10.4 From Notes - Acne Vulgaris: Causes, Development, and Treatment

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson
Download our mobile app to listen on the go
Get App

Questions and Answers

Which of the following factors does NOT directly contribute to the development of acne vulgaris?

  • Follicular proliferation of _Propionibacterium acnes_
  • Excessive sebum production due to increased androgen levels
  • Hyperkeratinization of follicular epithelium
  • Decreased skin pH, inhibiting bacterial growth (correct)

A 14-year-old male presents with severe acne and is diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome. What is the most likely underlying mechanism linking these two conditions?

  • Elevated androgen levels stimulating sebaceous gland activity (correct)
  • Reduced _P. acnes_ colonization due to hormonal imbalance
  • Decreased androgen levels reducing sebum production
  • Increased estrogen levels leading to sebaceous gland atrophy

A patient with acne vulgaris has been prescribed topical retinoids. What is the primary mechanism of action of retinoids in treating acne?

  • Directly killing _Propionibacterium acnes_ on the skin surface
  • Targeting comedogenesis, _P. acnes_, inflammation, and sebum production (correct)
  • Exfoliating the superficial skin layers to reduce inflammation
  • Inhibiting sebum production by directly affecting sebaceous glands

A young child presents with a rash primarily on the face, scalp, and extensor surfaces. Which type of dermatitis is most likely?

<p>Atopic dermatitis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the 'outside-in' mechanism in the pathogenesis of atopic dermatitis?

<p>Primary barrier dysfunction causing immunologic perturbations (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale behind using dilute bleach baths in the management of atopic dermatitis?

<p>To reduce the presence of <em>Staphylococcus aureus</em> colonization on the skin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical feature is most indicative of diaper dermatitis complicated by Candida albicans infection?

<p>Very erythematous rash with sharp margins and pustulovesicular satellite lesions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 3-year-old child presents with honey-colored crusted lesions around the nose and mouth. What is the most likely causative organism?

<p><em>Staphylococcus aureus</em> or <em>Streptococcus pyogenes</em> (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A neonate develops bullous impetigo. What is the primary mechanism behind the blister formation in this condition?

<p>Exfoliative toxins produced by <em>Staphylococcus aureus</em> causing blister formation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for uncomplicated, localized impetigo?

<p>Topical mupirocin or fusidic acid (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child under 5 years presents with fever, malaise, and generalized erythema followed by skin tenderness and blistering. Which condition is most likely?

<p>Staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome (SSSS) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS), exfoliative toxins cause skin separation at which layer of the epidermis?

<p>Granular layer (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child presents with a circular, scaly lesion on the scalp with broken hairs. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?

<p><em>Trichophyton tonsurans</em> (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 7-year-old child is diagnosed with tinea capitis. Why is systemic treatment always required for this condition?

<p>Because topical agents do not penetrate hair follicles (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child presents with erythematous, round patches with central clearing on the arm, acquired after playing with a new kitten. What is the most likely diagnosis?

<p>Tinea corporis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An infant presents with white plaques on the oral mucous membranes. What is the most likely causative agent?

<p><em>Candida albicans</em> (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A school-aged child presents with pearly, dome-shaped papules with central umbilication on the trunk. What is the most likely diagnosis?

<p>Molluscum contagiosum (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following interventions is LEAST likely to prevent the spread of molluscum contagiosum?

<p>Applying topical corticosteroids to reduce inflammation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child presents with a faint pink-to-red maculopapular rash that started on the face and spread to the trunk and extremities, along with enlarged cervical lymph nodes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

<p>Rubella (German measles) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about the MMR vaccine is correct?

<p>The benefits of vaccination outweigh the risks of the disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child presents with high fever, malaise, runny nose, conjunctivitis, and Koplik spots in the mouth, followed by a maculopapular rash. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

<p>Rubeola (red measles) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes rubeola (red measles) from rubella (German measles)?

<p>Rubeola presents with Koplik spots, a symptom absent in rubella (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 10-month-old infant develops a sudden high fever for 3 days, followed by an erythematous macular rash mainly on the trunk. What is the most likely diagnosis?

<p>Roseola (exanthema subitum) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of varicella (chickenpox)?

<p>A rash with lesions in various stages (macules, papules, vesicles) simultaneously (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child is exposed to varicella. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action to prevent or modify the disease?

<p>Administering varicella-zoster immune globulin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A young child presents with fever, vesicular lesions in the mouth, and a rash on the hands and feet. What is the most likely diagnosis?

<p>Hand, foot, and mouth disease (HFMD) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the eradication of smallpox in 1977?

<p>It resulted in the discontinuation of routine vaccination in the US (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following findings is most characteristic of scabies?

<p>Intensely pruritic burrows, papules, and vesicles, especially at night (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child presents with intensely pruritic lesions in the finger webs, axillae, and groin, with symptoms worsening at night. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings reveals mites. What is the most appropriate treatment?

<p>Topical or oral scabicides (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of pruritus (itching) in scabies?

<p>Type IV hypersensitivity reaction to the mite and its products (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child is diagnosed with pediculosis capitis. What is the MOST effective method of detecting live lice?

<p>Wet combing of the hair to identify live lice (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child presents with a cluster of intensely pruritic, urticarial wheals with central hemorrhagic puncture sites on the legs. What is the most likely cause?

<p>Flea bites (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most effective strategy for eliminating a bedbug infestation?

<p>Inspecting, cleaning, and disposing of contaminated items, and using approved insecticides (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn infant presents with a bright red, elevated lesion with minute capillaries on the head that has been growing rapidly since birth. What is the most likely diagnosis?

<p>Infantile (strawberry) hemangioma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of GLUT1 in the pathogenesis of infantile hemangiomas?

<p>It is associated with endothelial glucose transporter 1 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 6-month-old infant has a rapidly progressing hemangioma near the eye, causing visual obstruction. What is the current first-line treatment?

<p>Beta-blockers (e.g., propranolol) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference between cutaneous hemangiomas and vascular malformations?

<p>Hemangiomas involute over time, while vascular malformations grow proportionately with the child (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which histologic process primarily contributes to the formation of comedones in acne vulgaris?

<p>Abnormal desquamation of follicular epithelium. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An adolescent female with acne vulgaris is prescribed combined oral contraceptives. Beyond their hormonal effects, what is another potential mechanism by which these medications can improve acne?

<p>Decreased production of sebum by reducing stimulation of sebaceous glands. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with atopic dermatitis (AD) exhibits a mutation affecting claudin proteins. How does this genetic alteration contribute to the pathogenesis of AD?

<p>By disrupting the skin barrier and increasing transepidermal water loss. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In managing atopic dermatitis, wet wrap therapy is utilized for severe eczema. What is the primary mechanism by which wet wrap therapy alleviates symptoms?

<p>Enhancing skin hydration and increasing the penetration of topical corticosteroids. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is diaper dermatitis more common in infants who have frequent bowel movements or diarrhea?

<p>Digestive enzymes in the stool exacerbate skin irritation and inflammation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What immunological process is primarily responsible for the development of acute glomerulonephritis as a complication of impetigo caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?

<p>Deposition of antibody-antigen complexes in the glomerular basement membrane. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS), exfoliative toxins target desmoglein-1. What is the direct consequence of this interaction on the skin's structural integrity?

<p>Disruption of cell-cell adhesion in the stratum granulosum, causing superficial blistering. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is systemic treatment necessary for tinea capitis?

<p>The infection extends deep into the hair follicles, which topical medications cannot reach. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key factor in the transmission of Trichophyton tonsurans causing tinea capitis, especially in urban settings?

<p>Direct human-to-human contact, often in crowded environments. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child presents with tinea corporis acquired from a kitten. What is the most likely causative organism?

<p><em>Microsporum canis</em>. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the pathogenesis of molluscum contagiosum, the poxvirus inhibits the host's immune response. By what mechanism does the virus achieve this?

<p>Producing proteins that interfere with cytokine signaling. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary route of transmission for rubella?

<p>Respiratory droplets. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mechanism explains the development of congenital rubella syndrome in a fetus when a mother is infected during the first trimester?

<p>The virus interferes with fetal organogenesis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the delivery of measles vaccine considered suboptimal in some regions?

<p>The vaccine is heat-sensitive and difficult to store in remote areas. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying mechanism for the fever that occurs in roseola infantum?

<p>Release of pyrogens due to viral replication in immune cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of administering varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) to a pregnant woman exposed to chickenpox?

<p>It reduces the severity of the disease in the mother and potentially the fetus. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary viral target in hand, foot, and mouth disease (HFMD)?

<p>Mucosal epithelial cells of the mouth and skin. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why was routine smallpox vaccination discontinued in the United States in 1972?

<p>The disease was eradicated worldwide, eliminating the need for routine vaccination. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the itch mite, Sarcoptes scabiei, overcome host defenses upon initial infestation?

<p>By producing complement inhibitors to evade the immune system. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of hypersensitivity reaction causes pruritus (itching) in scabies?

<p>Type IV hypersensitivity, a delayed-type cell-mediated reaction. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the best practice to prevent the spread of head lice in schools and daycare centers?

<p>Discouraging the sharing of personal items like combs and hats. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child presents with intensely pruritic bites that appear in a linear pattern. Which of the following ectoparasites are MOST likely responsible for these bites?

<p>Bedbugs. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do bedbugs locate their human hosts?

<p>By sensing carbon dioxide and warmth. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a major risk factor for the development of cutaneous hemangiomas?

<p>Prematurity and low birth weight. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are beta-blockers, such as propranolol, effective in treating rapidly progressing infantile hemangiomas?

<p>They promote vasoconstriction and inhibit angiogenesis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cutaneous vascular malformations are classified as either low flow or high flow. What primarily determines this classification?

<p>The type of blood vessels involved (capillaries, veins, arteries). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What triggers the inflammatory response in acne vulgaris?

<p><em>Propionibacterium acnes</em> activating toll-like receptors. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do free fatty acids (FFAs) play in the development of acne vulgaris?

<p>They trigger inflammation within the pilosebaceous unit. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What aspect of patient care is particularly important given the psychological impact of acne?

<p>Providing comprehensive psychological support. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In atopic dermatitis, what effect does filaggrin deficiency have on the skin barrier?

<p>Impairs the epidermal barrier, leading to increased permeability. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of emollients in the management of atopic dermatitis?

<p>To hydrate the skin and restore the epidermal barrier. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What feature differentiates diaper dermatitis caused by Candida albicans from simple irritant diaper dermatitis?

<p>Is sharply marginated with satellite lesions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism by which Staphylococcus aureus causes blister formation in bullous impetigo?

<p>Production of exfoliative toxins that target desmosomes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are topical antibiotics often ineffective in treating staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)?

<p>The primary infection site is internal, with toxins spread hematogenously. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following treatment for scabies, intense pruritus can persist for several weeks. Which mechanism explains this phenomenon?

<p>A continuing hypersensitivity reaction to dead mites and their products. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most important step to prevent the spread of lice via fomites?

<p>Hot washing and drying of clothes, bedding, and personal items. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What triggers immune reactions to bedbug bites?

<p>Allergens in saliva injected during feeding. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following features distinguishes cutaneous hemangiomas from vascular malformations?

<p>Rapid growth during infancy followed by slow or no involution. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors contributes most directly to inflammation in acne vulgaris?

<p>The conversion of triglycerides into free fatty acids by <em>P. acnes</em> (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An adolescent patient presents with both inflammatory and noninflammatory acne lesions. Which treatment approach would address both types of lesions most effectively?

<p>Topical retinoid combined with benzoyl peroxide (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child with atopic dermatitis (AD) has a known filaggrin gene mutation. How does this mutation contribute to the characteristic dry and itchy skin in AD?

<p>It impairs the epidermal barrier, leading to increased transepidermal water loss and allergen penetration (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The 'outside-in' mechanism plays a significant role in the pathogenesis of atopic dermatitis. What best describes this mechanism?

<p>Primary skin barrier dysfunction causing secondary immunologic perturbations (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are super-absorbent diapers recommended in the treatment of diaper dermatitis?

<p>To minimize maceration and prolonged exposure to urine and feces (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying mechanism behind the honey-colored crusts observed in both bullous and nonbullous impetigo?

<p>Vesicles rupture, leading to the release of protein-rich fluid that dries and forms a crust (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In cases of suspected community-associated methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA), which antibiotic class should be avoided when selecting systemic treatment for extensive impetigo?

<p>Beta-lactams (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are topical antibiotics ineffective in treating Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS)?

<p>The toxins are produced elsewhere in the body and reach the skin via circulation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child presents with tinea capitis caused by Trichophyton tonsurans. What is the most likely source of this infection?

<p>Asymptomatic human carriers (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic lesion appearance distinguishes tinea corporis from other dermatological conditions?

<p>Erythematous, round/oval scaling patches spreading peripherally with central clearing, creating a ring (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An infant presents with white plaques on the oral mucous membranes, diagnosed as thrush. Besides oral antifungal washes, what preventative measure is important to prevent reinfection?

<p>Treating Candida nipple infection/vaginitis in the mother and sterilizing feeding items (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A school-aged child is diagnosed Molluscum Contagiosum, what mechanism allows the virus to persist in epidermal cells?

<p>The poxvirus induces epidermal cell proliferation and blocks host immune responses (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following the typical prodromal symptoms, what distinguishes rubeola (red measles) from rubella (German measles)?

<p>Rubeola presents with Koplik spots on the buccal mucosa, while rubella does not (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child presents with intensely pruritic lesions in the interdigital spaces, wrists, and groin, worsening at night. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings reveals mites. What explains why the pruritus persists even after treatment with a scabicide?

<p>Delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the dead mites and their products (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are infantile hemangiomas treated with beta-blockers like propranolol?

<p>To induce vasoconstriction and inhibit angiogenesis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Acne Vulgaris

A common skin disease affecting 85% of individuals aged 12 to 25 years, characterized by follicle obstruction and inflammation.

Comedones

Noninflammatory acne lesions, including open (blackheads) and closed (whiteheads) comedones.

Acne Contributing Factors

Factors contributing to acne, including P. acnes proliferation, hyperkeratinization, excessive sebum, and inflammation.

Acne Conglobata

An inflammatory form of acne with communicating cysts and abscesses, potentially causing scarring.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Atopic Dermatitis (AD)

The most common cause of eczema in children, involving genetic predisposition, skin barrier dysfunction, and immune responses.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Filaggrin Deficiency

Impairment leading to water loss and easy penetration of pathogens and allergens in atopic dermatitis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Pruritus

A hallmark symptom, leading to clinical skin changes in atopic dermatitis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Diaper Dermatitis

An irritant contact dermatitis caused by prolonged exposure to urine, feces, maceration, and friction from wet diapers.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Impetigo Contagiosum

A common bacterial infection, primarily in young children, caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Staphylococcal Scalded-Skin Syndrome (SSSS)

A serious staphylococcal infection in children under 5 years, attacking desmoglein and causing skin separation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mycoses

Fungal infections caused by dermatophytes that thrive on keratin, classified by body location.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tinea Capitis

The most common fungal infection in childhood, affecting the scalp and caused by Trichophyton tonsurans or Microsporum canis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tinea Corporis

A common superficial dermatophyte infection affecting nonhairy parts of the body.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Thrush

Candida albicans Infection in the mouth mucous membranes of infants, characterized by white plaques/spots.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Molluscum Contagiosum

A contagious poxvirus infection of the epidermis, characterized by discrete, umbilicated, dome-shaped papules.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rubella

A communicable disease caused by an RNA virus, presenting with a maculopapular rash and mild symptoms.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rubeola

A highly contagious viral disease transmitted by respiratory droplets, presenting with fever, rash, and Koplik spots.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Roseola

A viral disease caused by human herpesviruses 6 or 7, characterized by high fever followed by a nonpruritic rash.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chickenpox (Varicella)

Caused by varicella-zoster virus (VZV), presenting as vesicular lesions in the epidermis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease (HFMD)

A contagious viral disease primarily affecting infants and young children, presenting with fever and vesicular lesions in the mouth, hands, and feet.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Scabies

A contagious disease caused by the itch mite, Sarcoptes scabiei, leading to severe itching.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Pediculosis

Infestation with lice, highly contagious blood-sucking parasites causing pruritic dermatitis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fleas

Wingless insects feeding on blood, causing bites and transmitting diseases.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bedbugs

Blood-sucking parasites living in crevices and cracks, causing pruritic papules.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cutaneous Hemangiomas

Benign tumors from rapid growth of vascular endothelial cells, forming extra blood vessels.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cutaneous Vascular Malformations

Rare congenital anomalies of blood vessels present at birth, classified as low flow or high flow.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Inflammatory Acne Lesions

Inflammatory acne lesions (papules, pustules, cystic nodules).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Propionibacterium acnes (P. acnes)

Bacteria contributing to acne vulgaris

Signup and view all the flashcards

Acne Treatment

Topical retinoids, benzoyl peroxide, and antimicrobial agents.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Atopic Dermatitis Causes

Genetic predisposition, altered skin barrier function, altered innate immunity, and altered immune responses

Signup and view all the flashcards

Atopic Dermatitis Symptoms

Exacerbations, severe pruritus, redness, edema, and scaling.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Diaper Dermatitis Treatment

Frequent diaper changes, air exposure, super-absorbent diapers, and topical protection.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Impetigo Cause

Common in infants and children aged 2-5 years caused by Staphylococcus aureus (S. aureus) and less commonly Streptococcus pyogenes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Impetigo Treatment

Topical mupirocin and fusidic acid.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Staphylococcal Scalded-Skin Syndrome Cause

Caused by group II staphylococci producing an exfoliative toxin that attacks desmoglein, causing skin separation below the granular layer of the epidermis

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fungal Infections (Mycoses)

Tinea or ringworm caused by dermatophytes that thrive on keratin

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tinea Capitis Cause

Trichophyton tonsurans (T. tonsurans), also by Microsporum canis (M. canis) from cats, dogs, and rodents

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tinea Corporis Cause

Contact with kittens and puppies.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Thrush Cause

Candida albicans (C. albicans) in the mucous membranes of the mouth.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Molluscum Contagiosum Cause

Caused by poxvirus that induces epidermal cell proliferation and blocks immune responses.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rubella Cause

RNA virus entering via the respiratory route.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rubeola Cause

Transmitted by direct contact with droplets of an RNA paramyxovirus

Signup and view all the flashcards

Roseola Cause

Caused by human herpesviruses 6 or 7 in infants 6 months to 2 years (up to 4 years)

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chickenpox (Varicella) herpes Zoster Cause

Caused by varicella-zoster virus (VZV), a DNA herpes virus

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease (HFMD) Cause

Commonly caused by coxsackievirus A16 (CV-A16) and enterovirus 71 (EV-A71)

Signup and view all the flashcards

Scabies Cause

Caused by the itch mite, Sarcoptes scabiei.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Scabies Transmission

Personal contact and infected clothing/linens

Signup and view all the flashcards

Pediculosis (Lice) Transmission

Personal contact or indirectly by sharing combs, brushes, towels, or contact with infested clothes, toys, furniture, carpet, or bedding.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cutaneous Hemangiomas

Rapid growth of vascular endothelial cells, forming extra blood vessel formation

Signup and view all the flashcards

Study Notes

Acne Vulgaris

  • The most common skin disease, affecting 85% of people aged 12-25.
  • Onset can occur at a younger age, potentially linked to earlier puberty.
  • Genetic susceptibility plays a role.
  • Incidence is similar in both sexes, but severe disease is more common in males.
  • Develops in pilosebaceous units, primarily on the face, upper chest, and back.
  • These follicles have large sebaceous glands, small vellus hairs, and dilated follicular canals.
  • Lesions result from follicle obstruction, which can be noninflammatory (open and closed comedones) or inflammatory (papules, pustules, cystic nodules).
  • Rupture of closed comedones leads to inflammation, potentially causing scarring.
  • Follicular proliferation of Propionibacterium acnes (P. acnes) is a principal contributing factor .
  • Hyperkeratinization of follicular epithelium is another factor.
  • Excessive sebum production contributes, as androgens increase sebaceous gland size and productivity.
  • Inflammation and follicle rupture occur due to accumulated debris and bacteria.
  • P. acnes produces proinflammatory molecules and enzymes that break down triglycerides into free fatty acids (FFAs), leading to inflammation.
  • Increased sebum feeds bacterial growth.
  • Acne can be associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and endocrine tumors due to higher androgen levels.
  • Individualized treatment may include combinations of topical retinoids, benzoyl peroxide, and antimicrobial agents.
  • Retinoids target comedogenesis, P. acnes, inflammation, and sebum production.
  • Benzoyl peroxide and topical antibiotics target comedogenesis, P. acnes, and inflammation.
  • Combined oral contraceptives can benefit both inflammatory and noninflammatory acne.
  • Systemic therapies (oral antibiotics, sex hormones, corticosteroids, isotretinoin) have potential side effects.
  • Isotretinoin requires pregnancy prevention.
  • Acne surgery (comedo extraction, intralesional steroids, cryosurgery) is used in selected cases.
  • Severe scarring can be treated with dermabrasion, lasers, and resurfacing.
  • Psychologic support is important due to the negative impact on quality of life, self-esteem, and mood, and its association with anxiety, depression, and suicidal ideation.
  • Special consideration is needed for individuals with darker skin due to a greater risk of hyperpigmentation and keloidal scarring.
  • Research continues on new drugs, vaccines, and immunotherapies against P. acnes.
  • Acne conglobata is a severe, inflammatory form with communicating cysts and abscesses that can cause scarring and requires systemic and combination therapies.

Atopic Dermatitis (AD)

  • Also known as atopic eczema.
  • It is the most common cause of eczema in children, with a prevalence of approximately 25% in children and 2-3% in adults.
  • Onset is usually between 2 and 6 months of age, with most cases within the first 5 years.
  • More than half of individuals with AD develop asthma and allergies later in life.
  • Positive skin tests to common food and inhalant allergens are seen in about 80%.
  • Cause is not fully understood but involves an interplay of genetic predisposition, altered skin barrier function, altered innate immunity, and altered immune responses.
  • "Inside-out" (immunologic dysregulation leading to barrier abnormality) and "outside-in" (primary barrier dysfunction causing immunologic perturbations) mechanisms are involved.
  • In AD, memory T cells express cutaneous lymphocyte antigen (CLA), leading to lymphocyte homing to the skin.
  • Inflammation involves activation of a Th2 phenotype, switching to Th1 in chronic phases, and release of cytokines, chemokines, IFN-γ, and GM-CSF.
  • Mast cells, eosinophils, macrophages, and IgE-mediated autoreactivity contribute to inflammation.
  • Filaggrin deficiency impairs the epidermal barrier, causing transepidermal water loss and easy penetration of pathogens and allergens, leading to a systemic hyperactive immune response.
  • Keratinocytes are deficient in toll-like antimicrobial peptides, predisposing to colonization and infection with Staphylococcus aureus, viruses, and fungi.
  • Alterations in the skin microbiome may also promote pathogenic colonization.
  • Clinical features include frequent exacerbations, severe pruritus, redness, edema, and scaling.
  • The skin becomes dry, sensitive, itchy, and easily irritated due to impaired barrier function, with microscopic cracks exacerbating inflammation, drying, and cracking.
  • Itching is a hallmark symptom, and scratching leads to many clinical skin changes.
  • In young children, the rash is primarily on the face, scalp, trunk, and extensor surfaces.
  • In older children and adults, it tends to be on the neck, flexural creases, and hands and feet.
  • Lichenification (thickening of the epidermis) is more common in adults with chronic eczema.
  • There are no specific diagnostic laboratory features.
  • Increased serum IgE, interleukin-4 and -13, eosinophils, and positive allergy skin tests are common.
  • Management includes accurate diagnosis, evaluation of triggers and treatment response, managing confounding factors, and patient/caregiver education.
  • Avoiding triggers and promoting skin hydration with emollients and mild cleansers are key.
  • Bleach baths may help with recurrent infection.
  • Anti-inflammatory agents like topical corticosteroids and calcineurin inhibitors are necessary for acute treatment and flares.
  • Wet wrap therapy is used for severe eczema.
  • Systemic steroids should generally be avoided due to potential adverse effects.
  • Systemic therapy may include immunomodulators, sedating antihistamines, antibiotics, and phototherapy.
  • Research aims to develop molecule-specific targets for long-term remission.

Diaper Dermatitis

  • An irritant contact dermatitis caused by prolonged exposure to urine ammonia and feces, maceration, and friction from wet diapers or airtight covers.
  • Lesions range from mild erythema to erythematous papular lesions.
  • Secondary infection with Candida albicans is common, presenting as very erythematous with sharp margins and pustulovesicular satellite lesions.
  • Disposable diapers have reduced its incidence.
  • Treatment involves frequent diaper changes, air exposure, super-absorbent diapers, and topical protection with petrolatum or zinc oxide.
  • Topical antifungals are used for C. albicans infection.

Infections of the Skin

  • Breaks in skin integrity can cause or worsen infections.
  • Most are superficial, but systemic signs can occur, especially in immunosuppressed children.
  • Bacterial, viral, and fungal infections are major forms of skin disease.

Bacterial Infections

  • Impetigo Contagiosum is common in infants and children aged 2-5 years, caused by Staphylococcus aureus (S. aureus) and less commonly Streptococcus pyogenes.
  • Transmission is by direct and indirect contact, more common in warm, humid climates and crowded conditions.
  • Predisposing factors include anemia and malnutrition.
  • Bacterial invasion occurs through minor skin breaks or as a secondary infection.
  • S. aureus produces exfoliative toxins (ETs) causing blister formation.
  • Two types: nonbullous and bullous (caused only by S. aureus).
  • Both begin as vesicles that rupture to form a honey-colored crust.
  • Lesions are common on the face (around nose and mouth), hands, and exposed areas.
  • Vesicular impetigo (nonbullous) is highly contagious, caused by Streptococcus pyogenes (alone or with S. aureus), and presents with small vesicles and honey-colored crusts.
  • Untreated lesions can spread, and regional lymphadenitis is common.
  • A significant complication is acute glomerulonephritis.
  • Bullous impetigo, caused by S. aureus and its exfoliative toxin, is highly contagious and occurs in neonates.
  • It presents with vesicles enlarging into superficial bullae, forming thin, flat, honey-colored crusts upon rupture.
  • Treatment for uncomplicated lesions is topical mupirocin and fusidic acid.
  • Extensive or complicated cases may require systemic antibiotics, avoiding β-lactams if MRSA is suspected.
  • Prompt treatment prevents complications.
  • Good handwashing and isolating infected items are important for prevention.
  • Staphylococcal Scalded-Skin Syndrome (SSSS) is a serious staphylococcal infection in children under 5 years.
  • Caused by group II staphylococci producing an exfoliative toxin that attacks desmoglein, causing skin separation below the granular layer of the epidermis.
  • Toxins are produced elsewhere in the body and reach the skin via circulation; staphylococci are usually not found in the lesions.
  • Neonates are at highest risk due to lack of immunity.
  • Symptoms begin with fever, malaise, rhinorrhea, and irritability, followed by generalized erythema with skin tenderness.
  • Impetigo may be associated.
  • Erythema spreads to cover the body, sparing palms, soles, and mucous membranes.
  • Within 24-48 hours, blisters and bullae may develop.
  • Pain is severe, and fluid loss can cause dehydration.
  • Perioral and nasolabial crusting occurs.
  • Skin may slough in severe cases, healing in 10-14 days without scarring if secondary infection is prevented.
  • Diagnosis requires culture and histology/cytology to differentiate from Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis.
  • Treatment involves oral or intravenous antibiotics, maintaining fluid balance, and aseptic skin care similar to severe burns.
  • Topical antibiotics are ineffective.

Fungal Infections (Mycoses)

  • Often caused by dermatophytes (tinea or ringworm) that thrive on keratin.
  • Classified by body location.
  • Epidermophyton is a major cause of superficial infections in children, invading the stratum corneum.
  • The inflammatory response is cell-mediated.
  • Tinea pedis (foot) is rare in prepubertal children; scaling is usually eczema.
  • Tinea capitis (scalp ringworm) is the most common fungal infection in childhood, rarely affecting infants, seen in children 2-10 years.
  • Primarily caused by Trichophyton tonsurans (T. tonsurans), also by Microsporum canis (M. canis) from cats, dogs, and rodents.
  • Humans are terminal hosts for M. canis.
  • T. tonsurans spreads directly between humans, especially in crowded areas.
  • Asymptomatic carriers among household contacts are common.
  • Lesions are often circular with broken hairs 1-3 mm above the scalp, causing partial alopecia (1-5 cm diameter).
  • Slight erythema and scaling with raised borders may be present.
  • Diagnosis by KOH examination and fungal culture.
  • Wood light is less popular.
  • Systemic treatment is always required as topical agents don't penetrate hair follicles.
  • Griseofulvin is a common treatment; terbinafine, itraconazole, and fluconazole are alternatives.
  • Tinea corporis (ringworm) is a common superficial dermatophyte infection, commonly caused by M. canis and Trichophyton mentagrophytes, often from contact with kittens and puppies.
  • Affects nonhairy parts of the face, trunk, and limbs.
  • Lesions are erythematous, round/oval scaling patches spreading peripherally with central clearing, creating a ring.
  • Lesions are usually asymmetrical and multiple may overlap.
  • Transmission by direct contact with infected lesions or indirect contact with personal items.
  • Diagnosis by KOH examination of scale from the border.
  • Most lesions respond to topical antifungal medications.
  • Thrush describes Candida albicans (C. albicans) in the mouth mucous membranes of infants, less common in non-immunocompromised adults.
  • C. albicans penetrates the epidermal barrier more easily due to keratolytic proteases.
  • Characterized by white plaques/spots in the mouth leading to shallow ulcers.
  • The tongue may have a dense white covering.
  • Underlying mucosa is red and tender and may bleed.
  • Fever and gastrointestinal irritation may occur, and infection can spread to the groin, buttocks, etc.
  • Diagnosis is clinical but may include microscopy.
  • Treatment can be difficult, including oral antifungal washes (e.g., nystatin).
  • Treating Candida nipple infection/vaginitis in the mother and sterilizing feeding items can help prevent reinfection.

Viral Infections

  • Caused by poxvirus, papovavirus, and herpesvirus.
  • Molluscum Contagiosum is a common, highly contagious poxvirus infection of the epidermis, affecting school-aged children and sexually active young adults.
  • Can be more severe/prolonged in atopic dermatitis and immunodeficiency (including AIDS).
  • Transmitted by skin-to-skin contact, autoinoculation, and fomites.
  • The virus induces epidermal cell proliferation and blocks immune responses, forming saccules with virus clusters.
  • Lesions are discrete, slightly umbilicated, dome-shaped, waxy/pearl-like papules (1-5 mm) anywhere on skin/conjunctiva.
  • In children, mainly on trunk, face, and extremities.
  • Inflammation is usually absent unless traumatized or secondarily infected.
  • Scarring may occur.
  • Diagnosis by visual inspection (dermoscopy, confocal microscopy), stained smears of expressed material, biopsy, cell culture inoculation, or PCR.
  • Most lesions self-resolve in 6-9 months without manipulation, but can take 2-4 years with manipulation.
  • Treatment options include immunomodulatory/antiviral therapy and destructive procedures (cryotherapy, curettage, laser ablation), but no universally effective treatment exists.
  • Cantharidin is commonly used.
  • Treatment is recommended for genital lesions to prevent spread.
  • Destructive therapy is poorly tolerated by children.
  • Recurrences are common.
  • Rubella (German or 3-Day Measles) is a common communicable disease of children and young adults caused by an RNA virus entering via the respiratory route.
  • Mild in most children.
  • Incubation 14-21 days.
  • Prodromal symptoms may include enlarged cervical/postauricular lymph nodes, low-grade fever, headache, sore throat, runny nose, cough.
  • A faint pink-to-red maculopapular rash develops on the face, spreading to trunk/extremities (sparing palms/soles) 1-4 days after initial symptoms.
  • The rash subsides after 2-3 days, usually without complications.
  • Children are generally not contagious after rash development.
  • Vaccination (MMR) is effective, leading to near elimination in the US.
  • Challenges to maintaining elimination include outbreaks in traveled countries, international travel, and unvaccinated individuals.
  • Rubella virus is a candidate for global eradication.
  • Women of childbearing age are immunized if their titer is low, and pregnancy should be avoided for 3 months post-vaccination.
  • Accidental vaccination during pregnancy is not known to cause complications.
  • No specific treatment; recovery is spontaneous.
  • Supportive therapy includes rest, fluids, and vaporizer.
  • Rare complications include mild encephalitis or peripheral neuritis.
  • Rubeola (Red Measles) is a highly contagious acute viral disease of children, transmitted by direct contact with droplets of an RNA paramyxovirus.
  • Incubation 7-12 days without symptoms.
  • Virus enters the respiratory tract,attaches to dendritic cells and macrophages, amplifies in lymph tissue, and progresses to systemic disease.
  • Prodromal symptoms include high fever, malaise, enlarged lymph nodes, runny nose, conjunctivitis, and barking cough.
  • An erythematous maculopapular rash develops on the head, spreading distally over trunk, extremities, hands, and feet within 3-4 days.
  • Early lesions blanch, followed by a brownish hue.
  • Koplik spots (pinpoint white spots with red rings) develop on buccal mucosa 1-2 days before the rash.
  • Rash subsides in 3-5 days.
  • Complications can be from the primary infection or secondary bacterial infection, including measles encephalitis, otitis media, and pneumonia.
  • Prevented by vaccination, but suboptimal delivery and refusal hinder eradication.
  • Postexposure prophylaxis with antivirals complements vaccination.
  • No specific treatment; supportive care as for rubella.
  • Antibiotics for secondary bacterial infections.
  • Roseola (Exanthema Subitum or 6th Disease) is caused by human herpesviruses 6 or 7 in infants 6 months to 2 years (up to 4 years).
  • Incubation 5-15 days, followed by sudden onset of high fever for 3-5 days.
  • After fever, an erythematous, nonpruritic macular rash (24-48 hours) develops, mainly on trunk, neck, and arms.
  • Children usually feel well with few other symptoms.
  • Usually no treatment is needed, and there are no complications.
  • Chickenpox (Varicella) and Herpes Zoster (Shingles) are caused by varicella-zoster virus (VZV), a DNA herpes virus.
  • Incubation 10-27 days (average 14).
  • Vesicular lesions in the epidermis due to infection of keratinocytes.
  • Vesicles rupture, followed by crusting or transient mucous membrane ulcers.
  • Varicella occurs in those not previously exposed, while zoster occurs in those with past varicella, where the virus remains latent in dorsal root ganglia.
  • Live attenuated VZV vaccine since 1995 has significantly reduced varicella incidence and complications.
  • Chickenpox is common in early childhood (90% by age 10) and highly contagious via person-to-person contact and airborne droplets.
  • Children are contagious at least 1 day before rash until 5-6 days after the first lesions in healthy children (longer in immunocompromised).
  • Healthy children have no prodromal symptoms; the first sign may be itching or vesicles on the trunk, scalp, or face, later spreading to extremities.
  • Lesions are in various stages (macules, papules, vesicles) simultaneously.
  • Vesicles are superficial and easily ruptured, with new lesions erupting for 4-5 days (around 100-300 total).
  • Vesicles become crusted.
  • Fever usually lasts 2-3 days.
  • Complications are rare in children but more common in adults.
  • One case usually provides near-complete immunity.
  • Maternal varicella-zoster immunoglobulin can modify disease progression if given before rash.
  • Uncomplicated chickenpox requires no specific therapy.
  • Baths, wet dressings, and oral antihistamines may help with itching and prevent secondary infection.
  • Oral antistaphylococcal drugs for secondary bacterial infection.
  • Prophylactic acyclovir may be valuable in immunosuppressed children.
  • The varicella vaccine protects against both varicella and zoster, but vaccine-resistant viruses are a threat.
  • Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease (HFMD) is a contagious viral disease primarily of infants and young children, commonly caused by coxsackievirus A16 (CV-A16) and enterovirus 71 (EV-A71).
  • Manifests as fever, vesicular ulcerous lesions in the mouth, and vesicular rashes on hands, feet, and buttocks.
  • Some children may have severe complications (meningitis, encephalitis, paralysis, neurorespiratory syndrome).
  • The disease is self-limiting with supportive care; vaccine research is ongoing.
  • Herpes Zoster (Shingles) mainly occurs in adults, but about 5% of cases are in children under 15 years.
  • Smallpox (Variola) is a highly contagious and deadly but preventable disease caused by poxvirus variolae.
  • Eradicated worldwide in 1977; routine vaccination discontinued in the US in 1972.
  • New vaccine (ACAM2000) exists for the US Strategic National Stockpile.

Insect Bites and Parasites

  • Common causes of skin disorders in children and adults.
  • Damage from trauma, allergic reactions, disease transmission, injection of substances, and inflammatory reactions.
  • Scabies and pediculosis are common parasitic infections.

Scabies

  • A contagious disease caused by the itch mite, Sarcoptes scabiei.
  • Common in tropical settings, affecting many children.
  • Transmitted by personal contact and infected clothing/linens.
  • Often epidemic in overcrowded areas with poor sanitation or in long-term care.
  • Mites have mechanisms to overcome host defenses.
  • Immunocompromised individuals are at higher risk.
  • Scabies can facilitate Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus skin infections.
  • Infestation begins with a female mite tunneling into the stratum corneum, depositing eggs and creating a burrow.
  • Eggs mature into adults in 3 weeks.
  • Primary lesions are burrows (2-15 mm), papules, and vesicular lesions with severe itching worsening at night.
  • Two or three bites in a line ("breakfast, lunch, and dinner") may appear on exposed skin.
  • Pruritus is a type IV sensitivity reaction to the mite and its products.
  • First symptoms appear 3-5 weeks after primary infestation, 1-2 days after reinfestation.
  • In older children and adults, lesions are in finger webs, axillae, wrist creases, belt line, nipples, genitalia, and lower buttocks.
  • Infants and young children have involvement of palms, soles, head, back, neck, and face.
  • Secondary infections and crusting can occur from scratching.
  • Diagnosis by observing tunnels/burrows and microscopic examination of skin scrapings for mites, eggs, or feces.
  • Treatment involves topical scabicides or oral ivermectin, which is curative.
  • Pruritus may persist for 10+ days after treatment.
  • All clothing and linens should be washed/dried in hot cycles or dry-cleaned.

Pediculosis (Lice Infestation)

  • Has three types: head louse (Pediculus capitis - most common), body louse (Pediculus corporis), and pubic/crab louse (Phthirus pubis).
  • Highly contagious blood-sucking parasites.
  • Female louse lives about a month and lays 7-10 eggs (nits) daily, mating every 3-4 weeks.
  • Mouthparts pierce and suck blood, secreting toxic saliva causing pruritic dermatitis.
  • Head/body lice spread by direct personal contact or indirectly by sharing combs, brushes, towels, infested clothes/toys/furniture/bedding.
  • Crab lice spread by body contact, such as with an infected adult, or sharing clothing/headphones.
  • Pruritus is the major symptom.
  • Head lice ova attach to hairs above the ears and occipital region.
  • Body louse primary lesion is a pinpoint red macule/papule/wheal with a hemorrhagic puncture site, often masked by excoriations.
  • Crab lice are found on pubic hairs but can involve other body hair including eyelashes.
  • Young children may have crab lice on eyebrows/eyelashes.
  • Live lice (2-3 mm) are rarely seen, but ova (nits) are visible as oval, yellowish pinpoint specks attached to hair shafts.
  • Ova fluoresce under UV light (Wood lamp) and are best seen microscopically.
  • Treatment with topical pediculicides (e.g., permethrin) or oral ivermectin.
  • Head/pubic lice can be treated with wet combing every 3 days for 2 weeks to remove nits (less effective).
  • All clothes, towels, bedding, combs, and brushes should be hot washed/dried or boiled/ironed.
  • Individuals with personal contact should also be treated.

Fleas

  • Wingless, jumping blood-feeding insects (cat, dog, human fleas common).
  • Young children are very susceptible.
  • Bites occur in clusters along arms/legs or where clothing is tight, producing an urticarial wheal with a central hemorrhagic puncture.
  • Flea bites can transmit plague, tularemia, and cat-scratch disease.
  • Treatment includes spraying carpets/crevices/furniture with insecticides (malathion or lindane powder), treating infected animals, and hot washing bedding/clothes.

Bedbugs (Cimex lectularius)

  • Blood-sucking parasites in crevices/cracks of floors, walls, furniture, and bedding.
  • Reddish brown, 3-5 mm long, nocturnal, feeding for 5-15 minutes.
  • Attracted by warmth and CO2, can travel long distances.
  • Immunologic reactions to saliva vary; bites typically yield erythematous and pruritic papules.
  • Face and distal extremities are preferentially involved.
  • If not previously sensitized, only a red macule to nodule (lasting up to 14 days) may develop
  • Sensitized individuals may form pruritic wheals, papules, and vesicles; rarely, anemia and angioedema.
  • Most lesions respond to antihistamines/corticosteroids.
  • Secondary infections need antibiotics.
  • Elimination involves inspecting/cleaning/disposing of contaminated items and using approved insecticides (often by a professional).

Cutaneous Hemangiomas and Vascular Malformations

  • Frequent tumors of early infancy, categorized as vascular tumors (hemangiomas) or vascular malformations.

Cutaneous Hemangiomas

  • Benign tumors from rapid growth of vascular endothelial cells, forming extra blood vessels.
  • Can be superficial (infantile/capillary/strawberry) or deep (cavernous/congenital).
  • Etiology may involve embolization of fetal placental endothelial cells or loss of placental angiogenic inhibitor.
  • Superficial hemangiomas are associated with endothelial glucose transporter 1 (GLUT1).
  • Mast cell proliferation is thought to promote angiogenesis.
  • Fibrosis and a rich vascular network give a firm, rubbery feel.
  • More common in females.
  • About 30% are present at birth, usually emerging in the first few weeks.
  • They grow rapidly in the first few years, becoming bright red, elevated with minute capillaries (strawberry appearance).
  • Usually a single lesion on the head/neck or trunk.
  • After initial growth, they grow with the child and then start to involute at 12-16 months.
  • Approximately 90% involute by 5-9 years without scarring.
  • Most superficial hemangiomas need no treatment.
  • Treatment may be required for lesions over the eye, ear, nose, mouth, urethra, or anus due to functional interference or risk of infection/injury.
  • Cavernous hemangiomas are a rare GLUT1-negative variant, fully grown solitary lesions at birth, primarily on head, neck, or limbs.
  • Appear as spongy purplish masses with mature, larger vessels.
  • Two groups: rapidly involuting (disappear by 12-14 months, leaving thin skin) and noninvoluting.
  • Rapidly progressing hemangiomas are treated with beta-blockers (e.g., propranolol) as first-line agents, with regression within 2 weeks.
  • Other therapies include systemic/intralesional steroids, cryosurgery, laser surgery, sclerotherapy, and embolization.
  • Interferons, vincristine, cyclophosphamide, and radiotherapy can suppress angiogenesis.

Cutaneous Vascular Malformations

  • Rare congenital anomalies of blood vessels present at birth but may not be apparent for years.
  • Grow proportionately with the child and never regress.
  • Equal in males/females.
  • May expand rapidly during hormonal changes or trauma.
  • Classified as low flow (capillaries, veins, lymphatics) or high flow (arteriovenous).
  • Can involve other areas (GI tract, bone, eye, brain - Maffucci syndrome, Sturge-Weber syndrome, blue rubber bleb nevus syndrome)
  • Overgrowth syndromes can occur.
  • The most common are nevus flammeus (port-wine stain) and salmon patches.

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

More Like This

Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser