191 Questions
Which animal generally has the highest incidence of retained placenta of the common domestic species
Ruminant
Placental attachment seen in horses, camelids, and pigs
Diffuse
Placental attachment that allows the entire surface if the placenta to attach to the uterine lining
Diffuse
Placental attachment seen in ruminants, and contains small multiple smaller, round, raised attachment sites that resemble inverted mushroom caps
Cotyledonary
This placental attachment sites increase in size throughout the pregnancy
Cotyledonary
Placental attachment site seen in carnivores, and contains belt-like attachment band around the middle of the placenta
Zonary
Found in primates, rodents, and rabbits, and contains one large disc shaped attachment site
Discoid
Muscle that elevates the mandible to close the mouth when chewing AND moves the mandible laterally
Temporalis
Muscle elevates the mandible to close the mouth when chewing ONLY
Masseter
Muscle opens the mouth
Digastricus
Muscle raises the floor of the mouth
Mylohyoideus
Insertion is the lateral side of the mandible
Masseter
Insertion is ventral mandible
Disgastricus
Origin is the zygomatic arch, insertion is the lateral side of the mandible
Masseter
Origin is the occipital and temporal bones caudal to the external acoustic meatus, the insertion is the ventral mandible
Digastricus
Origin is the medial surface of the mandible, insertion is the ventral median raphe between the bones of the mandible
Mylohyoideus
Origin; the majority of the muscle arises from the parietal bone, but the muscle also arises from the temporal frontal and occipital bones, the insertion is the coronoid process of the mandible
Temporalis
An extension of the epimysium that consists of dense connective cordlike tissue
Tendon
Fibrous connective tissue, attaches bone to bone
Ligament
The attachment at the less moveable end of the muscle or usually the more proximal end
Origin
The attachment at the more moveable end of the muscle; in the limbs it is usually the more distal end
Insertion
Responsible for movement and contraction
Muscle tissue
Extends hip/flexes stifle/extends tarsus
both A and B
Extends hip
Semimembranosus
Flexes hip/extends stifle
Sartorius
Adducts limb/flexes stifle/extends hip and hock
Gracilis
Extends digits/flexes tarsus/extends stifle
Long digital extensor muscle
Extends tarsus/flexes stifle
Gastrocnemius muscle
Flexes vertebral column/abdominal press
All of the above
Origin is the ischiatic tuberosity of the pelvis
All of the above
Origin is the crest of the ilium, the insertion is the patella/cranial part of the tibia
Sartorius
Origin is the Pelvic symphysis, insertion is the cranial border of tibia/tuber calcanei
Gracilis muscle
Origin is the extensor fossa of femur, insertion is the extensor process of distal phalanges
Long digital extensor muscle
Origin is medial/lateral supracondylar tuberosities of the femur, insertion is the proximal surface of tuber calcanei
Gastrocnemius
Origin is the thoracolumbar fascia of last rib
External abdominal oblique
Origin is the thoracolumbar fascia
Internal abdominal oblique
Origin is the last four to five ribs/transverse process of the lumbar vertebrae
Transversus abdominis
Insertion is the linea alba
All of the above
Insertion is the patella/proximal tibia/tuber calcanei (origin is the ischiatic tuberosity of pelvis)
Biceps femoris muscle
Insertion is the tibia and tuber calcanei (origin is the ischiatic tuberosity of pelvis)
Semitendinosus
Insertion is the femur and tibia (origin is the ischiatic tuberosity of the pelvis)
Semimembranosus
Insertion is the patella/cranial part of tibia (origin is the crest of ileum)
Sartorius
Insertion is the cranial border of tibia/tuber calcanei (origin is the pelvic symphysis)
Gracilis muscle
Insertion is the Extensor process of distal phalanges (origin is the extensor fossa of femur)
Long digital extensor muscle
Insertion is the proximal surface of tuber calcanei (origin is the medial/lateral supracondylar tuberosities of femur)
Gastrocnemius
Lymph node located on either side of the lower jaw where it meets the neck
Submandibular
Lymph node found in front of the shoulder blade where the neck and shoulder meet
Prescapular
Lymph node located in the armpit
Axillary
Lymph node located in the groin region
Inguinal
lymph nodes—found at the back of the stifle (i.e. knee)
Popliteal
Where bones connect with each other
Joints
Also known as synarthroses
Fibrous joints
Also known as amphiarthrosis
Cartilaginous joint
Also known as diarthroses
Synovial joints
Connect bones to other bones
Ligaments
Connect muscles to bones
Tendons
Joint that allows free movement
Synovial
Joint that allows slight rocking movement
Cartilaginous
Joint that does not allow movement
Fibrous
Identify the type of joint: elbow, joints of digits
Hinge joint
What type of joint is the carpus
Gliding joint
What type of joint is the atlantoaxial joint (between C1 and C2)
Pivot joint
What type of joint is the shoulder and hip joint
Ball and socket joints
Sutures uniting most of the skull bones are
Fibrous joints
Pelvis symphysis and mandibular symphysis are
Cartilaginous joints
Smooth articular surfaces covered with smooth articular cartilage are a characteristic of
Synovial joints
Hormone produced by the kidney
Erythropoietin
Hormone produced by the stomach
Gastrin
Hormone produced by the small intestine
Both A and C
Hormone produced by the placenta
Chorionic gonadotropin
Hormone produced by the thymus
Both A and B
Hormone produced by the pineal body
Melatonin
What hormone do many body tissues produce
Prostaglandins
Match
Erythropoietin = Stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow Melatonin = Influences moods, wake-sleep cycles, and seasonal estrus Secretin = Stimulates pancreas to release sodium bicarbonate; slows gastric motility Thymosin = Stimulates T cell development
Match
Thymopietin = Stimulates T cell development Gastrin = Stimulates gastric glands to secrete acid and digestive enzymes; increases gastric motility Prostaglandins = Inflammatory response, luteolysis Cholecystokinin = Stimulates the pancreas to release its digestive enzymes; slows gastric motility
Prevents hypocalcemia
PTH
Lowers calcium levels in the bloodstream
Calcitonin
Primary target organ is the small intestine
PTH
Is produced in the kidneys
Calcitrol
Is produced by the parafollicular cells
Calcitonin
Produced by the chief cells
PTH
Promotes bone resorption
PTH
Promotes bone deposition
PTH
Promotes the kidneys to reabsorb calcium
PTH
Match
Aqueous compartment = Area in front of the ciliary body and Anterior chamber = Space in front of the iris Posterior chamber = Space behind the iris but in front of the lens Vitreous compartment = Area behind the ciliary body and lens
Match
Clear watery fluid that fills the anterior and posterior chambers = Aqueous humor Clear, soft, gelatin-like liquid that fills part of the eyeball behind the lends and ciliary body = vitreous humor Area in front of the ciliary body and lens = Aqueous compartment Space in front of the iris = Anterior chamber
What causes the green reflection from the eyes of an animal in photographs or at night
Tapetum Lucidum
Do domestic animals have more rods or cones in their retinas
Rods
Are rods used for detail and color or dim light vision
Dim light vision
The ___ is the colored part of the eye that is visible externally
Iris
What is the name for the junction between the cornea and the sclera of the eye?
Limbus
The _______ is the tiny hole in the medial canthus of the eyelid that allows tears ti drain away from the eyes
Lacrimal punctum
What is the "blind spot" of the eye
Optic disc
The _________ is the muscular ring of tissue that surrounds the lens and adjusts its shape
Ciliary body
What adjustable eye structure helps focus a clear image on the retina
Lens
What is the clear "window" that admits light to the interior of the eye
Cornea
What structure of the eye contains rods and cones
Retina
What is the third eyelid covered with?
Conjunctiva
Match the Nerves to their sensation/control
Optic = Vision Oculomotor = External and internal eye muscles Trochlear = External eye muscles Trigeminal = Head and teeth sensations, chewing muscles
Match the Nerves to their sensation/control
Abducent = External eye muscles Facial = Salivation, tear production, taste Vestibulocochlear = Balance, hearing Glossopharyngeal = Tongue muscles, swallowing, salivation, taste
Match the Nerves to their sensation/control
Facial = Facial muscles, salivation, tear production, taste Vagus = Sensory to respiratory tree and gastrointestinal tract Accessory = Head movement, partially joins vagus nerve Hypoglossal = Tongue muscles
Which nerve is responsible for: motor to the larynx, pharynx, abdominal, and thoracic organs
Vagus
Is the cranial nerve: sensory, motor, or mixed ?
Optic = Sensory Oculomotor = Motor Trigeminal = Mixed
- = -
Is the cranial nerve: Sensory, motor, or mixed
Trochlear = Motor Olfactory = Sensory Facial = Mixed
- = -
Is the cranial nerve sensory, mixed, or motor
Abducent = Motor Vestibulocochlear = Sensory Glossopharyngeal = Mixed
- = -
Is the cranial nerve motor, sensory, or mixed
Vagus = Mixed Optic = Sensory Hypoglossal = Motor
- = -
Is the accessory cranial nerve sensory, motor or mixed
Motor
Largest and most rostral part of the brain, reponsible for learning and intelligence
Cerebrum
Coordinates movement, balance, posture and complex reflexes
Cerebellum
Serves as a passageway between the brainstem and the cerebrum
Diencephalon
Most primitive part of the brain, contains centers that control basic body functions like breath9ing, cardiac functions, digestive tract functions
Brainstem
Made up of nerve fibers that conenct the right and left cerebral hemispheres
Corpus collosum
The only externally visible part of the diencephalon
Pituitary gland
Small, bean-shaped structure located caudal to the thalamus
Pineal body
Bridge between the nervous system and the endocrine system
Hypothalamus
Relay station for regulating sensory inputs to the cerebrum. Circular structure ventral to the corpus collosum
Thalamus
Area of the brainstem that connects with the spinal cord
Medulla oblongatta
Located rostral to the medulla oblongata
Pons
Contains most of the neuron cell bodies and it is where many impulses are initiated
Grey matter
Consists mainly of myelinated nerve fibers
White matter
Sensory nerve fibers carry impulses _____ the brain
Toward
The ____ nerve can be found next to the carotid artery in the neck
Vagus
The ____ nerve is found on the medial surface of the thigh running with the femoral artery and vein
Femoral
The folds or "hills" on the surface of the cerebrum
Gyri
The grooves or "valleys" on the surface of the cerebrum
Sulci
Separates the cerebrum into right and left hemispheres
Longitudinal fissure
The cortex of the cerebellum is made up of ____ matter
Grey
The medulla of the brainstem is made up of ___ matter
Gray
The radial nerve is part of the
PNS
The most caudal nerve of the three main nerves branching off the brachial plexus is the _____
Ulnar nerve
Nerve that lies deep to or beneath the biceps femoris muscle is the ______
Sciatic
A cranial nerve, longest in the body
Vagus
Cats lack receptors in their taste buds that are sensitive to ___________
Sweet tastes
Omnivores that chew their food have kept taste receptors sensitive to sweetness because
Detecting carbohydrates is essential to survival
____ funnels sound wave vibrations into the external auditory canal
Pinna
__________ is a soft membrane-lined tube that conducts sound wave vibrations to the tympanic membrane
External auditory canal
The ___ of the heart is where all blood vessels enter and leave
Base
______ Reaches all the way to the end of the apex of the heart
Left ventricle
________ is located cranial to the right ventricle, is an extension of the right atrium
Right auricle
Blood vessel at the cranial end of the right ventricle near the interventricular groove is the ____________
Pulmonary artery
Large blood vessel that enters the left atrium
Pulmonary vein
Large blood vessel that leaves the left ventricle
Aorta
Large blood vessel that leaves the right ventricle
Pulmonary artery
Large blood vessel that enter the right atrium
Vena cava
The aortic valve is located
Where the aorta leaves the left ventricle
The pulmonary valve is located
Where the pulmonary artery leaves the right ventricle
2 main arteries that branch off the brachiocephalic trunk
Left subclavian artery and brachiocephalic trunk
Artery that branches off the brachiocephalic trunk
Right subclavian
Superficial vein that runs between the elbow and the carpus on the craniomedial surface of the forearm
Cephalic
Forms a grossly visible fibrous sac around each testis and spermatic cord
Parietal vaginal tunic
Tightly adheres to the testis and is not grossly visible
Visceral vaginal tunic
Spermatozoa mature and are stored in the ________ until ejaculation
epididymis
Where spermatozoa enter from efferent ducts
Head of epididymis
Main portion of the epididymis, lies along the sides of the testis
Body of epididymis
______ continues on as the vas deferens
Tail of epididymis
Thick muscular tube composed mainly of smooth muscle, it extends from the tail of the epididymis to the pelvic portion of the urethra
Vas deferens
Runs down the center of the spermatic cord to carry blood to the testes
Testicular artery
The spermatic cord links the testes with the rest of the body
True
Largest part of the penis and contains erectile tissue
Body
Attaches the penis to the brim of the pelvis with two connective tissue bands covered with muscle
Roots
Most distal part of the penis
Glans
The ovaries are homologous (have the same embryologic origin) to the male testes
True
The ovaries are not homologous (have the same embryologic origin) to the male testes
False
The ovaries are located in the abdomen near the kidneys, they are suspended from the dorsal part of the abdomen by the
Suspensory ligament
The uterus is suspended from the dorsal part of the abdomen by the
Broad ligament
Three connective tissue ligaments suspend the abdominal female reproductive organs from the dorsal body wall, which is the largest of the three
Broad ligament
Connective tissue that is transected during ovariohysterectomy surgery to allow the uterine horns to be removed
Both B and C
the round ligament is a lateral fold of the broad ligament made up of fibrous tissue and blood vessels
True
Located at the upper portion of the stomach
Cardia
Referred to as the "blind pouch"
Fundus
Distal portion of the stomach, functions to break down ingesta and aids in hydrochloric acid regulation through the release of the hormone gastrin
Antrum
End portion of the stomach
Pylorus
Third compartment of the forestomach and aids in mechanical breakdown of ingesta and in the absorption of VFAs
Omasum
Acts as the true stomach, contains glands that secrete acids and enzymes necessary for digestion to occur
Abomasum
Longest portion of the small intestine and absorbs the bulk of nutrients derived from food
Jejunum
Shortes portion of the small intestine and forms a transitory link between the jejunum and the beginning of the large intestine
Ileum
Fat digestion is accomplished via emulsification with aid of bile acids from
The liver or gallbladder
Blind-ended pouch from which the ascending colon arises
Cecum
Protects tooth from bacteria and sensitivity
Enamel
Contain cells that produce dentin
Pulp
Supports the enamel
Dentin
Adducts thoracic limb
Superficial pectoral
Adducts and pulls limb caudally
Deep pectoral
Pulls limb forward, extends shoulder
Brachiocephalicus
Elevates and abducts limb
Trapezius muscle
Draws limb caudally, flexes shoulder joint
Latissimus dorsi
Draws head to side
Sternocephalicus
Elevated the mandible to close the mouth when chewing
Masseter
Raises the floor of the mouth
Mylohyoideus
The origin of a muscle is usually the more proximal end
True
The insertion of a muscle is usually the more distal end
True
Test your knowledge on the different types of placental attachment in domestic animals. This quiz covers the distinctive features of placental attachment in horses, camelids, pigs, ruminants, and carnivores.
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