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Questions and Answers

When using an invasive blood pressure monitoring system, what effect does positioning the transducer below the level of the left ventricle have on systolic pressure readings?

  • Systolic pressures are falsely increased due to the effect of gravity on the fluid column. (correct)
  • Systolic pressures are falsely decreased due to the effect of gravity on the fluid column.
  • Systolic pressures remain unaffected as the system is zeroed to atmospheric pressure.
  • Systolic pressures are accurately measured because gravity is accounted for.

What is the most likely effect on blood pressure readings if air bubbles or blood clots are present in the arterial line of an invasive blood pressure monitoring system?

  • Underestimation of actual blood pressure values.
  • Accurate measurement of blood pressure due to proper zeroing.
  • Damping of the readings causing an overestimation of pressures (correct)
  • No effect, as the system compensates for these obstructions.

A patient's blood pressure is decreasing. If the heart rate and systemic vascular resistance (SVR) remain constant. What change in stroke volume would most likely account for this drop in blood pressure?

  • No change in stroke volume.
  • An increase in stroke volume.
  • A decrease in stroke volume. (correct)
  • An initial increase followed by a compensatory decrease.

Why is propofol considered a good choice for inducing anesthesia in bitches undergoing a caesarean section?

<p>Its effects are short-lasting, reducing the risk of sedation in the pups after they are extracted. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's end-diastolic volume (EDV) is 150 ml, and their end-systolic volume (ESV) is 70 ml. Which of the following interventions would lead to the GREATEST increase in stroke volume, assuming no other changes?

<p>Increasing EDV to 160ml AND decreasing ESV to 60ml (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A hypotensive patient needs an increase in stroke volume through increased preload. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate?

<p>Administering a crystalloid fluid bolus. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the administration of induction agents, what is the correct order of the 'A, B, C' steps to ensure patient safety?

<p>Airway, Breathing, Circulation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does epidural anesthesia often lead to hypotension?

<p>It blocks the sympathetic trunk, leading to vasodilation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a primary effect of anticholinergic drugs like atropine and glycopyrrolate?

<p>Preventing bradycardia and reducing bronchial secretions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During surgery, a patient's blood pressure drops. Assuming the patient is at an appropriate anesthetic depth what should the clinician administer first?

<p>Glycopyrrolate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Atropine is being administered to a dog to manage sinus bradycardia. What is the expected onset of action and duration of effect after IV administration?

<p>Onset in 1 minute, duration up to 10 minutes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Glycopyrrolate is chosen over atropine in a specific case due to which of the following pharmacological differences?

<p>Glycopyrrolate has a slower onset of action but a longer duration compared to atropine. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is atropine contraindicated in horses experiencing colic?

<p>Its anticholinergic effects cause GIT stasis, worsening the colic. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary method to decrease end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2) during anesthesia?

<p>Increase the respiratory rate and tidal volume. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the difference between fractional inspired CO2 (FiCO2) and the expected CO2 level?

<p>It suggests rebreathing or an issue such as exhausted calcium carbonate or low oxygen flow. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is the initial tidal volume typically determined when setting up a ventilator for an anesthetized patient?

<p>Based on the patient's weight in ml/kg. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which parameter provides the most accurate assessment of overall cardiovascular function during anesthesia?

<p>Mean arterial pressure (MAP). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the implication of systolic blood pressure dropping below a certain threshold regarding renal function?

<p>Renal autoregulation is lost. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the arterial catheter's transducer placed at the level of the left ventricle during invasive blood pressure monitoring?

<p>To minimize the effect of hydrostatic pressure on the reading. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the heparinized saline in the pressure bag used with an invasive blood pressure monitoring system?

<p>To prevent blood clot formation in the catheter. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does an invasive blood pressure transducer work?

<p>By measuring the change in electrical resistance through a membrane. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is morphine-induced vomiting less likely to occur when administered as a constant rate infusion (CRI) after induction, or after a painful surgery?

<p>Post-induction, the animal is no longer consciously aware of nausea; pain distracts from nausea. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for administering an alpha-agonist before morphine in horses?

<p>To counteract potential excitement caused by morphine. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which opioid is most suitable for patients with cardiovascular compromise and why?

<p>Methadone, because it has fewer cardiovascular effects. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is panting a relevant consideration when administering methadone to brachycephalic breeds?

<p>Panting exacerbates their compromised respiratory systems. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A veterinarian accidentally administers pethidine intravenously. What is the most likely immediate consequence?

<p>Massive histamine release. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is fentanyl useful for intraoperative management of tachycardia?

<p>It's short duration of action and ability to cause hypoventilation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is pethidine not typically used as a first-line choice for managing colic pain?

<p>Pethidine has a shorter duration of action and is expensive compared to other opioids. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A horse with colic is given butorphanol; however, there is minimal improvement. What does this likely indicate, and what is the next appropriate step?

<p>This indicates a surgical colic; prepare the horse for surgical intervention. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is pethidine sometimes preferred over morphine in premedication?

<p>Pethidine is less likely to cause vomiting. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it crucial to intubate animals with GDV as quickly as possible during anesthetic induction?

<p>To manage hypoventilation and hypercapnia. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is indicated by a V:Q mismatch in an animal with GDV, and how is it assessed?

<p>Impaired oxygen exchange, assessed by comparing alveolar and arterial oxygen levels. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the maintenance phase of anesthesia for a GDV surgery, why might sevoflurane be chosen over isoflurane?

<p>Sevoflurane has fewer cardiovascular side effects. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for using a combination of propofol and diazepam for inducing anesthesia in a patient with GDV?

<p>To minimize cardiovascular side effects. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the addition of dexmedetomidine to bupivacaine beneficial in a local nerve block?

<p>It prolongs the duration of the nerve block. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might an epidural be avoided in a patient undergoing anesthesia, and what complication might arise as a result?

<p>To avoid decreased sympathetic tone, potentially leading to bladder dysfunction. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately reflects pain perception in the gastrointestinal tract (GIT) during surgical procedures?

<p>Animals only perceive pain in the GIT from distention. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does the presence of nitrogen in the blood impact the establishment of desired blood isoflurane concentrations?

<p>Nitrogen increases the time constant, causing a delay in achieving desired anesthetic depth when vaporizer settings are adjusted. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the products of the reaction between soda lime and carbon dioxide in an anesthetic circuit?

<p>Water and heat. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely cause of a patient's sudden, unexplained death under anesthesia on a Monday morning, despite seemingly normal vital signs?

<p>Dehydrated soda lime reacting with halogenated anesthetics to produce carbon monoxide. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it generally recommended to use IPPV (Intermittent Positive Pressure Ventilation) for animals over 7 kg when using a circle breathing system?

<p>To overcome the increased resistance to breathing caused by the valves and soda lime canister. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason why breathing warmed, moist gas is considered beneficial during anesthesia?

<p>It reduces the risk of hypothermia and dehydration. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a circle breathing system, where is the apparatus dead space primarily located?

<p>The Y-piece. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are neonatal animals more prone to hypothermia and hypoglycemia under anesthesia?

<p>They have a comparatively larger surface area to volume ratio and immature metabolic function. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is Acepromazine (ACP) generally avoided in epileptic animals?

<p>It lowers the seizure threshold. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

ETCO2

End-tidal CO2. Measures the CO2 concentration at the end of exhalation.

Tidal Volume

Volume of air inhaled or exhaled with each breath.

Minute Ventilation

Respiratory Rate multiplied by Tidal Volume.

Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)

Cardiac Output multiplied by Systemic Vascular Resistance.

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MAP Measurement

Most accurate when measured with a central arterial line.

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Renal Autoregulation Loss

Systolic pressure below which the kidneys can no longer regulate blood flow.

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Myocardial Perfusion Pressure

Diastolic pressure needed for adequate heart muscle perfusion.

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Invasive Blood Pressure Monitoring

Catheter placed in artery to directly measure blood pressure.

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Zeroing a pressure line

Ensures accurate blood pressure readings by accounting for the effect of gravity relative to the left ventricle.

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Damping of pressure readings

Occurs when air bubbles, clots, or compliant tubing interfere with accurate blood pressure readings, leading to overestimation.

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Blood Pressure Equation

Blood Pressure = Cardiac Output x Systemic Vascular Resistance.

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Cardiac Output Equation

Cardiac Output = Heart Rate x Stroke Volume

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Stroke Volume Equation

Stroke Volume = End Diastolic Volume - End Systolic Volume

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Increasing Stroke Volume

Increase preload (IV fluids), increase contractility (dobutamine), decrease afterload (ACP)

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Epidural Effects on Blood Pressure

Vasodilation, leading to decreased systemic vascular resistance and hypotension, and paradoxical bradycardia.

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Initial Action for Decreased BP

Decrease the anesthetic (Isoflurane)

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Morphine-Induced Vomiting

Morphine can induce vomiting by causing nausea. Premedicate with pethidine or methadone to mitigate this risk.

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Morphine and Histamine Release

Rapid IV injection of morphine can cause histamine release.

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Methadone's Cardio Advantage

Methadone has fewer cardiovascular side effects, making it suitable for patients with heart problems.

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Methadone and Panting

Panting is a side effect seen after methadone injection, particularly relevant in brachycephalic breeds.

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Pethidine's Sedative Effect

Pethidine provides analgesia comparable to methadone but with greater sedation.

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Pethidine: Anticholinergic & IM

Pethidine has anticholinergic effects, which can increase heart rate. Administer IM only.

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Butorphanol: Sedation vs. Analgesia

Butorphanol provides good sedation but poor analgesia and is short acting.

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Fentanyl Effects

Fentanyl bolus can cause hypoventilation. Can be used to bring down tachycardia inter-operatively.

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Propofol Characteristics

Short-acting anesthetic causing twitches, post-induction apnea, and vasodilation. Effects are worse with rapid IV injection. Poor analgesia.

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Airway Check Post-Intubation

After intubation, ensure the cuff is inflated with no leak and that the ET tube was leak-tested prior.

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Breathing Assessment

Assess breathing by observing the animal, reservoir bag, and capnography to identify apnea.

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Circulation Monitoring

Monitor circulation by palpating the femoral pulse while administering induction agents.

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Atropine Effects & Uses

Prevents/treats bradycardia, reduces saliva/bronchial secretion, dilates pupil. Use: Canine sick sinus syndrome, prevent vagal bradycardia, reverse NMB.

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Morphine

Opioid analgesic, may cause vomiting.

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Pethidine

Shorter-acting analgesic, less likely to cause vomiting, but has anticholinergic effects.

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Propofol

Common induction agent, be aware of potential hypotension/bradycardia.

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Bupivacaine

Local anesthetic, provides long-duration analgesia.

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Dexmedetomidine

Alpha-2 agonist, vasoconstriction, prolongs local anesthetic effect.

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GDV Concerns

Decreased tidal volume, hypercapnia, reperfusion toxemia, V:Q mismatch.

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GDV Anesthesia

Avoid drugs with significant cardiovascular effects.

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GDV Anesthetic Protocol

Premedicate with fentanyl, induce with propofol and diazepam; maintain with sevoflurane.

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Nitrogen and Anesthesia

Nitrogen in the blood slows down the rate at which anesthetic depth changes. It increases the time constant, delaying the effect of vaporizer setting adjustments.

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Soda Lime Function

Soda lime reacts with CO2, producing heat and water (exothermic reaction). This reaction is essential for removing CO2 from the breathing circuit.

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Dangers of Dehydrated Soda Lime

Dehydrated soda lime reacts with halogenated anesthetic gases, producing carbon monoxide (CO). This is dangerous and potentially fatal to the patient.

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Circle System Limitations

Animals under 7kg may struggle to breathe through a circle system due to increased resistance from valves and soda lime. Use of a ventilator (IPPV) may be need

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Oxygen Flow Rate (Maintenance)

After initial high flow to remove N2, reduce O2 flow. Oxygen flow rate should be around 20 ml/kg/min for the maintenance phase of anesthesia.

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Circle System Dead Space

The Y-piece is the only apparatus dead space in a circle breathing system where inspiratory and expiratory gases meet.

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Neonatal Risks

Neonates are susceptible to hypothermia and hypoglycemia due to limited energy reserves and poor thermoregulation.

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ACP Contraindication

Avoid Acepromazine (ACP) in epileptic patients as it can lower the seizure threshold, increasing the risk of seizures.

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Study Notes

  • This is a compilation of questions frequently asked on EMS and Anaesthesia rotations.
  • It stresses questions often answered incorrectly, providing correct answers to aid learning.

Gas Values

  • ET (end-tidal) indicates exhaled CO2, with a normal range of 4.6 to 6.
  • Increasing RR and tidal volume can lower ETCO2 levels near the end of a procedure to stimulate spontaneous breathing.
  • Fi (fractional/fresh inspired CO2) should ideally be 0, but it's usually slightly above due to CO2 in dead space.
  • Increased Fi CO2 indicates low O2 flow or exhausted calcium carbonate in the rebreathing circle.
  • Tidal volume (breath size) is typically 10-20ml/kg
  • Start ventilator at this volume at 10 bpm and adjust according to CO2 readings.
  • Minute ventilation is calculated as RR multiplied by tidal volume.

Blood Pressure

  • The most accurate blood pressure parameter is the mean arterial pressure (MAP).
  • MAP is calculated as cardiac output multiplied by systemic vascular resistance.
  • Aim for MAP > 65 when measured with a central arterial line, or > 70 when using an oscillometric method.
  • Renal autoregulation is lost at systolic pressures < 90mmHg.
  • Myocardial perfusion becomes inadequate if diastolic pressure falls below <40mmHg.
  • Brain autoregulation is lost at pressures <60 and >160mmHg.

Invasive Blood Pressure

  • Involves placing an arterial catheter in the dorsal pedal artery (dogs) or facial artery (horses) with the opening facing blood flow.
  • A pressure bag with heparinized saline (@300mmHg) fills non-compliant tubing with a heparin saline column.
  • A transducer placed at the level of the left ventricle measures electrical resistance changes through a thin membrane.
  • The membrane moves with the force of contraction, indicating blood pressure.
  • Systolic pressures falsely increase if below the left ventricle due to gravity.
  • The line must be "zeroed" at atmospheric pressure to give accurate readings.
  • Air bubbles, blood clots, or overly compliant tubing can cause "damping", overestimating pressures.

Blood Pressure Equation

  • Blood Pressure = Cardiac Output x Systemic Vascular Resistance.
  • Cardiac Output = HR x Stroke Volume.
  • Stroke Volume = End Diastolic Volume – End Systolic Volume.
  • Therefore Blood Pressure = HR x (end diastolic volume - end systolic volume) x SVR.
  • Stroke volume: the volume of blood pumped from the ventricles during contraction.
  • To increase stroke volume:
    • Increase preload by administering a CSL fluid bolus, typically at 10 ml/kg.
    • Increase contractility using dobutamine.
    • Decrease afterload using ACP, which causes vasodilation and reduces systemic vascular resistance.

Epidural Effects

  • Often decreases blood pressure by blocking the sympathetic trunk, leading to vasodilation and hypotension.
  • Can cause paradoxical bradycardia.

Alpha 2 Agonists

  • Increase SVR by causing peripheral vasoconstriction.
  • This is helpful if the animal is likely to be hypotensive during surgery.

Steps to Take When Blood Pressure Decreases Intraoperatively

  • If the animal is too deep, decrease the isoflurane, as vasodilation is a primary side effect.
  • If due to bradycardia, administer an anticholinergic such as atropine or glycopyrrolate.
  • If due to hypovolemia, administer fluids, keep in mind animals are often bit dehydrated so colloid and chystalloid fluids are used
  • If the volume is adequate, administer dobutamine.
  • In a worst-case scenario, administer adrenaline.

Arrhythmias

  • Atropine: Can cross the BBB and cause seizures
    • should not be given to a horse with colic as the anticholinergic effects cause GIT stasis which will worsen the colic.
  • Glycopyrrolate does not cross the BBB and is used more often.

Heart blocks

  • First Degree Block: AV node transmission is slower, prolonging the interval between P wave and QRS complex.
  • Second-degree Block: Some, but not all, impulses pass from the atria to the ventricles; can be caused by Alpha-2-agonists.
  • Type 1 Second-degree Block ("Wenkeback Periodicity"): gradual increase in P-R interval until a blocked beat occurs, followed by a sinus beat.
    • Seen in GIT surgeries where the vagus nerve is stimulated and increased parasympathetic tone occurs
    • Also seen in young fit racehorses due to high vagal tone; disappears with trotting or at induction.
  • Type 2 Second-degree Block: Consistent P-r interval, but occasional P-waves fail to conduct a QRS complex. This is commonly due to disease of the AV nerve fibres.
  • Third Degree Block: No P waves conduct to the ventricle; atria and ventricles beat independently
    • P wave formation originates at the SA node; a ventricular pacemaker triggers a ventricular escape rhythm, essential for survival.

Ventricular Premature Contraction (VPC)

  • Due to an ectopic focus in the ventricles firing before the SA node's next impulse.
  • Identified on ECG by QRS widening and the lack of a preceding P wave for the QRS.
  • A pulse deficit occurs when a VPC happens before the ventricles fully fill.

Oxygen Saturation

  • Pulse-ox/SpO2 measures hemoglobin saturation with oxygen (normal: >95%).
  • SAO2 (arterial blood oxygen saturation) should correlate and be >95%; saturation under 60% indicates severe hypoxemia.
  • Low values result from low partial pressure of oxygen.
    • Too little oxygen being pumped into the fresh gas should be indicated on the Fi02 reading on the machine.
    • Upper airway blockage e.g. kinked ET tube
    • Pulmonary disease- this stops oxygen from crossing the blood-gas barrier. V/
  • V/Q mismatch occurs when blood flows to areas where gas exchange isn't happening, decreasing SpO2 as hemoglobin is not picking up O2.
  • Low V:Q ratio indicates over-perfused, under-ventilated areas; CO2 quickly builds up.
  • High V:Q ratio means over-ventilated, under-perfused areas; CO2 is low.

Pulse Ox - Falsely High readings

  • Anemia: Lower RBC count, but remaining Hb is saturated; pulse-ox reads saturated RBCs without accounting for low RBC count.
  • High concentration of MetHb leads to brown mucous membranes e.g. onion or fertilizer poisoning.
  • Alpha-2-agonists: Peripheral vasoconstriction makes it difficult for pulse ox to get a reading on certain dogs.

Capnography

  • Measures end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2), reflecting CO2 partial pressure at the alveoli (normal range: 4.5-6KPa).
  • Increased ETCO2 is caused by hypercarbia due to hypoventilation.
  • Treat hypoventilation with IPPV or by decreasing the anaesthetic gas agent.
    • Rebreathing: Trace does not return to baseline.
    • Increased metabolic rate- being on too light a plane of anaesthesia, seizure or malignant hyperthermia.
    • Hypoventilation is the most likely cause:
      • Endobronchial intubation- Elevated PaCO2 and decreased PaO2 due to oxygen entering only the intubated bronchus. -Effects of hypercapnia- Cerebral vasodilation, splanchnic vasoconstriction.

Effects of hypercapnia

  • Masks hypertension, bounding pulse, tachycardia, and tachypnoea when animal is too light -Later: oozing wounds, tachycardia with arrhythmias and CARDIAC ARREST
  • Decreased ETCO2 can result from:
    • Dec'd cardiac output- when sudden cardiac arrest occurs
    • Hyperventilation
    • hypothermia
    • Decreased metabolic rate:
    • Et tube problem- disconnection or leak

ETCO2 - Detects problems with equipment:

  • ET tube in oesophagus – CO2 just flat line or tiny bumps from gastric CO2

  • ET tube not patent

  • Loose connection

  • Air-Leak - Loose connection between sampling tube and capnograph / broken connection or filter.

  • Soda lime is exhausted- Rebreathing CO2, capnogram doesn't go back to flatline for inspiration. • High ETCO2 in Circle System: one way valves not working, stuck due to buildup of moisture • Sticking inspiratory valve - Inspiratory flip - Red indicates possible rebreathing

  • Expiratory valve malfunction can result in prolonged abnormal phase 2 and phase 0.(Detail)
  • High ETCO2 in Non-rebreathing systems: indicates fresh gas flow is not high enough.
  • Cardiogenic oscillations seen in CO2 capnogram; ventricular filling creates small peaks in the CO2 spikes and a curve peaks in expiration and lowers in inspiration.
  • Permissive Hypercapnoea: ETCO2 allowed to build up over time to stimulate the sympathetic nervous system, increasing HR and BP, and to stimulate spontaneous breathing (goal ETCO2: >6.0 mmHg, can exceed 7 mmHg).

Anaesthetic Gases

  • MAC Definition: concentration of gases at which 50% of patients won't react to noxious stimuli.
  • If animals are getting light turn up the gas at the vaporizer.
  • In the vapouriser, there is a chamber where the gas is completely saturated with isoflurane

Drugs

  • Morphine causes nausea which leads to vomiting.

Morphine:

-If there is risk of morphine causing vomiting, premed the animal with pethidine or methadone

  • Pure agonist so can lead to excitement before sedation
    • In a horse that is getting a premed of morphine (or any pure mu agonist) and an alpha 2 agonist, give the alpha 2 agonist first.

Methadone:

  • Less cardiovascular effects, use on patients with cardio problems
  • Panting can be seen after injection
  • Not as good a sedation as morphine or pethidine.

Pethidine

  • Analgesia lasts around 90mins,
  • Anticholinergic effects so it can increase heart rate.
  • Do not give IV, leads to massive histamine release. IM route only. Will be asked this.

Butorphanol

-Used in colics because it is short acting and also treats visceral pain well in the horse

  • Short acting and good sedation •The dose required to bring about analgesia is much higher than that for sedation.

Fentanyl

-Can as bolus can stop animal breathing. Hypoventilation.

Anesthetic drugs

  • ACP:
    • Not to be used in cardiovascular compromised patients
  • Long acting sedation → better recovery: - In a dog with mitral valve regurgitation, a low dose of ACP will cause some vasodilation.

Alpha 2 Agonists:

  • Cause laryngeal collapse, do not use in an upper airway exam.
  • Cause a horse to urinate loads under GA -Colic: don't use romifidine because it covers up the pain for too long, use xylazine instead.
  • Don't use atropine after medetomidine

Ketamine

-A direct negative ionotrope but stimulates the CNS I-n very sick animals these sympathetic effects may not be see.

  • Often Used as a CRI in spinal surgeries in UCDVH,

Propofol

-Induction and CRI • NO analgesia but also Post induction apnea and vasodilation/hypotension worse if inject to fast IV

  • • Good in a bitch having a caesarian, as the effects are short lasting so pups won't be sedated when they are extracted.

Alfaxalone

  • Fever CVS effects than propofol than expensive
  • During Induction: while induction agents are being administered, you must go through your “A,B,C”: o Airway- intubate the patient and inflate cuff, make sure there is no leak, ensure ET tubes have been leak tested prior to intubation. o Breathing – o Circulation- while induction agent is being administered, have your finger on the femoral pulse, making sure it is still present.

Anticholinergic/Antimuscarinic Drugs

  • Glycopyrrolate- does not cross BBB - acts slower but longer duration
    • Does not reduce saliva
  • Atropine -Causes rapid onset
  • Rapid onset
  • Signs that a horse is light under GA: -Rapid nystagmus (except ketamine Palpebral normal I the horse

More tips to make sure animal is ok

-Should be less than 2 When recovering a horse that has had an op on one of the limbs, recover with the sore leg uppermost.

  • If a dog moves turning up the gas take too long

  • Positive pressure ventilation decreases venous return and blood pressure so collects in gas files cavities

  • 2-4 times maintenance -> 5-10ml/kg/hr

  • Awake - 2.5 ml/kg/hr, Asleep - 5ml/kg/hr

Cases that need special attention

Neonate- more fluid so drugs have a higher volume of distribution Toy Breeds- more accurate way of dosing would be by surface area Vicious Dog - Use alpha 2 because of its reliability Cat with HCM- Alpha-2-agonsists are good due to bradycardic effect and don't want I tachardyta Hepatic Case- Need to give colloids

Ventilation

-If hypercarbia occurs increase respiration.

  • Peak inspiratory pressure (PIP) 10-12 cmH2O inhorse

  • Non rebreathers require fresh has at each breath The Ayre's T-Piece is suitable for small patents (up to 10-12 kg) During spontaeous venteilation lack requires low as flow as they allow some re breathng of anatomicel dead space gas\ works just like T – piece just coaxial set up. Very

  • Reservoir bags better overestimate -Humphreys combining mini lack

  • Contrast in CT tumour animals that are not in pain will not feel it int he gut.

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