Podcast
Questions and Answers
Which intravenous anesthetic is most likely to cause hallucinations as a notable side effect?
Which intravenous anesthetic is most likely to cause hallucinations as a notable side effect?
- Thiopental Sodium
- Midazolam
- Ketamine (correct)
- Propofol
A patient with hypovolemia requires an induction agent. Which of the following would be the MOST suitable choice considering cardiovascular stability?
A patient with hypovolemia requires an induction agent. Which of the following would be the MOST suitable choice considering cardiovascular stability?
- Thiopental
- Propofol
- Ketamine
- Etomidate (correct)
Which of the following intravenous anesthetics provides analgesia?
Which of the following intravenous anesthetics provides analgesia?
- Midazolam
- Propofol
- Ketamine (correct)
- Thiopental Sodium
A patient is administered succinylcholine. What physiological response is most likely to be observed initially?
A patient is administered succinylcholine. What physiological response is most likely to be observed initially?
Which of the following drugs primarily enhances the effect of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the central nervous system?
Which of the following drugs primarily enhances the effect of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the central nervous system?
Which of the following agents can provide semiarousable sedation without causing respiratory depression?
Which of the following agents can provide semiarousable sedation without causing respiratory depression?
A surgical team requires an anesthetic that provides excellent amnesia but recognizes it will not provide any pain relief. Which agent would be most appropriate?
A surgical team requires an anesthetic that provides excellent amnesia but recognizes it will not provide any pain relief. Which agent would be most appropriate?
Which of the following mechanisms describes how depolarizing muscle relaxants function at the neuromuscular junction?
Which of the following mechanisms describes how depolarizing muscle relaxants function at the neuromuscular junction?
Which intervention is least likely to be used in the immediate treatment of a patient experiencing malignant hyperthermia (MH) during surgery?
Which intervention is least likely to be used in the immediate treatment of a patient experiencing malignant hyperthermia (MH) during surgery?
A patient with a known genetic susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia (MH) is scheduled for an elective surgical procedure. What is the most important preoperative nursing intervention?
A patient with a known genetic susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia (MH) is scheduled for an elective surgical procedure. What is the most important preoperative nursing intervention?
Following spinal anesthesia, a patient reports a severe headache that is exacerbated when sitting upright. What nursing intervention is most appropriate?
Following spinal anesthesia, a patient reports a severe headache that is exacerbated when sitting upright. What nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A patient who received epidural anesthesia experiences a sudden drop in blood pressure. What is the physiological mechanism most likely responsible for this decline?
A patient who received epidural anesthesia experiences a sudden drop in blood pressure. What is the physiological mechanism most likely responsible for this decline?
Which type of regional anesthesia involves injecting medication into the epidural space through the caudal canal in the sacrum?
Which type of regional anesthesia involves injecting medication into the epidural space through the caudal canal in the sacrum?
A patient is scheduled for a surgical procedure on their arm and the surgical team plans to use a nerve block. Where will the anesthetic be administered?
A patient is scheduled for a surgical procedure on their arm and the surgical team plans to use a nerve block. Where will the anesthetic be administered?
What is the underlying mechanism that is responsible for a rapid decrease in blood pressure, after the administration of epidural or spinal anesthesia?
What is the underlying mechanism that is responsible for a rapid decrease in blood pressure, after the administration of epidural or spinal anesthesia?
Due to the risk of malignant hyperthermia, patients should be cautious to wear an alert bracelet that indicates they are susceptible to MH when exposed to?
Due to the risk of malignant hyperthermia, patients should be cautious to wear an alert bracelet that indicates they are susceptible to MH when exposed to?
Which intravenous anesthetic is characterized by a rapid onset and awakening, making it suitable for both induction and maintenance of anesthesia, as well as sedation during regional anesthesia?
Which intravenous anesthetic is characterized by a rapid onset and awakening, making it suitable for both induction and maintenance of anesthesia, as well as sedation during regional anesthesia?
A patient undergoing a short surgical procedure requires an anesthetic for airway intubation. Which depolarizing muscle relaxant would be most appropriate, considering its rapid onset and short duration of action?
A patient undergoing a short surgical procedure requires an anesthetic for airway intubation. Which depolarizing muscle relaxant would be most appropriate, considering its rapid onset and short duration of action?
Which opioid analgesic is commonly used for surgical analgesia and can be administered via epidural infusion for postoperative pain management, while also demonstrating good cardiovascular stability?
Which opioid analgesic is commonly used for surgical analgesia and can be administered via epidural infusion for postoperative pain management, while also demonstrating good cardiovascular stability?
A patient with renal failure requires a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant. Which of the following would be the MOST suitable choice, considering its lack of significant cardiovascular or cumulative effects and its independence from renal elimination?
A patient with renal failure requires a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant. Which of the following would be the MOST suitable choice, considering its lack of significant cardiovascular or cumulative effects and its independence from renal elimination?
Following a surgery, a patient exhibits residual muscle weakness due to a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent. Which cholinergic agent is typically administered to reverse these effects?
Following a surgery, a patient exhibits residual muscle weakness due to a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent. Which cholinergic agent is typically administered to reverse these effects?
Which of the following anticholinergic agents is known for its ability to increase heart rate and suppress secretions without crossing the blood-brain barrier, thus reducing the risk of central nervous system side effects?
Which of the following anticholinergic agents is known for its ability to increase heart rate and suppress secretions without crossing the blood-brain barrier, thus reducing the risk of central nervous system side effects?
A patient is undergoing a procedure that requires monitored anesthesia care (MAC). Which intravenous anesthetic is often used as an adjunct to induction, providing excellent amnestic effects and water solubility, reducing pain during IV injection?
A patient is undergoing a procedure that requires monitored anesthesia care (MAC). Which intravenous anesthetic is often used as an adjunct to induction, providing excellent amnestic effects and water solubility, reducing pain during IV injection?
A patient presents with sinus bradycardia. Which medication would be MOST appropriate to administer, given its ability to increase heart rate by blocking the effects of acetylcholine?
A patient presents with sinus bradycardia. Which medication would be MOST appropriate to administer, given its ability to increase heart rate by blocking the effects of acetylcholine?
Which anesthetic is LEAST likely to cause cardiovascular changes during the induction of anesthesia?
Which anesthetic is LEAST likely to cause cardiovascular changes during the induction of anesthesia?
A patient who has received rocuronium requires reversal but oral contraceptives may be a consideration. Which medication is used to reverse non-depolarizing neuromuscular-blocking agents, but distinctively interferes with oral contraceptives for two weeks after administration?
A patient who has received rocuronium requires reversal but oral contraceptives may be a consideration. Which medication is used to reverse non-depolarizing neuromuscular-blocking agents, but distinctively interferes with oral contraceptives for two weeks after administration?
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason surgical gowns are used in the operating room?
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason surgical gowns are used in the operating room?
Why is fluid resistance an important characteristic of surgical gowns?
Why is fluid resistance an important characteristic of surgical gowns?
Clean, sturdy shoes are acceptable in the surgical area, rendering shoe covers unnecessary, because:
Clean, sturdy shoes are acceptable in the surgical area, rendering shoe covers unnecessary, because:
A patient undergoing general anesthesia receives a muscle relaxant. What is MOST likely required to support their physiological functions?
A patient undergoing general anesthesia receives a muscle relaxant. What is MOST likely required to support their physiological functions?
Which of the following statements accurately compares the potency of sevoflurane and nitrous oxide?
Which of the following statements accurately compares the potency of sevoflurane and nitrous oxide?
If a patient is classified as ASA PS4, this indicates:
If a patient is classified as ASA PS4, this indicates:
When general anesthesia is administered WITHOUT muscle relaxants, what airway support method is MOST commonly used?
When general anesthesia is administered WITHOUT muscle relaxants, what airway support method is MOST commonly used?
Which ASA classification would be assigned to a patient who is brain-dead and undergoing organ harvesting for donation?
Which ASA classification would be assigned to a patient who is brain-dead and undergoing organ harvesting for donation?
What is the primary reason for posting signs outside the operating room during local anesthesia or MAC?
What is the primary reason for posting signs outside the operating room during local anesthesia or MAC?
Which of the following medications is classified as a local anesthetic?
Which of the following medications is classified as a local anesthetic?
What physiological response can lead to airway compromise during anesthesia due to relaxation of soft tissues?
What physiological response can lead to airway compromise during anesthesia due to relaxation of soft tissues?
A patient undergoing anesthesia exhibits a reflexive and prolonged closure of the vocal folds. Which airway complication is most likely occurring?
A patient undergoing anesthesia exhibits a reflexive and prolonged closure of the vocal folds. Which airway complication is most likely occurring?
During intubation, an ETT is inadvertently advanced past the carina into the right mainstem bronchus. What is the most likely immediate consequence of this error?
During intubation, an ETT is inadvertently advanced past the carina into the right mainstem bronchus. What is the most likely immediate consequence of this error?
Which of the following airway complications during anesthesia is directly related to the regurgitation of stomach contents?
Which of the following airway complications during anesthesia is directly related to the regurgitation of stomach contents?
In which clinical scenario is the use of a face mask for airway management most appropriate?
In which clinical scenario is the use of a face mask for airway management most appropriate?
A patient with a history of difficult intubation due to a short neck and limited mouth opening requires airway management during a surgical procedure. Besides a standard endotracheal tube, which device would be MOST beneficial to have immediately available?
A patient with a history of difficult intubation due to a short neck and limited mouth opening requires airway management during a surgical procedure. Besides a standard endotracheal tube, which device would be MOST beneficial to have immediately available?
A patient's family expresses anxiety about the upcoming surgery. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to alleviate their concerns?
A patient's family expresses anxiety about the upcoming surgery. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to alleviate their concerns?
A patient reports a family history of malignant hyperthermia (MH) during the pre-operative assessment. Which medication should the nurse ensure is avoided during the surgery?
A patient reports a family history of malignant hyperthermia (MH) during the pre-operative assessment. Which medication should the nurse ensure is avoided during the surgery?
What is the primary purpose of wearing surgical attire in the operating room?
What is the primary purpose of wearing surgical attire in the operating room?
During the pre-operative 'time-out,' which element is essential for the surgical team to confirm?
During the pre-operative 'time-out,' which element is essential for the surgical team to confirm?
Which of the following is an important consideration for patient safety and positive outcomes while the patient is in the operating room?
Which of the following is an important consideration for patient safety and positive outcomes while the patient is in the operating room?
A patient becomes combative and reports pain during pre-operative preparation. After quickly completing the pre-operative checklist, which intervention is most appropriate?
A patient becomes combative and reports pain during pre-operative preparation. After quickly completing the pre-operative checklist, which intervention is most appropriate?
Besides correct procedure, correct site, and laterality, what also needs to be verified during a surgical time-out?
Besides correct procedure, correct site, and laterality, what also needs to be verified during a surgical time-out?
Which action is least important for surgical attire?
Which action is least important for surgical attire?
Flashcards
Malignant Hyperthermia (MH)
Malignant Hyperthermia (MH)
A potentially fatal hypermetabolic state triggered by certain anesthetic agents.
MH Nursing Interventions
MH Nursing Interventions
Administering dantrolene and cooling the patient.
Dantrolene
Dantrolene
A medication used to treat malignant hyperthermia.
Regional Anesthesia
Regional Anesthesia
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Spinal Anesthesia
Spinal Anesthesia
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Epidural Anesthesia
Epidural Anesthesia
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Caudal Anesthesia
Caudal Anesthesia
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Nerve Block
Nerve Block
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Surgical Gowns
Surgical Gowns
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Sturdy Footwear
Sturdy Footwear
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General Anesthesia
General Anesthesia
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Volatile Agents
Volatile Agents
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ASA Classification
ASA Classification
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Muscle Relaxants
Muscle Relaxants
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Common Volatile Agents
Common Volatile Agents
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Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC)
Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC)
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IV Anesthetics
IV Anesthetics
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Barbiturates
Barbiturates
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Benzodiazepines
Benzodiazepines
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Opioids
Opioids
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Propofol
Propofol
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Ketamine
Ketamine
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Etomidate
Etomidate
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Dexmedetomidine (Precedex)
Dexmedetomidine (Precedex)
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OR Posting During Local/MAC
OR Posting During Local/MAC
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Local Anesthetic Example
Local Anesthetic Example
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Airway Management
Airway Management
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Causes of Airway Compromise
Causes of Airway Compromise
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Laryngospasm
Laryngospasm
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Bronchial Intubation
Bronchial Intubation
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Perforation Complication
Perforation Complication
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Aspiration
Aspiration
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Essential Support Actions
Essential Support Actions
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MH-Triggering Agent
MH-Triggering Agent
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Purpose of Surgical Attire
Purpose of Surgical Attire
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Time-Out Components
Time-Out Components
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OR Safety Considerations
OR Safety Considerations
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Preoperative Check Items
Preoperative Check Items
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Preoperative Anesthesia
Preoperative Anesthesia
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Surgical Time-Out
Surgical Time-Out
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Succinylcholine (Anectine)
Succinylcholine (Anectine)
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Neostigmine (Prostigmin)
Neostigmine (Prostigmin)
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Propofol (Diprivan)
Propofol (Diprivan)
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Etomidate (Amidate)
Etomidate (Amidate)
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Atropine
Atropine
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Fentanyl (Sublimaze)
Fentanyl (Sublimaze)
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Sugammadex
Sugammadex
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Rocuronium (Zemuron)
Rocuronium (Zemuron)
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Remifentanil (Ultiva)
Remifentanil (Ultiva)
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Study Notes
Surgical Settings
- Surgical settings are evolving as surgical knowledge advances and new equipment evolves.
- Surgical options include both traditional hospital settings and outpatient surgical centers with similar amenities.
- Inpatient settings offer care for patients needing post-operative admittance to a hospital unit.
- Inpatient procedures often involve invasive and long operations needing over 24 hours of monitoring.
- Cardiac surgeries needing ICU care and joint replacements needing complex pain relief are examples of inpatient procedures.
- Hospital admission after surgery may be needed for rehabilitation.
- Outpatient surgery doesn't require admittance to a hospital before or after the procedure.
- Outpatient surgery can occur in freestanding surgery centers or in hospitals, also known as "same-day surgery."
- Outpatient surgery is often less invasive and requires less than 24 hours of monitored recovery.
- Patients are often admitted 2 hours before surgery and discharged straight to their homes.
- Outpatient surgery candidates typically don't have comorbidities or need extra recovery care beyond postanesthesia.
- Successful home recovery requires patients who can learn before discharge, and caregivers present at all times for at least 24 hours
- ENT, oral, and orthopedic surgeries are examples of outpatient surgeries.
- Mastectomies may be done in outpatient settings.
- Ambulatory surgical centers follow the same safety measures include anesthesiologists, sterile environments, and PACUs as inpatient settings.
- Before discharge from outpatient settings, managing pain and understanding recovery are key.
- Freestanding outpatient surgery centers are rapidly expanding due to convenience and flexibility.
- These centers allows greater flexibility in schedules.
- Family members are only separated while the procedure occurs, and can more easily participate in postoperative attention.
- Freestanding sites are also less expensive and offer more face-to-face time with nurses.
- Nurses in outpatient facilities must rapidly assess patient's learning needs due to shorter recovery times and give education before anesthesia takes effect.
Surgical Categories
- Surgery is categorized into diagnostic, curative, restorative, palliative, cosmetic, and transplant.
- Diagnostic surgeries such as exploratory procedures, laparotomies/arthroscopies, and biopsies determine the source of disorders.
- Curative surgeries fix or remove the source of a disorder.
- Restorative surgeries such as total hip replacements, improve function by reconstructing mechanical parts.
- Palliative procedures alleviate pain and improve comfort and quality of life.
- Cosmetic surgery focuses on improving appearance.
- Transplant surgery replaces dysfunctional organs.
- Surgical procedures includes elective, urgent and emergency.
- Elective surgery is chosen for well-being but is not essential.
- Plastic, oral, and orthopedic surgeries are often elective and scheduled at patient's convenience in outpatient settings.
- Urgent surgeries can be scheduled, but may be done later.
- Hysterectomies, laminectomies, and hip or knee replacements are examples of urgent surgeries.
- Emergency surgery, due to its unscheduled nature, is done to save a life or limb, like with gunshot wounds, stabbings, or auto accidents
Sterile Team Members
- Several million individuals worldwide face a surgical procedure each day.
- Surgical patients rely on the surgical team's experience and knowledge.
- An efficiently functioning team in the surgical environment is extremely important, needing respect, harmony, and strong communication.
- Surgical teams include a surgeon, an anesthesia provider, a perioperative RN, and assistive personnel.
- Sterile members are those who scrub in and wear sterile attire, working within the identified sterile field.
- Non-sterile members function outside the identified sterile field.
- Sterile members include surgeons, surgical assistants, and scrub nurses/technologists/OR technicians.
- Sterile team members have responsibility of aseptic technique, controlling the sterile field and preventing microorganism contamination
- The sterile field includes the OR table, the Mayo stand, and instrument table.
- Sterile team members use disinfecting soaps to scrub their hands/arms and arms and wear surgical gowns
- Surgeons lead the surgical team and has the ultimate responsibility for performing the surgery safely.
- Depending on complexity, more than one provider may assist the surgeon, including interns, hospital residents, and other specialists
- Surgical assistants are practitioners having specialized training to assist with procedures.
- Physician assistants, surgical first assistants, nurse practitioners, and RN first assistants can be surgical assistants.
- PAs help licensed providers, assist pre- and postoperatively, and ensure the collection of diagnostic films, records, lab studies, and patient history all while reporting issues to the relevant parties.
- SFAs are certified surgical technologists with extra training who aid by exposing surgical sites, encouraging hemostasis, and performing other technical functions.
- RNFAs or NPs are RNs who have undergone additional perioperative environment training, which varies by state. They function similar to PAs to aid the surgeon during the operation.
- Scrub nurses, surgical technologists, and OR technicians work directly with the surgeon in the sterile field.
- They pass them instruments, sponges, and equipment.
- Scrubs prepare the OR by setting up equipment, sterile drapes, and solutions and assemble both sterile and non-sterile equipment. Also checking functionality
- Scrubs also help the team don sterile attire, count supplies, prepare/dispose of specimens, and assist surgical dressings.
- Scrubs then disassemble the sterile site, clean-up, and restocks the OR.
Nonsterile Team members
- Nonsterile members perform their duties outside the sterile field
- Nonsterile team members includes the anesthesia provider, the circulating RN, unlicensed assistive personnel, and the OR director/coordinator/manager
- Anesthesia providers maintain the physiological status of the patient through the procedure.
- Anesthesia providers may be anesthesiologists (physicians) or CRNAs (advanced practice RNs) who can work independently or with anesthesiologists.
- Anesthesia providers should be actively aware of the surgeon's actions for patient safety.
- Their specific responsibilities are providing smooth anesthesia induction, ensuring the patient's comfort/relaxation, and maintaining/monitoring the patient's vitals.
- The anesthesia provider has contact with the patient during all surgical phases.
- During the preoperative phase, the anesthesia provider meets with the patient, reviews their history/medications, discusses anesthesia options and plans to manage their health during surgery.
- During the intraoperative phase, the anesthesia provider gives anesthetic agents and carefully monitors patient’s vitals.
- Anesthesia agents can be modified to adjust patient's physical state.
- During the recovery phase, anesthesia is stopped, allowing for metabolism of medications and consciousness to return.
- In the postoperative phase, patients are transferred to a PACU or ICU
- Anesthesia care providers maintain respiratory support, manage pain, and monitor vitals as well as approves movement to postsurgical destination
- Circulating RNs observe the procedure for a broad view, ensuring safety of the patient.
- The circulating RNs responsibilities include initial assessment/therapeutic relationship in the preoperative area
- The circulating RNs also assist the anesthesia provider, assist the surgeon and scrub nurse, anticipate needs for equipment and supplies, ensure specimen labeling/analysis, document data, and count used items.
- Unlicensed assistive personnel work for and are accountable to perioperative RNs performing duties like patient transport and positioning assistance.
- Unlicensed assistive personnel also deliver specimens, obtain blood, obtain equipment, and perform housekeeping duties.
- The OR director/coordinator/manager oversees the business aspect of the OR including budgets, staffing, and maintaining efficiency.
Preoperative Assessment
- Priority assessments are essential to safe surgical experience that include preoperative assessment; surgical pause/fire prevention, arm scrub, surgical attire donned, and surgical count completed
- The preoperative assessment should determine patient knowledge, ensure informed consent, determine anxiety reasons, AND obtain relevant patient details.
- The patients knowledge is defined as the patient’s knowledge of the planned surgery, potential complication and interventions.
- The nurse should provide education as appropriate.
- The preoperative nurse confirms consent for surgery, determines the patient’s preferred name and pronoun, clarifies NPO status, determines drugs taken that morning, checks skin, and assesses family support.
- The nurse records allergy status, details metal implants, validates the patient’s religious or cultural preferences, and records the patient’s health history.
Surgical Pause and Fire Risk Assessment
- The surgical pause/time-out verifies patient safety by ensuring correct patient, procedure, surgeon, position, equipment, imaging studies, and antibiotic use.
- The surgical pause will confirm implants and any laterality. and include a fire risk assessment.
- Fire prevention in the OR is important and needs all members of the surgical team
- Standard interventions to prevent fire includes communicating and assessing fire assessments as well as assessment of flammability of all materials.
- Standard interventions to prevent fire also need notifying when high levels of oxygen used, checking electrical equipment, access to water/saline is there, and all heat sources are protected whe not in use
- The NFPA suggests fire drills and training for hospital staff.
- The Joint Commission developed a universal time out and needs active communication along all members of the team
- The surgical procedure can't progress when any questions exist.
Surgical Scrub and Attire
- Communication is best defined as the meaningful exchange of information between individuals or groups.
- There is a need of effective communication in the perioperative setting in order to keep things safe,
- The Joint commission stated that failure of communication is the root cause of medication safey, delays, and wrong surgeries. it is also seen as the second most root cause of post operative and operative.
- AORN provides updated processes needed for team communication.
- Team communication includes hand-offs from stages of care, timeout or the patient and details. and a brief on work that was done or needs fixed
- A surgical scrub is done in the OR to prevent infections.
- Human hands transmit and act as portal to infections, making the warm moist surroundings a bacterial loving area.
- To prevent this, the OR team has proper hygeine and the hand cleaning rules.
- Nails are short, jewelry off and hands washed very well.
- Surgical scrubs start with basic hand washing then moving area scrubs from clean (hand) to less (arm)
- Scrubbing with powerful solutions for 3-5 mins is adequate to remove microorganisms and potential protection if breakage occur
- Alcohol-based hand washes may be used as well
- Proper attire is needed reduce post opp infections
- Scrub attire is for everyone in a scrubbed or not sterile envoironment
- scrubs are the shirts, pants, or dresses work by nurses staff in the theatre
- sterile gown and gloves is next level only worn when working in sterile state
- Surgical attire covers you in gloves, cap, masks and eyewear.
Anesthesia
- Anesthesia means "lack of or no sensation", is needed to complete surgeries performed today
- With Anesthesia you can depress the body's reflexes, relaxs mussels, and change physiological factors
- The American Society of Anesthesiologist (ASA) assess the patient's risks before the operation.
Surgical Atire components
- Caps & masks are paper and never reused
- Gloves protect from bacteria but aren't substitute to washing
- Masks protect against coughs splatters. and always change when touch a patient
- Eye protection is also required from liquid threats
- Gowns are made of materials to protect cross contamination and exposure blood
Types of Anesthesia
- Anesthesia includes general, regional, local agent and monitored anesthesia care
- General Anesthesia is to "put to sleep" to reverse the conscious. Provides of all goals
- Involves; inhalation of gases, IV agents and relaxation to the mussels
- Some instances you wont need total relaxing or air support during the procedure
General Anesthesia - Volatile Agents
- gases includes ; isoflurane, sevoflurane, desflurane, and nitrous oxide.
- Gases helps achieve great effects but only known for the time it takes to see a effect
General Anesthesia - Intravenous Agents
- includes Barbiturates, Benzodiazepines, Opioids, Propofol, Ketamine, and Sedative-hypnotics
- Barbiturates depresses the body's central system,
- Benzodiazepines increases receptors GABA to help make patient numb. longer to take effect though
- Opioids help bind muscles receptors to produce the same affect. May slow down breathing
- Propofol works and wears off to quickly. Helps memory loss but not pain. Always pair it with analgesics
- Ketamine gives you dissociated from you body but not asleep. Hallucinations can be common, its great for pain and sedative
General Anesthesia - Muscle relaxants
- Relax mussels happens using depolarizing and nondepolarizing agent's.
- Succinylcholine helps block the the the joining sites so it can be relaxed. Adverse effects includes malignant hyperthermia (MH)
- Nondepolarizing agents help cause with muscles but not depolarizing it's effects.
- Can be reversed only before protection is withdrawn. and may cause bradycardia
##Commonly Used Anesthetics
- A vast array of options include Propofol, Opioid Analgesics, Dexmedetomidine, Etomidate, Ketamine, and Diazepam
Commonly Used Anesthetics - Depolarizing Muscle Relaxants
- Help with airway and has a short window and works fast. May can cause malignant hyperthermia. Succinylcholine is a drug that helps
Commonly Used Anesthetics Nondepolarizing Muscle Relaxants
- With the usage of drugs such as Vecuronium, Cisatracurium and Rocuronium to help keep a patient relaxed,
- Always ensure the patient well being.
Cholinergic Agent
Helps reverse the process of paralyzed agents with help of Neostigmine.
- May need either atropine or glycopyrrolate as well
- Anesthesia is sequenced using an sequence 1st induction 2nd placement of tube 3rd maintenance of tube 4ths emergence from patient wakingup/ 5th recovery. Anesthesia also have problems to watch that have effect patient's
- Complications such as Hypoxia, Dysfunction, Hypotension. Imbalances, Paralysis and problems inside
Malignant hyperthermia (MH)
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This is a state that is caused by exposure it's a genetics effects volatile's. That increases muscular contractions by an elevated intracellular.
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Is needed cooling and muscle contraction as well as cooling the patient. It should be near treated and diagnosed.
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It effects can be genetic but only in rare conditions
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Always warn patients when history of problems with anesthesia
Regional Anesthesia
- Blocks or numbs nerves or fiber of with blocks on the body such as blocks epidural Caudal and nerves
Spinal medication:
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Is medication is needed to do through canal of the spinal cord.
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Continuous spinal it needs the bed's flat after the help prevent the patient from headaches
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medication is injected into the epidural space of lumbar. to continuous effects
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Caudal is the medication inject to the epidural space
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a nerve blockers help the body can perform surgery
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Untoward effects, blood press can drop, spinal cord headaches and sezuires may happened due to meds
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Nerve problems/abscess are rare
Anesthetics:
Caused blockages that inhibits and causes motor problems to arise, and over usage/allergic problems to develop, itching and hives to arise
- amide are most local.
- Lidocaine needs to fast and needs to last 120/60 min, the most common
is Bupivacaine that lasts for 4-8 hrs that and slow and can cause postoperative Both can helps blood control in that procedure. esters:
- cocaine has a long effects for nasal it constricts the body
- care (MAC):
Gives patient a more relaxed state with more control. Some benefits include more response with less pain, and quick safe feeling. diazepam, midazolam, and narcotics, such as fentanyl and meperidine is used in conjunction with MAC Always be mindful around awake patients
Airway Management
protects or ensures the processs to breaths during a procedure, is helpful to make sure oxygen is ok The compromise complications are reflexive contractions, too much tube passes carina, perforated, Aspirations from other fluids includes facemask, or inserting it to the patients LMA: great for patient whom needs assistance with undergoing for brief surgeries and doesnt need any paralyzing.
tube: Helps when you are putting air in through carina to block aspirations You can give assistants to work that that needs assistance variations for ETT's is need can used in many areas
Patient positioning helps in the surgical time, patient safety is top. Also helps the surgical people. Patient is at risk so device needs to stop anything bad happening. Team needs to discuss the device and position needed as safety and comfort is the goal to patient and working conditions position: the body can either be in Prone, Lithotomy , Lateral, Supine. But is needed the right aid Rules has the patient to top is. Device helps to the top is is needed Body contact to to non padded as well. And slow movements. Check and baseline what is there
Surgical Positions - Supine
pressure points for the the is Occiput/ scuplar,. vertebrae. Olecrano,, Sacrum arms need to be less that 90 degrees. with no crossed ankles The team can use Trendelenburg, Reverse Trendelenburg, to help the patients as well help any problem is is see
Surgical Positions - Prone
pressure point are the cheeks eyes/ Toes use and pillow pads help protect from those pressures
- The team needs to check for the patient as it goes along as we can protect the patients
Surgical Positions - Lithotomy
Is needs that Hip Dislocations , back muscle as a result And any thing more than 2hours is is needed. The buttocks cannot hang off the end.
Patients factors/High risk
that geriatric patients that can be damaged due to pressure and moisture. As well any immature systems,
nursing list
helps to determine what is needed: such as assess , action and teaching. signed consent as things needs to get signed and read.
actions always needs help such as the surgical part. and the and equipment, and the ground. patient always safe Teaching the patient what there doing and ask. helps a lot. to help the operative state
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