATC control/separation procedures.
    • Frequency specifics may be published for either classification.

    High Level Airspace

    • Above FL180.
    • Includes Southern Control Area, Norther Control Area, Arctic Control Area.
    • Subdivisions: specific regions, flight levels.

    Low Level Airspace

    • Below FL180.
    • Includes Control Area Extensions, Transition Areas and Terminal Control Areas.
    • Specific, defined regions, flight levels.

    Airspace Classification

    • 7 classifications (A, B, C, D, E, F, G).
    • Airspace classifications are dependent on many factors (flight level, weather, traffic volume, etc.).
    • Classification types determine requirements for radio/communication, equipment, separation, and pilot duties.

    Class G Airspace

    • Uncontrolled Airspace, no ATC.
    • Flight information and alternating services; IFR Flights permitted.

    Class E Airspace

    • Requires controlled airspace separation from IFR traffic in certain areas, but no prior contact with ATC.
    • IFR and VFR are permitted with specific allowances to non-IFR aircraft and weather considerations.

    Class D Airspace

    • Controlled airspace requiring two-way radio communication.
    • ATC separation provided between IFR and VFR aircraft.
    • Certain areas may be designated as transponder areas (radio equipment requirement).
    • Aircraft subject to specific ATC requirements (clearance) for IFR flights and can permit nonradio aircraft, if necessary.

    Class C Airspace

    • Controlled airspace needing ATC separation and radio contact for IFR and VFR aircraft;
    • 2-way radio communication/listening watch required.
    • Minimum equipment requirement for entry is a Mode C transponder.
    • Pilots remain responsible for aircraft avoidance, obstructions, terrain considerations, etc.

    Class B Airspace

    • Controlled airspace.
    • ATC clearances, instructions, and separation between aircraft are needed.
    • 2-way radio, flight plan, and required equipment (e.g., altimeter).

    Class A Airspace

    • Controlled high-level airspace between FL180 and FL600.
    • Instrument rating and IFR-equipped aircraft are required for entry.
    • Standard pressure altimeter setting used.

    Class F Airspace

    • Restricted or advisory airspace.
    • Defined dimensions with confined activities;
    • Military (M) and activities (A, R, D, etc.) are typically found in this designated airspace. An advisory (A) could indicate other types of activity.
    • Restricted entry requires permission, accessible via NOTAM (Notice to Airmen).

    Flight Information Region

    • Seventeen regions in Canada, for services and alternating services.

    FTGU Activity

    • Back of FTGU has a chart of airspace structure and symbols.
    • Investigation of airspace types around CYOO, CYPQ, CYYZ, and CYBN.
    • Identification of Class E Airspace.
    • Investigation of any Class F airspace and type.
    • Vertical structure review of CYYZ airport, and route planning between CYPQ and CYQA airways.

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    Description

    Test your knowledge on aerodrome lighting systems and airspace classifications with this comprehensive quiz. Learn about the components, regulations, and functionalities that ensure safe operations in aviation. Ideal for students and professionals interested in aeronautical studies.

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