7 SFS Security Procedures Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What authority is required to initiate a 'fresh pursuit' of a suspected felon off-installation?

  • Station Commander
  • Flight Chief (correct)
  • Shift Supervisor
  • Security Forces Officer
  • What is the initial action that must be communicated to a funds carrier before an escort begins?

  • Verify communication equipment functionality.
  • Agree on the escort route and procedure. (correct)
  • The custodian should declare their identity.
  • Ensure armament checks are completed.
  • Which of the following codes indicates a 'duress' situation among the police brevity codes used by 7 SFS?

  • 11 (correct)
  • 13
  • 12
  • 15
  • What is the primary manual signal for a 'covered wagon' alert?

    <p>Wave a helmet in a circular motion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who is responsible for approving entry into the restricted area boundary?

    <p>BDOC controller</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During FPCON Charlie or higher, where are SF patrols positioned before an alert launch?

    <p>End of the runway/Bldg. 7404 billeting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what situation should the Security Forces Authenticator NOT be used?

    <p>If Positive Duress has been received.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the Security Forces Authenticator verify personnel status during communications?

    <p>Through the passing of a random number and its phonetic response.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one type of recall designated for the 7 BW?

    <p>Unit Accountability</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first step when utilizing the Security Forces Authenticator for verification?

    <p>Pass a random number.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a rotating red light on the VCC indicate?

    <p>VCC is under duress</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one method to authenticate individuals if mis-authentication occurs?

    <p>Challenge using a different random number.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Within what distance should radio transmissions not be made near refueling aircraft?

    <p>50 feet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the only authorized alcohol test for suspected drunk driving at DAFB?

    <p>Blood test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the white copy of the DD Form 1408 Traffic Ticket serve?

    <p>To be submitted to the violator's commander</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the yellow copy of the DD Form 1408?

    <p>To record details about the offense</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which hours will passes to dormitories not be issued?

    <p>2400-0600 hrs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum age for personnel to access the dormitory without a guardian?

    <p>18 years of age</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done at a minimum when a K-9 alerts on a vehicle during a possible bomb threat?

    <p>Remove individuals, evacuate the area, and establish a cordon.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the safe distance to stay from a suspicious package when utilizing a handheld radio?

    <p>25 feet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary duty of Security-3?

    <p>Serve as part of the Internal Security Response Team for aircraft hangars.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what capacity do Security 2 and Security 3 assist Security 1?

    <p>With security response within 1 hour of assuming post.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a badge authenticator on the restricted area badge?

    <p>The card is green.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What color is the restricted area badge typically?

    <p>Blue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the five types of FPCONs?

    <p>NORMAL, ALPHA, BRAVO, CHARLIE, DELTA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If you observe a rotating amber light and siren at the VCC, what is this an indication of?

    <p>Duress at BDOC</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who will assume control of the radio net if BDOC relocates to an alternate location?

    <p>Arnold Gate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where should all personnel report during a Security Forces recall?

    <p>Building 4201/Primary location</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What credentials must a driver present for Abilene school bus installation entry?

    <p>Abilene Independent School District Identification Card</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What article of the UCMJ is utilized for advising military members of their rights?

    <p>Article 31</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What actions should you take if DBIDS confirms that the ID card is reported lost or stolen?

    <p>Confiscate, detain individual, and call BDOC</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the Implied Consent Policy require from individuals operating motor vehicles on DAFB?

    <p>They are deemed to have consented to testing for alcohol or drugs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of obtaining consent in writing on AF Form 1364?

    <p>To legally authorize a search.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which form is utilized for search authorization and who authorizes it?

    <p>AF Form 1176, authorized by the Base Magistrate.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where is point three located on a facility in response to an alarm activation?

    <p>On the right rear corner when facing the main door.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the options available during a squadron or wing recall of personnel who are TDY or on leave?

    <p>Recall only specific personnel from leave.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of search is primarily used for suspects assessed to be non-dangerous and capable of standing?

    <p>Standing search.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of search is conducted for suspects who seem dangerous or are inebriated to the point of requiring assistance?

    <p>Prone search.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the procedure for allowing a MetroCare ambulance onto the base?

    <p>A vetted employee list is provided to the VCC for reference.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if an individual presents an ID that was reported lost or stolen after being found?

    <p>Confiscate the older ID and send it to VCC.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a requirement for transient aircraft at Dyess AFB?

    <p>Conduct checks every 6 hours.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the initial cordon size established for all bomb threats?

    <p>500 feet, size of the package may dictate size.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For how long is an AF FM 75 pass valid for visitors vouched for by an authorized individual?

    <p>72 hours, and may exceed depending on sponsor's location.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following are considered PL3 resources at Dyess AFB?

    <p>Aircraft Mass Parking Area, Wing Command Post.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the types of duress mentioned in the procedures?

    <p>Positive and Passive.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct procedure if a visitor arrives without proper sponsorship?

    <p>Direct them to the Visitor Control Center.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of having security forces secure all aircraft parked outside of restricted areas?

    <p>To prevent unauthorized access and tampering.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    SFM Verbal Test #2 - Study Notes

    • Critical Questions: Questions 5, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 15, 16, 18, 19, 21, 22, 30, 31, 33, 35, 37, 38, 39, 44, 45, 47, 49, and 50 are covered.

    • Fresh Pursuit: A "fresh pursuit" is when a patrol is pursuing someone suspected of a serious crime (like a felony), and can't stop the pursuit by other means (such as closing gates). Authorization is needed for pursuit off-installation.

    • Funds Escorts: The custodian must understand the procedure and agree on the route for the funds escort before it begins.

    • Police Brevity Codes (7 SFS): 1-Routine Dispatch, 2-Urgent Dispatch, 3-Emergency, 4-Wants/Warrants, 4A-Warrant Hit VCC, 4B-Warrant hit Tye gate, 5-Traffic Stop, 6-Latrine Break, 7-Chow Break, 8-Subject in Custody, 8a-Subject Opposite Gender, 9-Frequency Change, 10-All Secure, 11-Duress, 12-Suspicious Package, 12a-Bomb Threat Actual, 13-Immediate Assistance Required, 14-DWI (Military/Civilian), 15-Alarm Activation. A total of 15 codes are listed.

    • Covered Wagon Signal: The primary manual signal is waving a helmet, hat, or cap in a circular motion above the head, shouting "COVERED WAGON."

    • Local Security Forces Authenticator: Used to verify personnel status or validate radio transmissions. Security personnel pass a random number (not exceeding 5) and respond phonetically with the corresponding letter of their last name. If wrong, re-challenge with a different number. It is not used when Positive Duress is received.

    • Installation Entry Controller: Passes to dormitories are not issued between 2400 and 0600 hours and to personnel under 18 years old unless accompanied by a parent or legal guardian.

    • Bomb Threat Response: Remove everyone from the vehicle, evacuate the area, establish a barrier, and engage proper authorities.

    • Suspicious Package Procedure: Do not use a handheld or vehicle-mounted radio within 25 feet (handheld) or 100 feet (vehicle mounted).

    • Security 3 Duty: Internal Security Response Team (ISRT) serves the C-130J mass parking restricted area and maintenance/aircraft hangars, maintaining a 3-minute response time to alarms.

    • Security 2 Duty: Internal Security Response Team (ISRT) serves as the B-1 mass parking restricted area and maintenance/aircraft hangars, maintaining a 3-minute response time to alarms. Can assist Security 1 within 1 hour.

    • Restricted Area Badge Authenticators: The card is an AF FM 1199-D in the restricted area.

    • Hostage Situation Outer Security Zone: To establish a cordon away from weapon fire, and reroute traffic involving/establishing traffic control as needed.

    • Aircraft Hijack Prevention (B-1/C-130): Positions vehicles to block aircraft movement if status is unknown or questionable. Position for safe stops, and turning off engines/lights to allow surveillance. Lethal force may be used to disable an aircraft with correct authorization.

    • Unannounced Aircraft Arrival (Dyess): Security 2 & 3 setup in the western boundary area of the restricted area.

    • Covered Wagon: A probable/actual hostile act (explosive device, overt attack by protestors). The 7 BW/CC can end the situation.

    • Security Incident: A hostile act against protection level 1, 2, or 3 resources. An on-duty SF Flight Chief can end the incident.

    • Power Outages in Restricted Area: Security 2 and Security 3 will take specified actions as required.

    • FPCON Bravo: Applies when a greater threat of terrorist activity exists.

    • FPCON Charlie: Applies when a form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel/facilities is likely.

    • Dyess AFB Jurisdiction: Covered by proprietary jurisdiction with the exception of the designated Restricted Areas, which fall under military jurisdiction.

    • Gate Runner Actions: State "gaterunner" three times, activate the active barrier, stop inbound traffic. Details about the vehicle, occupants, license plates, and direction of travel should be sent to BDOC if successful stopping the vehicle is not possible.

    • Implied Consent Policy: Individuals given the privilege of operating on the base are deemed to have consented to a chemical test of their blood, breath, or urine to determine alcohol/drug content.

    • Consent for Search: Consent needs to be obtained in writing on AF Form 1364.

    • Search Authorization: AF Form 1176; Base Magistrate authorizes the search.

    • Alarm Activation Point Three: Responding to an alarm, point three is on the facility's right rear corner, facing the main door.

    • Wing/Squadron Recall Options for TDY and Leave Personnel: Options for recalling personnel on leave or temporary duty (TDY).

    • Standing Search: Used for suspects who aren't violent or are under the influence or smaller than the searching SF member.

    • Prone Search: Used for suspects who appear dangerous, are drunk/drugged to a state where they are unable to stand or who are significantly larger than the searching SF member.

    • MetroCare Ambulance Entry: Verification and entry documentation through an established process by BDOC, with police escort.

    • Approving Authority for Crossing Restricted Area Boundary: BDOC.

    • Patrol Position during FPCON Charlie: (In front of the alert) End of the runway/building 7404 billeting

    • Rotating Red Light at VCC: Indicates duress at BDOC resulting in activated code 9 and code 11. Arnold Gate will take control of radio nets; and monitor until issue terminates.

    • Aircraft Maintenance Restrictions: Radio transmissions are not permitted within 50 feet of an aircraft undergoing fuel cell maintenance or refueling/defueling.

    • Bomb Threat Cordon: 500 feet; additionally, the package's size can influence this.

    • Visitor Passes: Visitors with authorized sponsors can get a 72-hour pass, and 30-day passes are possible in some base housing situations.

    • Duress Types: Positive duress(use of the word duress, mis authentication or activation of the duress alarm) and Passive Duress (Non-compliance with procedures or no response to radio transmissions).

    • Hostile Incident Inner Security Zone: The objective is to seal off the immediate area, block all building exits and possible escape routes, and contain the hostile.

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    Related Documents

    SFM Verbal Test #2 PDF

    Description

    Test your knowledge on the security procedures and regulations enforced by the 7th Security Forces Squadron (SFS). This quiz covers topics such as authority for pursuit, communication with funds carriers, and security alerts. Prepare to verify your understanding of critical protocols and emergency codes.

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