V1 Yellow Questions PDF

Answers: https://docs.google.com/document/d/1ce0dPDDEJZa0pnl7LGd9M3DPS4gdOtKcXtwQbeb MpeI/edit?tab=t.0 1. Match the Clinical Course Happening During Chickenpox (Some Choices: 1 to 3 weeks | Include symptoms such as N/V, headache, myalgia, loss of appetite, fever, and malaise | 1 to 2 days before th...

Answers: https://docs.google.com/document/d/1ce0dPDDEJZa0pnl7LGd9M3DPS4gdOtKcXtwQbeb MpeI/edit?tab=t.0 1. Match the Clinical Course Happening During Chickenpox (Some Choices: 1 to 3 weeks | Include symptoms such as N/V, headache, myalgia, loss of appetite, fever, and malaise | 1 to 2 days before the rash appears until all vesicles have dried or crusted | may present as (shingles) i. Incubation Period ii. Prodroma Period iii. Infectious Period iv. Reactivation Period 2. Match the Clinical Course Happening During Chickenpox (Some Choices: 10 days | May present as fever, URTI (upper respiratory tract infection - catarrhal phase) symptoms, conjunctivitis, and Koplik’s spots | Highest during late prodromal period | may involve pneumonia, encephalitis, and otitis media (infection of middle ear) i. Incubation Period ii. Prodroma Period iii. Infectious Period iv. Complications 3. Difference of Chickenpox and Measles i. Presence of Koplik's spots ii. Tiny vesicles (small blisters) surrounded by reddened area iii. Disseminated flat erythematous rash iv. Involves Gl and respiratory symptoms v. Appears mainly on the trunk rather than the face and limbs vi. Associated with the following rash seqelae: anterior scalp line and behind the ears, then face, then trunk, then extremities 4. Identify which red flags for referral for chickenpox and measles are being indicated by the following: (Choices: Bacterial superinfection, Measles, Dehydration, Cellulitis) i. High temperature, pain, and redness around lesions ii. Requires immediate referral and notification iii. Reduced urine output, lethargy, and reduced skin turgor iv. Erythematous rash or ulceration on the lower leg or ankles in an elderly person 5. Which of the following is the MOST important lifestyle advice for people who have not yet contracted chickenpox or measles? a. Vaccination b. Exclusion from nursery or school c. Wear smooth cotton fabrics to minimize skin invitation d. Ensure adequate fluid intake 6. How would you BEST recommend the uptake of measles vaccine? a. Give at the age of 9 months, subcutaneously b. Given at the age of 12 months, then 4 years old, intravenously c. Given at the age of 12 months, then 4 years old, subcutaneously d. Given at the age of 12 months subcutaneously 7. identify whether the following recommendations are appropriate or not. (Choices: Appropriate or Inappropriate) i. Ibuprofen in patients with chickenpox ii. Aspirin in adults with chickenpox iii. Promethazine 25mg HS in a 3 y/o patient with chickenpox complaining of severe itchiness iv. Addition of 1% menthol to Topical Calamine Lotion for fever 8. How can impetigo and cold sores be differentiated from each other? (Some Choices: Cold Sores, Non-bullous impetigo, Bullous Impetigo) i. Lesions may be seen on nerve innervations of the trigeminal nerve ii. Vesicles which rapidly break down to form golden crusts on face or extremities iii. Prodrome of itching, burning pain, or tingling symptoms hours to days prior to vesicle eruption iv. Flaccid fluid-filled bullae whcih ruptures to form crust on the trunk area 9. Identify which red flags for referral for impetigo and cold sores are being indicated by the following: (Some choices: Widespread herpetiform eczema, Possible infection, May indicate sycosis harbo) i. Patient suffering from atopic eczema who has come into contact with an active cold sore ii. Skin lesions accompanied by fever and malaise iii. Papular rash, with or without vesicles and crusting, In the beard area of men 10. Which of the following pharmacy product would you BEST recommend to a patient with history of cold sores? a. Face mask b. Sunblock c. Face shield d. Nail File 11. Which of the following would you BEST recommend to a patient with localized non-bullous impetigo? a. 1% Hydrogen Peroxide Cream b. Antibiotics c. Aciclovir 5% Cream d. Phenol 12. How should you counsel on the proper use of aciclovir cream for cold sores? a. May be continued for up to 30 days if healing has not occurred b. Minimum day of administration must be at least 3 days c. Must be applied OD d. Should be used as soon as symptoms exist 13. How can threadworm and roundworm be differentiated from each other? (Choice: Threadworm or Roundworm) i. May present as vague abdominal pain, N/V, diarrhea or bloody stools ii. May present as persistent cough, SOB, wheezing iii. Night-time perianal itching iv. Patient is a pre-school child 14. Identify which of the following is TRUE regarding use of Mebendazole in threadworms: a. Strict personal hygiene is complementary to pharmacological treatment b. Should only be given to the patient and not the family members c. Death of worms expected after 3 hours of use of Mebendazole d. Two tablets of 100mg should be given as the initial dose e. Repeat dose 14 days later often recommended to ensure complete eradication 15. Which of the following is TRUE about acute pain? a. Circular in nature b. Treatment include short-term symptomatic relief using NSAIDs and opiates c. Pests for 3 months d. Adjuvants such as anticonvulsants, benzodiazepines are used in the management 16. Identify the type of pain for the following situations encountered in the pharmacy. (Some Choices Choices: Visceral pain, Neuropathic pain, Superficial somatic pain, Musculoskeletal path, Deep somatic pain) i. Phantom pain ii. Postherpetic neuralgia iii. Acute MI iv. Superficial burns v. Arthritis vi. Statin-induced myopathy vii. Post-operative pain 17. Identify the BEST oral analgesic for the following conditions: Choice: Ibuprofen or Naproxen i. Back pain ii. Tension headache iii. Pain and fever in children iv. Dysmenorrhea v. Dental pain 18. Identify whether the following statements is TRUE or FALSE regarding oral analgesics: a. Naproxen is more potent vs ibuprofen b. Ibuprofen max daily dose for adults is 4000mg c. Aspirin has more side effects vs ibuprofen d. Diclofenac can be used for up to 10 days e. Naproxen has less side effects vs ibuprofen f. In a pregnant woman, paracetamol is safe to use 19. Which of the following is the MOST common side effect of codeine-containing combination analgesics? a. Diarrhea b. Headache c. Hepatotoxicity d. Constipation 20. Which of the following is the BEST option for topical analgesics? a. Capsaicin b. Ketoprofen c. Camphor d. Salicylic acid e. Menthol 21. Which type of headache is likely present in a patient with unilateral pain around the eye with abrupt onset? [select all that apply] a. Migraine headache b. TTH c. Cluster headache 22. Who among the following patients presenting with headache is MOST likely showing symptoms of meningitis? [select all that apply] a. 65 y/o elderly with new and severe headache b. Patient who had recent trauma injury c. 6 y/o child who has a stiff neck or skin rash 23. Which of the following could BEST be recommended to a patient with newly-diagnosed migraine? a. Naproxen b. Inhaled oxygen c. Paracetamol d. Sumatriptan 24. Arrange the steps when consulting with an active smoker. a. Assist in quit attempt b. Ask about tobacco use  c. Arrange follow up d. Advise to quit e. Assess willingness to make a quit attempt 25. Who among the following are candidates for NRT? [select all that apply] a. Breastfeeding mother b. Light smoker (2 sticks per day) c. Pregnant patient d. Smokeless tobacco user e. Patient aged 14 y/o f. Heavy smoker (22 sticks per day) 26. Which of the following is TRUE regarding oral NRT? [select all that apply] a. Safe in patients with heart problems like arrhythmia b. Require OD dosing c. Orange juice may be used anytime while on oral NRT d. Ideal for patients requiring oral gratification 27. Which of the following type of insomnia is likely to be caused by substance abuse? [select all that apply a. Transient b. Chronic c. Short-term 28. Which of the following is the first-line therapy for insomnia? a. Zolpidem b. Diphenhydramine c. CBTI d. Melatonin 29. A patient is taking a diuretic for his heart failure. How would you BEST recommend its administration to avoid insomnia? a. Take dose after dinner b. Take dose before bedtime c. Take dose in the afternoon d. Take dose in the morning 30. Which of the following could be advised to a patient with insomnia? [select all that apply] a. Go to bed if sleepy or not b. Place a playstation in the bedroom for relaxation c. Nap during daytime d. Avoid blue spectrum light from TV when preparing to sleep 31. A patient on CBTI is also currently taking Diphenhydramine for insomnia. How long would you BEST recommend its use? a. It can be used indefinitely as an adjuvant to CBTI b. NMT 10 days c. NMT 3 months d. NMT 1 month 32. Identify the likely conditions that may present as N/V with the following: (Choice: Gastritis, Pregnancy, Appendicitis, Dizziness and tinnitus, Meniere's Disease) i. Vomiting 1 hour after eating food ii. Recent moderate alcohol intake iii. Early morning vomiting iv. Abdominal pain v. Peptic ulcer 33. Which among the following is the MOST common cause of medicine-induced N/V? a. Aspirin b. Ferrous sulfate c. Potassium chloride d. Digoxin 34. Which of the following could BEST be given to a patient with N/V which started 10 hours ago? a. Oral Prochlorperazine b. Injectable Prochlorperazine c. None of the choices d. Domperidone 35. When should Domperidone BEST be taken? a. At bedtime b. After meals c. Anytime d. Before meals 36. Which advice would you give to a patient with a history of motion sickness who will be riding a plane for the first time? [select all that apply] a. Sit over the wing b. Sit in the front c. Sit at the back d. Discourage travel 37. Where is the accupressure point to prevent nausea? a. Temple area of the head b. Lateral side of thumb  c. Three fingers below the acromion process d. Center of wrist, 3 fingers from crease to wrist 38. Which antihistamine would you BEST recommend to a patient with motion sickness who will be travelling for 16 hours via ship wha would want to remain awake during transit? a. Cinnarizine b. Promethazine c. Meclizine d. Hyoscine Hydrobromide 39. When should antihistamines for motion sickness be taken? [select all that apply] a. Before exposure to motion b. Can be taken anytime c. After exposure to motion d. During exposure to motion 40. Identify which red flags for referral for acute low back pain are being indicated by the following: (Choices: Possible sinister pathology, Cauda equina syndrome, sciatica, Infection) a. With numbness b. With bowel or bladder incontinence c. Pain that radiates away from lower back area d. With fever 41. Which of the following lifestyle advice is applicable for acute low back pain? [select all that apply] a. Acupuncture massage b. Cold therapy c. Bed rest d. Exercise programs e. Heat wrap therapy 42. Which of the following adjuvant therapy may be used for osteoarthritis-associated low back pain? [select all that apply! a. Hyaluronidase b. Heparinoid c. Glucosamine d. Capsaicin 43. Identify the soft tissue injury beg referred to by the following. (Choice: Achilles Tendon Injuries, Tennis Elbow, Rotator Cuff Syndrome, Chondromalacia, Thigh Strains) i. Pain usually felt behind the heel, just above the calcaneus ii. Pain and tenderness felt over outer aspect of the elbow joint that might also spread up the upper arm iii. Rubbing of the combined tendons of the scapula muscles  iv. Pain is experienced usually at the front of the knee or behind the kneecap v. Tears of the quadriceps and hamstring 44. Match the function/description of each of the component of RICE therapy for soft tissue injuries: (Choice: Allows immobilization, enhan, Should be applied whilst the, Use of crepe bandage and tul, Helps fluid drain away from) i. Rest ii. Ice iii. Compression iv. Elevation 45. A Filipino patient has a BMI of 23.5. What is its classification according to the WHO BMI for Asians? a. Underweight b. Overweight c. Normal d. Obese 46. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to an obese patient who would like to lose weight? a. Diet and exercise b. Orlistat c. Diet only d. Senna 47. Which of the following is a realistic short-term weight loss goal for an obese patient? a. Weight loss of 2kg per month b. Weight loss of 10kg per month c. Weight loss of 10% of body weight 48. Identify which of the following is TRUE regarding use of Orlistat for weight loss: a. Should be taken with a mildly hypocaloric, lower-fat diet b. May reduce absorption of Vitamin D c. Discontinue use if weight loss is not achieved after 12 weeks d. Must be taken if there is not fat in the meal of the patient e. Severity of Gl side effects decrease with an increase in fat content in diet 49. Identify how should the following be examined: (Choice: Gently pull down the lower li, Ask patient to read small print, Apply pressure to the area be, Pulling down the lobule, bleeding of gums) i. Conjunctiva ii. Visual Activity iii. Mastoiditis iv. Ear canal  v. Periodontal disease 50. Differentiate the types of conjunctivitis (Choice: Bacterial, Allergic, Viral) i. Has purulent discharge ii. Has itching feeling iii. Redness is generalized and diffused iv. Associated with coughs and colds v. Associated with family history of atopy 51. Identify the possible reasons for referring the following to a physician: (Some Choices: Suggest glaucoma | requires removal of foreign body | scleritis, keratitis, acute glaucoma | may suggest sinister pathology) i. Clouding of cornea ii. Redness caused by a foreign body iii. Photophobia iv. True eye pain 52. Which of the following is an appropriate lifestyle advice to a patient with conjunctivitis? [select all that apply] a. Expose patient to allergens for desensitization b. Bathe the eyelids with hot water c. Used tissues should be used to wipe the eyes d. Avoid wearing contact lenses until symptoms have resolved 53. Identify the BEST recommendation for the following: (Some Choices: Chloramphenicol eye drops, Intraocular sodium cromoglic, Tetrahydrozoline, Strict hygiene measures, Antaroline) i. Bacterial conjunctivitis ii. Viral conjunctivitis iii. Allergic conjunctivitis with eye redness iv. Allergic conjunctivitis prophylaxis v. Allergic conjunctivitis with ocular symptoms 54. Identify which of the following statements is TRUE or FALSE a. Chloramphenicol eye ointment must be stored in fridge b. Opened chloramphenicol eye drops may be used again after 1 month c. Patients using both chloramphenicol eye drops and ointment must apply the former first, before the latter d. Chloramphenicol eye drops may be used for a maximum of 5 days duration e. Patients on chloramphenicol already do not require strict hygiene measures 55. Identify the possible reasons for referring the following to a physician: (Choice: Suggests ectropion, Suggests Sjogren's Syndrome, Suggests Bell's Palsy) i. Outward turning of lower eyelid ii. Associated dryness of mouth and other mucous membranes  iii. Unilateral facial paralysis, often with sudden onset 56. Which of the following may cause medicine-induced dry eyes? [select all that apply] a. Tricyclic antidepressants b. Beta-blockers c. Isotretinoin 57. Which of the following would be the BEST basis for selecting the appropriate artificial tears for a patient with dry eyes? a. Patient preference b. Relative cost c. Relative safety d. Relative efficacy 58. Identify which artificial tear formulation is being referred to by the following: (Some Choice: Hypromellose 2% Eye Drops, Carbomer 940, Tears Naturale, PVA 14%, ??) i. May cause crusting and bluing of vision ii. Has evidence of being better tolerated vs PVA iii. Has same surface tension as normal tears for optimal wetting characteristics iv. Uses Dextran 70 as fluid volume expander v. Contains hyaluronate 59. Identify the possible reasons for referring the following to a physician: (Choice: May suggest orbital cellulitis, Suggests entropion, Suggests ectropion, Possibly carcinoma) i. Patient with swollen eyelids and associated feelings of being unwell ii. Inward turning of lower eyelid iii. Outward turning of lower eyelid iv. Middle aged/elderly patient with painless nodular lesion on or near eyelid 60. Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation a patient with blepharitis or stye? a. Dibromopropamidine isethionate ointment b. Artificial tears c. Conservative treatment d. Fusidic acid gel 61. Which of the following is a component of good lid hygiene? [select all that apply a. Use of 1:1 baby shampoo and water solution for wiping eve discharge b. Use of cold compress 3 to 5 times a day c. Avoid squeezing of stye 62. Identify the possible extent of ear part affected with the following signs and symptoms: (Some Choice: External middle, or inner ear | External or middle ear | Inner ear | Middle or inner ear) a. Presents with itch  b. Presents with discharge c. Presents with tinnitus d. Presents with deafness 63. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to an adult presenting with earache? a. Use choline salicylate b. Use oral analgesic for up to 2 days c. Always refer this type of cases d. Increase dose of oral analgesic if earache persists after 1 day of use 64. Identify the possible reasons for referring the following to a physician. (Choice: Requires further investigation, Possible middle ear infection) i. Associated trauma-related conductive deafness ii. Fever and general malaise in children 65. Identify which of the following statements is TRUE or FALSE: a. Docusate is the most effective cerumenolytic b. Cerumenolytics are better supplied if the patient has already seen a doctor c. Cotton wool plug must be placed after instillation of hydrogen peroxide on to the affected ear d. Docusate Sodium 0.5% Ear Drops must be used on the affected ear for not more than 2 consecutive nights 66. Which of the following is an appropriate lifestyle advice for a patient with otitis externa? [select all that apply] a. Silicone rubber earplugs for swimmers b. Placing a cotton wool coated in Vaseline on the inner ear c. Avoid use of cotton buds to poke ear canal 67. Which of the following is an appropriate recommendation for teething infants? [select all that apply) a. Use frozen and hard teething toy b. Administer paracetamol tablets c. Let baby chew on a cool washcloth 68. Identify which type of mouth uler is being referred to by the following: (Some Choices: Herpetiform ulcer, MAU, Trauma-induced ulcer, Leukoplakia) i. Occurs singly or in small crops of up to 5 ulcers ii. Ulcers located toward the back of the mouth iii. Irregularly-shaped ulcers iv. Painless ulcer 69. Identify which of the following statements is TRUE or FALSE: a. Choline salicylate has analgesic affect in MAU  b. It is better to use alcohol-containing chlorhexidine mouthwash for MAU c. Teeth discoloration caused by chlorhexidine mouthwash is irreversible d. If stinging occurs with benzydamine solution, discontinue use 70. Which of the following patients may likely present with medicine-induced oral thrush? [select all that apply] a. Asthma patient using budesonide inhaler b. Hypertensive patient using amlodipine c. Dyslipidemia patient using statin d. DM patient using metformin 71. How would relapse and reinfection with oral thrush be prevented with the use of miconazole? a. Minimize contact of gel with the mouth surface b. Use before meals c. Continue treatment for up to 2 days after symptoms have cleared d. Increase dose to every 4 hours 72. Which of the following is an appropriate lifestyle advice for prevention of gingivitis? [select all that apply] a. Regular and proper dental flossing b. Overzealous toothbrushing c. Use of toothpaste containing 1000ppm fluoride in children