Anatomy and Physio Lab

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Which animal generally has the highest incidence of retained placenta of the common domestic species

Ruminant

Placental attachment seen in horses, camelids, and pigs

Diffuse

Placental attachment that allows the entire surface if the placenta to attach to the uterine lining

Diffuse

Placental attachment seen in ruminants, and contains small multiple smaller, round, raised attachment sites that resemble inverted mushroom caps

Cotyledonary

This placental attachment sites increase in size throughout the pregnancy

Cotyledonary

Placental attachment site seen in carnivores, and contains belt-like attachment band around the middle of the placenta

Zonary

Found in primates, rodents, and rabbits, and contains one large disc shaped attachment site

Discoid

Muscle that elevates the mandible to close the mouth when chewing AND moves the mandible laterally

Temporalis

Muscle elevates the mandible to close the mouth when chewing ONLY

Masseter

Muscle opens the mouth

Digastricus

Muscle raises the floor of the mouth

Mylohyoideus

Insertion is the lateral side of the mandible

Masseter

Insertion is ventral mandible

Disgastricus

Origin is the zygomatic arch, insertion is the lateral side of the mandible

Masseter

Origin is the occipital and temporal bones caudal to the external acoustic meatus, the insertion is the ventral mandible

Digastricus

Origin is the medial surface of the mandible, insertion is the ventral median raphe between the bones of the mandible

Mylohyoideus

Origin; the majority of the muscle arises from the parietal bone, but the muscle also arises from the temporal frontal and occipital bones, the insertion is the coronoid process of the mandible

Temporalis

An extension of the epimysium that consists of dense connective cordlike tissue

Tendon

Fibrous connective tissue, attaches bone to bone

Ligament

The attachment at the less moveable end of the muscle or usually the more proximal end

Origin

The attachment at the more moveable end of the muscle; in the limbs it is usually the more distal end

Insertion

Responsible for movement and contraction

Muscle tissue

Extends hip/flexes stifle/extends tarsus

both A and B

Extends hip

Semimembranosus

Flexes hip/extends stifle

Sartorius

Adducts limb/flexes stifle/extends hip and hock

Gracilis

Extends digits/flexes tarsus/extends stifle

Long digital extensor muscle

Extends tarsus/flexes stifle

Gastrocnemius muscle

Flexes vertebral column/abdominal press

All of the above

Origin is the ischiatic tuberosity of the pelvis

All of the above

Origin is the crest of the ilium, the insertion is the patella/cranial part of the tibia

Sartorius

Origin is the Pelvic symphysis, insertion is the cranial border of tibia/tuber calcanei

Gracilis muscle

Origin is the extensor fossa of femur, insertion is the extensor process of distal phalanges

Long digital extensor muscle

Origin is medial/lateral supracondylar tuberosities of the femur, insertion is the proximal surface of tuber calcanei

Gastrocnemius

Origin is the thoracolumbar fascia of last rib

External abdominal oblique

Origin is the thoracolumbar fascia

Internal abdominal oblique

Origin is the last four to five ribs/transverse process of the lumbar vertebrae

Transversus abdominis

Insertion is the linea alba

All of the above

Insertion is the patella/proximal tibia/tuber calcanei (origin is the ischiatic tuberosity of pelvis)

Biceps femoris muscle

Insertion is the tibia and tuber calcanei (origin is the ischiatic tuberosity of pelvis)

Semitendinosus

Insertion is the femur and tibia (origin is the ischiatic tuberosity of the pelvis)

Semimembranosus

Insertion is the patella/cranial part of tibia (origin is the crest of ileum)

Sartorius

Insertion is the cranial border of tibia/tuber calcanei (origin is the pelvic symphysis)

Gracilis muscle

Insertion is the Extensor process of distal phalanges (origin is the extensor fossa of femur)

Long digital extensor muscle

Insertion is the proximal surface of tuber calcanei (origin is the medial/lateral supracondylar tuberosities of femur)

Gastrocnemius

Lymph node located on either side of the lower jaw where it meets the neck

Submandibular

Lymph node found in front of the shoulder blade where the neck and shoulder meet

Prescapular

Lymph node located in the armpit

Axillary

Lymph node located in the groin region

Inguinal

lymph nodes—found at the back of the stifle (i.e. knee)

Popliteal

Where bones connect with each other

Joints

Also known as synarthroses

Fibrous joints

Also known as amphiarthrosis

Cartilaginous joint

Also known as diarthroses

Synovial joints

Connect bones to other bones

Ligaments

Connect muscles to bones

Tendons

Joint that allows free movement

Synovial

Joint that allows slight rocking movement

Cartilaginous

Joint that does not allow movement

Fibrous

Identify the type of joint: elbow, joints of digits

Hinge joint

What type of joint is the carpus

Gliding joint

What type of joint is the atlantoaxial joint (between C1 and C2)

Pivot joint

What type of joint is the shoulder and hip joint

Ball and socket joints

Sutures uniting most of the skull bones are

Fibrous joints

Pelvis symphysis and mandibular symphysis are

Cartilaginous joints

Smooth articular surfaces covered with smooth articular cartilage are a characteristic of

Synovial joints

Hormone produced by the kidney

Erythropoietin

Hormone produced by the stomach

Gastrin

Hormone produced by the small intestine

Both A and C

Hormone produced by the placenta

Chorionic gonadotropin

Hormone produced by the thymus

Both A and B

Hormone produced by the pineal body

Melatonin

What hormone do many body tissues produce

Prostaglandins

Match

Erythropoietin = Stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow Melatonin = Influences moods, wake-sleep cycles, and seasonal estrus Secretin = Stimulates pancreas to release sodium bicarbonate; slows gastric motility Thymosin = Stimulates T cell development

Match

Thymopietin = Stimulates T cell development Gastrin = Stimulates gastric glands to secrete acid and digestive enzymes; increases gastric motility Prostaglandins = Inflammatory response, luteolysis Cholecystokinin = Stimulates the pancreas to release its digestive enzymes; slows gastric motility

Prevents hypocalcemia

PTH

Lowers calcium levels in the bloodstream

Calcitonin

Primary target organ is the small intestine

PTH

Is produced in the kidneys

Calcitrol

Is produced by the parafollicular cells

Calcitonin

Produced by the chief cells

PTH

Promotes bone resorption

PTH

Promotes bone deposition

PTH

Promotes the kidneys to reabsorb calcium

PTH

Match

Aqueous compartment = Area in front of the ciliary body and Anterior chamber = Space in front of the iris Posterior chamber = Space behind the iris but in front of the lens Vitreous compartment = Area behind the ciliary body and lens

Match

Clear watery fluid that fills the anterior and posterior chambers = Aqueous humor Clear, soft, gelatin-like liquid that fills part of the eyeball behind the lends and ciliary body = vitreous humor Area in front of the ciliary body and lens = Aqueous compartment Space in front of the iris = Anterior chamber

What causes the green reflection from the eyes of an animal in photographs or at night

Tapetum Lucidum

Do domestic animals have more rods or cones in their retinas

Rods

Are rods used for detail and color or dim light vision

Dim light vision

The ___ is the colored part of the eye that is visible externally

Iris

What is the name for the junction between the cornea and the sclera of the eye?

Limbus

The _______ is the tiny hole in the medial canthus of the eyelid that allows tears ti drain away from the eyes

Lacrimal punctum

What is the "blind spot" of the eye

Optic disc

The _________ is the muscular ring of tissue that surrounds the lens and adjusts its shape

Ciliary body

What adjustable eye structure helps focus a clear image on the retina

Lens

What is the clear "window" that admits light to the interior of the eye

Cornea

What structure of the eye contains rods and cones

Retina

What is the third eyelid covered with?

Conjunctiva

Match the Nerves to their sensation/control

Optic = Vision Oculomotor = External and internal eye muscles Trochlear = External eye muscles Trigeminal = Head and teeth sensations, chewing muscles

Match the Nerves to their sensation/control

Abducent = External eye muscles Facial = Salivation, tear production, taste Vestibulocochlear = Balance, hearing Glossopharyngeal = Tongue muscles, swallowing, salivation, taste

Match the Nerves to their sensation/control

Facial = Facial muscles, salivation, tear production, taste Vagus = Sensory to respiratory tree and gastrointestinal tract Accessory = Head movement, partially joins vagus nerve Hypoglossal = Tongue muscles

Which nerve is responsible for: motor to the larynx, pharynx, abdominal, and thoracic organs

Vagus

Is the cranial nerve: sensory, motor, or mixed ?

Optic = Sensory Oculomotor = Motor Trigeminal = Mixed

  • = -

Is the cranial nerve: Sensory, motor, or mixed

Trochlear = Motor Olfactory = Sensory Facial = Mixed

  • = -

Is the cranial nerve sensory, mixed, or motor

Abducent = Motor Vestibulocochlear = Sensory Glossopharyngeal = Mixed

  • = -

Is the cranial nerve motor, sensory, or mixed

Vagus = Mixed Optic = Sensory Hypoglossal = Motor

  • = -

Is the accessory cranial nerve sensory, motor or mixed

Motor

Largest and most rostral part of the brain, reponsible for learning and intelligence

Cerebrum

Coordinates movement, balance, posture and complex reflexes

Cerebellum

Serves as a passageway between the brainstem and the cerebrum

Diencephalon

Most primitive part of the brain, contains centers that control basic body functions like breath9ing, cardiac functions, digestive tract functions

Brainstem

Made up of nerve fibers that conenct the right and left cerebral hemispheres

Corpus collosum

The only externally visible part of the diencephalon

Pituitary gland

Small, bean-shaped structure located caudal to the thalamus

Pineal body

Bridge between the nervous system and the endocrine system

Hypothalamus

Relay station for regulating sensory inputs to the cerebrum. Circular structure ventral to the corpus collosum

Thalamus

Area of the brainstem that connects with the spinal cord

Medulla oblongatta

Located rostral to the medulla oblongata

Pons

Contains most of the neuron cell bodies and it is where many impulses are initiated

Grey matter

Consists mainly of myelinated nerve fibers

White matter

Sensory nerve fibers carry impulses _____ the brain

Toward

The ____ nerve can be found next to the carotid artery in the neck

Vagus

The ____ nerve is found on the medial surface of the thigh running with the femoral artery and vein

Femoral

The folds or "hills" on the surface of the cerebrum

Gyri

The grooves or "valleys" on the surface of the cerebrum

Sulci

Separates the cerebrum into right and left hemispheres

Longitudinal fissure

The cortex of the cerebellum is made up of ____ matter

Grey

The medulla of the brainstem is made up of ___ matter

Gray

The radial nerve is part of the

PNS

The most caudal nerve of the three main nerves branching off the brachial plexus is the _____

Ulnar nerve

Nerve that lies deep to or beneath the biceps femoris muscle is the ______

Sciatic

A cranial nerve, longest in the body

Vagus

Cats lack receptors in their taste buds that are sensitive to ___________

Sweet tastes

Omnivores that chew their food have kept taste receptors sensitive to sweetness because

Detecting carbohydrates is essential to survival

____ funnels sound wave vibrations into the external auditory canal

Pinna

__________ is a soft membrane-lined tube that conducts sound wave vibrations to the tympanic membrane

External auditory canal

The ___ of the heart is where all blood vessels enter and leave

Base

______ Reaches all the way to the end of the apex of the heart

Left ventricle

________ is located cranial to the right ventricle, is an extension of the right atrium

Right auricle

Blood vessel at the cranial end of the right ventricle near the interventricular groove is the ____________

Pulmonary artery

Large blood vessel that enters the left atrium

Pulmonary vein

Large blood vessel that leaves the left ventricle

Aorta

Large blood vessel that leaves the right ventricle

Pulmonary artery

Large blood vessel that enter the right atrium

Vena cava

The aortic valve is located

Where the aorta leaves the left ventricle

The pulmonary valve is located

Where the pulmonary artery leaves the right ventricle

2 main arteries that branch off the brachiocephalic trunk

Left subclavian artery and brachiocephalic trunk

Artery that branches off the brachiocephalic trunk

Right subclavian

Superficial vein that runs between the elbow and the carpus on the craniomedial surface of the forearm

Cephalic

Forms a grossly visible fibrous sac around each testis and spermatic cord

Parietal vaginal tunic

Tightly adheres to the testis and is not grossly visible

Visceral vaginal tunic

Spermatozoa mature and are stored in the ________ until ejaculation

epididymis

Where spermatozoa enter from efferent ducts

Head of epididymis

Main portion of the epididymis, lies along the sides of the testis

Body of epididymis

______ continues on as the vas deferens

Tail of epididymis

Thick muscular tube composed mainly of smooth muscle, it extends from the tail of the epididymis to the pelvic portion of the urethra

Vas deferens

Runs down the center of the spermatic cord to carry blood to the testes

Testicular artery

The spermatic cord links the testes with the rest of the body

True

Largest part of the penis and contains erectile tissue

Body

Attaches the penis to the brim of the pelvis with two connective tissue bands covered with muscle

Roots

Most distal part of the penis

Glans

The ovaries are homologous (have the same embryologic origin) to the male testes

True

The ovaries are not homologous (have the same embryologic origin) to the male testes

False

The ovaries are located in the abdomen near the kidneys, they are suspended from the dorsal part of the abdomen by the

Suspensory ligament

The uterus is suspended from the dorsal part of the abdomen by the

Broad ligament

Three connective tissue ligaments suspend the abdominal female reproductive organs from the dorsal body wall, which is the largest of the three

Broad ligament

Connective tissue that is transected during ovariohysterectomy surgery to allow the uterine horns to be removed

Both B and C

the round ligament is a lateral fold of the broad ligament made up of fibrous tissue and blood vessels

True

Located at the upper portion of the stomach

Cardia

Referred to as the "blind pouch"

Fundus

Distal portion of the stomach, functions to break down ingesta and aids in hydrochloric acid regulation through the release of the hormone gastrin

Antrum

End portion of the stomach

Pylorus

Third compartment of the forestomach and aids in mechanical breakdown of ingesta and in the absorption of VFAs

Omasum

Acts as the true stomach, contains glands that secrete acids and enzymes necessary for digestion to occur

Abomasum

Longest portion of the small intestine and absorbs the bulk of nutrients derived from food

Jejunum

Shortes portion of the small intestine and forms a transitory link between the jejunum and the beginning of the large intestine

Ileum

Fat digestion is accomplished via emulsification with aid of bile acids from

The liver or gallbladder

Blind-ended pouch from which the ascending colon arises

Cecum

Protects tooth from bacteria and sensitivity

Enamel

Contain cells that produce dentin

Pulp

Supports the enamel

Dentin

Adducts thoracic limb

Superficial pectoral

Adducts and pulls limb caudally

Deep pectoral

Pulls limb forward, extends shoulder

Brachiocephalicus

Elevates and abducts limb

Trapezius muscle

Draws limb caudally, flexes shoulder joint

Latissimus dorsi

Draws head to side

Sternocephalicus

Elevated the mandible to close the mouth when chewing

Masseter

Raises the floor of the mouth

Mylohyoideus

The origin of a muscle is usually the more proximal end

True

The insertion of a muscle is usually the more distal end

True

Test your knowledge on the different types of placental attachment in domestic animals. This quiz covers the distinctive features of placental attachment in horses, camelids, pigs, ruminants, and carnivores.

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