RCC 02 QP PDF

Mark 720 Group Target NEET-2023-24 (Round-I) PCB Vijaypath Test Series-Test : 02(38) Physics - 50 Chemistry - 50 Question Booklet Version P-11 Roll Number Date : 11/02/2024 Time : 03 Hrs. 20 Mins. Biology - 100 Question Booklet Sr. No. (Write this number on your Answer Sheet) PHYSICS Section : A 1....

Mark 720 Group Target NEET-2023-24 (Round-I) PCB Vijaypath Test Series-Test : 02(38) Physics - 50 Chemistry - 50 Question Booklet Version P-11 Roll Number Date : 11/02/2024 Time : 03 Hrs. 20 Mins. Biology - 100 Question Booklet Sr. No. (Write this number on your Answer Sheet) PHYSICS Section : A 1. A point traversed 3/4th of circle of radius R in time t. The magnitude of average velocity of particle in this time interval is [ NCERT Page-42] 1) 2. R t 2) R 2 3) 4) t An object is moving in 3R 2t R 2t a straight line, according to the curve given in the graph, x(m) = t 2. Find the average velocity for the interval t = 1 s to t = 3 s. [ NCERT Page-42] 1) 9 m/s 2) 4 m/s 3) 4.5 m/s 4) 1.5 m/s PCB TEST : 02(38) RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC Today’s Test Syllabus Physics : Motion In A Straight Line + Motion In A Plane Chemistry : Structure of Atom Biology : The Living World + Cell : The Unit of Life Next Test Syllabus Date : 13/02/2024 Physics : Kinetic Theory of Gases + Thermodynamics + Heat Transfer Chemistry : Chemical Bonding Biology : PLant Kingdom + Breathing and Exchange of Gases 1 3. Two cars A and B, start from x = 0 and x = –4, respectively, along a straight line, and their position is given by xA = t2 – 3t and xB = t – 4. At what time they cross each other? [ NCERT Page-52] 4. 1) 3 s 2) 4 s 3) 2 s 4) 1 s Assertion : The displacement of a body may be zero when distance travelled by it is not zero. Reason : The displacement is the longest distance between initial & final positions. [ NCERT Page-40] 1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. 2) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. 3) If assertion is true, but reason is false. 4) If assertion is false, but reason is true. Date : 09/12/2023 I. Average speed = |Average velocity| II. Instantaneous speed = |Instantaneous velocity| III. Instantaneous speed = Average speed 1) Only I is correct 2) Only II is correct 3) Only I and III are correct 4) All are correct 6. Velocity-time graph for a particle is shown in figure. Starting from t = 0, at what instant t, average acceleration is zero between 0 to t? [ NCERT Page-45] 1) 1 s 2) 3.5 s 3) 6.3 s 7. 4) 7.3 s 6t2 If velocity v = + 2t + 3 m/s, then find the average velocity from t = 0 to t = 1 s. [ NCERT Page-42] 8. 1) 11 m/s 2) 8 m/s 3) 6 m/s 4) 7 m/s A train starts to move from rest at t = 0. Its acceleration is a = t + t 2, here  and  are constants. The velocity of the train at t = 1 s is [ NCERT Page-45]    2 3 1)  +  2) 3) 0 4)  RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11 5. If a particle is moving with uniform velocity, then [ NCERT Page-43] 9. A particle moves a distance x in time t according to equation x = (t + 5)–1. The accelerationof the particle is proportional to [ NCERT Page-45] 2/3 1) (velocity) 2) (velocity)3/2 3) (distance)2 4) (distance)–2 10. A constant acceleration acts for 20 s on a particle, starting from rest. If the particle covers distance d1 in the first 10 s and distance d2 in the next 10 s, then [ NCERT Page-50] 1) d2  d1 2 3) d2  3d1 2) d2  d1 4) d2  2d1 11. A particle moves along x-axis in such a way that its x-coordinate varies with time according to the equation x = 8 – 4t + 6t2. The distance covered by particle between t = 0 to t = 2/3 sec is 1) Zero 2) 8 m 3 4 m 3 12. At x = 0, velocity of the particle is 2 m/s. Find the velocity of the particle when acceleration becomes zero. [ NCERT Page-46] 3) 8 m 4) 1) 24.8 m/s 2) 28.2 m/s 3) 32 m/s 4) 18.4 m/s Space For Rough Work PCB TEST : 02(38) 2 Date : 09/12/2023 an object moving along x-axis is given. Select the correct statement regarding it. (I) In OA region, both v and a are positive. (II) In AB region, both v and a are zero. (III) In region BCD, both v and a are negative. (IV) In region DE, v is negative and acceleration is positive. [ NCERT Page-44, 45] 1) (I) and (III) 2) (I) and (IV) 3) (III) and (IV) 4) (I) and (II) 14. Assertion : Magnitude of average velocity is equal to average speed if velocity is uniform. Reason : If velocity is uniform, then there is no change in the direction of motion. [ NCERT Page-42] 1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. 2) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. 3) If assertion is true, but reason is false. 4) If assertion is false, but reason is true. 15. Initially, bus A is 112.5 m ahead of bus B. Both start moving at time t = 0 in the same direction along a straight line. The velocity-time graph of the two cars is shown in the figure. The time when the bus B will catch the bus A, will be [ NCERT Page-44] 1) 45 s 2) 22.5 s 3) 32 s 4) 18 s RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11 13. Displacement-time graph of 16. Two trains each travelling with a speed of 37.5 km/h are approaching each other on the same straight track. A bird that can fly at 60 km/h flies off from one train when they are 90 km apart and heads directly for the other train. On reaching the other train it flies back to the first and so on. Total distance covered by the bird is [ NCERT Page-51] 1) 90 km 2) 54 km 3) 36 km 4) 72 km 17. From a tower of height H, a particle is thrown vertically upwards with speed u. The time taken by the particle to hit the ground is n times the time taken to reach the highest point of its path. The relation between H, u and n is [ NCERT Page-48] 1) 2gH  n2 u2 2) gH  (n  2)2 u2 3) 2 gH  nu2 (n  2) 4) gH  (n  2)u2 18. A ball is dropped from a bridge, 125 m above a river. Two second later, another ball is thrown straight down. What must be the initial velocity of the second ball so that both hit the water surface simultaneously? [ NCERT Page-48] 1) 26.66 m/s 2) 66.26 m/s 3) 43.5 m/s 4) 5 m/s 19. A train of 150 m in length is going towards the north direction at a speed of 10 ms –1. A parrot flies at a speed of 5 ms–1 towards the south direction parallel to the railway track. The time taken by the parrot to cross the train is equal to [ NCERT Page-51] 1) 12 s 2) 8 s 3) 15 s 4) 10 s Space For Rough Work PCB TEST : 02(38) 3 Date : 09/12/2023 20. Match the Columns. [ NCERT Page-46] Column-I Column-II Acceleration is a. decreasing with p. time b. c. d. Non-uniform motion Uniform retardation Velocity constant 1) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s q. r. s. 2) a-r, b-p, c-q, d-s 3) a-s, b-r, c-p, d-q 4) a-q, b-s, c-p, d-r  21. Initial velocity of a projectile is u  (4iˆ  3 jˆ) m/s and it is moving with uniform acceleration of  a  (0.4 iˆ  0.3 jˆ ) m/s 2. The magnitude of its velocity after 10 s is [ NCERT Page-47] 1) 3 m/s 2) 4 m/s 3) 5 m/s 4) 10 m/s RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11 22. A ball is dropped from a building of height 45 m. Simultaneously another ball is thrown up with a speed 40 m/s. The relative speed of the balls as a function of time can be shown as [ NCERT Page-52] 1) 2) 3) 4) 23. Rain is falling vertically downward with a speed of 9 m/s. After sometime, wind starts blowing horizontally with speed 3 3 m/s from south to north. In order to protect himself from rain, a man standing on the ground should hold his umbrella at an angle [ NCERT Page-69] 1)  = 30° with vertical towards south 2)  = 30° with vertical towards north 3)  = 60° with vertical towards south 4)  = 60° with vertial towards north 24. A river is flowing with a speed of 1 km/hr. A swimmer wants to go to point C standing from A. He swims with a speed of 5 km/hr, at anlge  w.r.t. the river. If AB = BC = 400 m. Then [ NCERT Page-86] 1) the value of  is 53° 2) time taken by the man is 4 min 3) time taken by the man is 8 min 4) the value of  is 45° Space For Rough Work PCB TEST : 02(38) 4 Date : 09/12/2023 1) Projectile A 2) Projectile B 3) Projectile C 4) All three projectiles spend the same amount of time in the air 26. A ball rolls horizontally off a stair case with initial velocity u & just manages to hit the 10th step is shown. If length of each step is 20 cm and height is 10 cm, the initial velocity of the ball is (g = 10 m/s2) [ NCERT Page-79] 1) 2 5 m/s 2) 3 2 m/s 3) 2 3 m/s 4) 5 2 m/s 27. A body is thrown horizontally with a velocity 2gh from the top of a tower of height h. It strikes the ground of the tower at a distance x from the tower. The value of x is [ NCERT Page-78] 1) h 2) h / 2 3) 2h 4) 3h / 4 RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11 25. The paths of three projectiles are shown in the figure. Which projectile spends the most time in air? [ NCERT Page-76] 28. Assertion : A river is flowing from east to west at a speed of 5 m/min. A man on the south bank of river, capable of swimming 10 m/min in still water, wants to swim across the river in shortest time. He should swim due north. [ NCERT Page-86] Reason : For the shortest time, the man needs to swim perpendicular to the bank. 1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. 2) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. 3) If assertion is true, but reason is false. 4) If assertion is false, but reason is true. 29. A body of mass m is projected at an angle of 45° with the horizontal. If air resistance is negligible, then total change in momentum when it strikes the ground is [ NCERT Page-78] 1) 2mv 2) 3) mv 4) mv / 2 2 mv 30. The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is half of its initial speed. The angle of projection is [ NCERT Page-78] 1) 15° 2) 30° 3) 45° 4) 60° 31. A missile is fired from maximum range with an initial velocity of 20 m/s. If g = 10 m/s2, the range of the missile is [ NCERT Page-78] 1) 40 m 2) 50 m 3) 60 m 4) 20 m Space For Rough Work PCB TEST : 02(38) 5 Date : 09/12/2023 (2iˆ  3 ˆj ) m/s. Its velocity (in m/s) at point B is [ NCERT Page-78] 1) 2iˆ  3 ˆj 2) 2iˆ  3 ˆj 3) 2iˆ  3 ˆj 4) 2iˆ  3 ˆj 34. A ball is projected from the ground with velocity v such that its range is maximum. [ NCERT Page-78] 1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i 2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv 3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii 35. The velocity of a particle is given by v  180  16 x m/s. Its acceleration will be [ NCERT Page-48] 2 1) –8 m/s 3) –9 m/s 2 2) 5 m/s2 4) 10 m/s 2 RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11 32. The horizontal range and the maximum height of a projectile are equal. The angle of projection of the projectile is [ NCERT Page-78] 1)  = tan–1(2) 2)  = 45° 3)  = tan–1(1/4) 4)  = tan–1(4) 33. The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is Section : B 36. If R and h represent the horizontal range and maximum height, respectively, of an oblique projection; whose starting point (i.e. point of projection) and the end point of projection lie in the same horizonal level. Then, R2  2h 8h represents [ NCERT Page-78] 1) the maximum horizontal range 2) the maximum vertical range 3) time of flight 4) velocity of projectile at the highest point 37. A projectile is fired at an angle of 45° with the horizonal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its highest point, as seen from the point of projection, is [ NCERT Page-78] 1) 45° 2) 60°  3 1 3) tan 1   4) tan 1    2  2   38. Assertion : When the velocity of projection of a body is made n times, its time of flight becomes n times. Reason : Time of flight does not depend on velocity of projection. [ NCERT Page-78] 1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. 2) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. 3) If assertion is true, but reason is false. 4) If assertion is false, but reason is true. 39. Raindrops are falling vertically with a velocity 10 m/s. To a cyclist moving on a straight road, the rain drops appear to be coming with a velocity of 20 m/s. The velocity of cyclist is [ NCERT Page-76] 1) 10 m/s 2) 10 3 m/s 3) 20 m/s 4) 20 3 m/s Space For Rough Work PCB TEST : 02(38) 6 Date : 09/12/2023 40. A particle has initial velocity (3iˆ  4 jˆ ) and has acceleration (0.4iˆ  0.3 jˆ). Its speed after 10 s is 1) 10 units 3) 7 2 units [ NCERT Page-47] 2) 7 units 4) 8.5 units 41. A bird flying with a speed of 10 m/s along a vector (3iˆ  4 jˆ). If initial position of bird is (12 m, 10 m, 5 m), then find the x-coordinate (in m) after the 2 s. [ NCERT Page-47] 1) 1 2) 0 3) 2 4) None of these 42. Two Rajdhani trains, each 50 m long, are travelling in opposite directions with a velocity of 10 m/s and 15 m/s. The time of crossing is [ NCERT Page-51] 1) 2 s 2) 4 s 3) 2 3 s 4) 4 3 s 43. A boy standing at the top of a 20 m high tower drops a stone. Assuming g = 10 m/s 2 , the velocity with which it hits the ground is [ NCERT Page-48] 1) 10.0 m/s 2) 20.0 m/s 3) 40.0 m/s 4) 5.0 m/s 44. A body is falling from height h. It takes t seconds to reach the ground. Calculate the time taken by it to cover the first h/16 height. [ NCERT Page-50] 1) t / 2 2) t / 2 3) t / 4 4) t / 8 45. Water drops come out at regular interval from the water tank at the roof. When the first drop hits ground, third drop comes out of the tank. The height of the second drop from the ground is [Height of tank is H0]. [ NCERT Page-49] 1) 4 H 3 0 2) H0 4 3) 3H 0 4 4) H0 9 RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11 46. Which of the following graph does not represent retardation? [v : velocity, t : time, x : position] [ NCERT Page-46] 1) 2) 3) 4) None of these 47. A particle starting from rest, moves with uniform acceleration and covers x m in the first 5 s. Distance covered by the same particle in the next 5 s is [ NCERT Page-50] 1) x m 2) 2x m 3) 3x m 4) 4x m 48. The motion of a particle along a straight line i s described by equation x = 8 + 12t – t3, where x is in metres and t in seconds. The retardation of the particle when its velocity becomes zero is [ NCERT Page-44, 45] m/s2 1) 6 2) 12 m/s2 2 3) 24 m/s 4) Zero 49. The position of a particle at time t (in seconds) is given by x = (t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4) m. The speed of the particle when its acceleration becomes zero is [ NCERT Page-45] 1) 12 m/s 2) 9 m/s 3) 6 m/s 4) 3 m/s 50. A particle is at position x = 5 m at t = 0 s. If he reaches x = 25 m at t = 5 s, then the average speed of the particle in those 5 seconds [ NCERT Page-42] 1) 2) 3) 4) 4 m/s 5 m/s 6 m/s Cannot be answered without the knowledge of the path Space For Rough Work PCB TEST : 02(38) 7 Date : 09/12/2023 CHEMISTRY SECTION : A 51. The first use of quantum theory to explain the structure of atom was made by [ NCERT Page No. 46] 1) Heisenberg 2) Bohr 3) Planck 4) Einstein 52. Among the following, the energy of 2s orbital lowest in : [ NCERT Page No. 46] 1) K 2) H 3) Li 4) Na 53. The radius of the second Bohr orbit, in terms of the Bohr radius, a0, in Li2+ is : [ NCERT Page No. 47] 1) 2 a0 3 2) 4 a0 9 3) 4 a0 3 4) 2 a0 9 54. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. The energy of second excited state of He+ ion in eV is : [ NCERT Page No. 47] 1) –54.4 2) –3.4 3) –6.04 4) –27.2 55. Which of the following statements is false? [ NCERT Page No. 49] 1) Splitting of spectral lines in electrical field is called Stark effect. 2) Frequency of emitted radiation from a black body goes from a lower wavelength to higher wavelength as the temperature increass 3) Photon has momentum as well as wavelength 4) Rydberg constant has unit of energy RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11 56. In Bohr series of lines of hydrogen spectrum, the third line from the red end corresponds to which one of the following inter-orbit jumps of the electron for Bohr orbits in an atom of hydrogen [ NCERT Page No. 48] 1) 5 2 2) 4 1 3) 2 5 4) 3 2 57. Which of the following combination of statements is true regarding the interpretation of the atomic orbitals? a) An electron in an orbital of high angular momentum stays away from the nucleus than an electron in the orbital of lower angular momentum b) For a given value of the principal quantum number, the size of the orbital is inversely proportional to the azimuthal quantum number c) According to wave mechanics, the ground state angular momentum is equal to h 2 d) The plot of  vs r for various azimuthal quantum numbers, shows peak shifting towards higher r value [ NCERT Page No. 46] 1) (a), (d) 2) (a), (b) 3) (a), (c) 4) (b), (c) 58. If the wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation is increased to thrice the digital value, then what will be the percent change in the value of frequency of the electromagnetic radiation. [ NCERT Page No. 37] 1) Increases by 33% 2) Decreases by 33% 3) Increases by 66% 4) Decreases by 66% Space For Rough Work PCB TEST : 02(38) 8 Date : 09/12/2023 59. Assertion : Black body is an ideal body that emits and absorbs radiations of all frequencies. Reason : The frequency of radiation emitted by a body goes from a lower frequency to higher frequency with an increase in temperature. [ NCERT Page No. 40] 1) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason is a correct explanation for assertion. 2) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason is not a correct explanation for assertion 3) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect 4) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct. 60. The isoelectronic set of ions is 1) N3–, O2–, F– and Na+ 2) N3–, Li+, Mg2+ and O2– 3) F–, Li+, Na+ and Mg2+ 4) Li+, Na+, O2– and F– 61. The Li2+ ion is moving in the third stationary state, and its linear momentum is 7.3 × 10 –34 kgms–1. Angular momentum is [ NCERT Page No. 46] 1) 1.158×10–45kg m2s–1 2) 11.58×10 –48 2 –1 kg m s 3) 11.58×10 –47 kgm2 s –1 4) 12×10–45 kg m2 s –1 RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11 62. Assertion : The position of an electron can be determined exactly with the help of an electron microscope. Reason : The product of uncertainty in the measurement of its momentum and the uncertainty in the measurement of the position cannot be less than a finite limit. [ NCERT Page No. 51] 1) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason is a correct explanation for assertion. 2) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct, Reason is not a correct explanation for assertion 3) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect 4) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct. 63. The number of orbitals associated with quantum numbers n = 5, ms   1 is : 2 [ NCERT Page No. 55] 1) 11 2) 25 3) 50 4) 15 64. In a multi-electron atom, which of the following orbitals described by the three quantum members will have the same energy in the absence of magnetic and electric fields? A) n = 1, l = 0, m = 0 B) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0 C) n = 2, l = 1, m = 1 D) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1 E) n = 3, l = 2, m = 0 [ NCERT Page No. 55] 1) (D) and (E) 2) (C) and (D) 3) (B) and (C) 4) (A) and (B) Space For Rough Work PCB TEST : 02(38) 9 Date : 09/12/2023 65. Which of the fellowing statement concerning probability density ( 2 ) and radial distribution function (4r22) for an s-orbital of H-like species is correct? [ NCERT Page No. 58] 1)  2 is minimum at nucleus but 4r 2  2 is maximum at nucleus 2)  2 is maximum at nucleus but 4r2  2 is minimum at nucleus 3) Both 2 and 4r22 are maximum at nucleus. 4) Both 2 and 4r22 are minimum at nucleus. 66. If the de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of mass m is 100 times its velocity, then its value in terms of its mass (m) and Planck's constant (h) is [ NCERT Page No. 50] 1) 1 m 10 h 2) 10 3) 1 h 10 m 4) h m 1 m 10 h 67. The frequency of radiation emitted when the electron falls from n = 4 to n = 1 in a H-atom will be : (Given ionization energy of H = 2.18 × 10–18 J atom–1 and h = 6.625 × 10–34 Js) [ NCERT Page No. 48] 1) 3.08 × 1015 s–1 2) 2.00 × 1015 s–1 15 –1 3) 1.54 × 10 s 4) 1.03 × 1015 s–1 68. What can be the representation of the orbital having 3 angular nodes and n = 5. [ NCERT Page No. 59] 1) 5d 2) 5f 3) 5p 4) 5s 69. For which element, the valence electron will be present in the hightest energy orbital [ NCERT Page No. 61] 1) 3Li 2) 1 6 S 3) 20 Ca 4) 21 Sc RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11 70. Which of the following is not permissible arrangment of electrons in an atom ? [ NCERT Page No. 55] 1) n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = +1/2 2) n = 3, l = 2, m = 3, s = 1/2 3) n = 3, l = 2, m = 2, s = 1/2 4) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = 1/2 71. What is the difference between two species if one has atomic mass = 14 and atomic number = 7 whereas the other has atomic mass = 14 and atomic number = 6? [ NCERT Page No. 35] 1) Neurtorns 2) Protons 3) Electrons 4) All of these 72. Un ce rt ain ty i n p osit io n o f an el ectr on (mass = 9.1 × 10–28g) moving with a velocity of 3 × 104 cm/s accurate upto 0.001 % will be (use h/4 in uncertainty expression where h=6.626×10–27 erg-second). [ NCERT Page No. 51] 1) 1.93 cm 2) 3.84 cm 3) 5.76 cm 4) 7.68 cm 73. Match the atoms/ions with the characteristics of the electron they contain. [ NCERT Page No. 47] Column I A H Column II p Radius of 4th orbital = 0.53 × 4 Å + B He 2+ C Be D Li3+ q Energy of 2nd orbital = 13.6 eV r Radius of 2nd orbital = 0.53 × 4 Å s Velocity of electron in the 3rd 8 orbit = 2.18 × 10 Å t Energy of 4th orbit = 13.6 eV 1) A-r, B-q, C-p,t, D-s 2) A-r, B-q, C-p, D-t 3) A-r, B-p, C-t, D-s 4) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s Space For Rough Work PCB TEST : 02(38) 10 Date : 09/12/2023 74. Match the series of hydrogen spectrum with their characteristics A B C D Column I Lyman series Balmer series Paschen series Bracket series p q r s Column II Visible region Infrared region Ultraviolet region n 2 = 4 to n2 = 3 t n 2 = 5 to n2 = 1 1) A-p, B-s,t, C-q, D-r 2) A-q, B-s, C-p,t, D-r 3) A-r, t, B-p, C-q,s, D-q 4) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s 75. Match the orbitals the number of nodes/ quantum numbers present in them. [ NCERT Page No. 59] Column I Column II A 2p orbital p Number of spherical nodes = 0 B 3d orbital q Number of nodal plane = 0 C 2s orbital r Orbital angular momentum number = 0 D 4f orbital s Azimuthal quantum number =0 1) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-r, s 2) A-q, B-s, C-p,t, D-r 3) A-r,t, B-p, C-s, D-q 4) A-p, B-p, C-q,r,s, D-p 76. In which of the following options do both constituents of the pair have the same magnetic moment? [ NCERT Page No. 63] 1) Zn2+ and Cu2+ 2) Co2+ and Ni2+ 3) Mn4+ and Co2+ 4) Mg2+ and Sc+ 77. According to Bohr ’s theory, the angular momentum of an electron in 5th orbit is [ NCERT Page No. 46] 1) 2.5 h/ 2) 1.0 h/ 3) 10 h/ 4) mvr = nh RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11 78. Statement I : Hydrogen has one electron in its orbit but it produces several spectral lines Statement II : There are many excited energy levels available. [ NCERT Page No. 46] 1) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1. 2) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation of Statement 1. 3) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False 4) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True 79. The ionization energy of a hydrogen atom in terms of Rydberg constant (RH) is given by the expression. [ NCERT Page No. 48] 1) RHhc 2) RHc 3) 2RHhc 4) RHhcNA 80. The fourth line of the Balmer series corresponds to electron transition between energy levels [ NCERT Page No. 48] 1) 6 and 2 2) 5 and 2 3) 4 and 1 4) 5 and 1 81. Which of the following arrangement of two electrons in two degenerated orbitals is not possible at all? [ NCERT Page No. 62] 1)   2) 3) 4) All of these 82. The number of radial nodes in 3p and 4s orbitals, respectively, are [ NCERT Page No. 59] 1) 1, 3 2) 3, 1 3) 2, 2 4) 3, 1 Space For Rough Work PCB TEST : 02(38) 11 Date : 09/12/2023 83. For which of the species, Bohr’s theory is not applicable ? [ NCERT Page No. 49] 1) Be 3+ 3) He 2) Li 2+ 2+ 4) H 84. The triad of nuclei that is isotonic is 1) 14 6 C, 157 N, 179 F, 2) 12 6 C, 147 N, 199 F, 3) 14 6 C, 147 N, 179 F, 4) 14 6 C, 147 N, 199 F, 85. The outermost electronic configuration of the most electronegative element is [ NCERT Page No. 62] 1) ns 2 np 3 2) ns2 np4 3) ns2 np5 4) ns2 np6 SECTION : B 86. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom is determined by the following : [ NCERT Page No. 61] 1) 2n 2 2) 4l + 2 3) 2l + 1 4) 4l – 2 87. The orbital diagram in which Aufbau principle is violated is [ NCERT Page No. 61] 1) 2) 3) 4) 88. How many electrons can fit in the orbital for which n = 3 and l = 1 ? [ NCERT Page No. 55] 1) 2 2) 6 3) 10 4) 14 RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11 89. Identify the correct statement. [ NCERT Page No. 55] 1) Quantum number (n, l, m, s) are obtained arbitrarily 2) All the quantum numbers (n, l, m, s) for any pair of electrons in an atom can be identical under special circumstance 3) All the quantum numbers (n, l, m, s) may not be required to describe an electron of an atom completely 4) All the quantum numbers (n, l, m, s) are required to describe an electron of an atom completely 90. The representation of the ground state electronic configuration of He by box-diagram as is wrong because it violates [ NCERT Page No. 63] 1) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle 2) Bohr ’s quantization theory of angular momenta 3) Pauli’s exclusion principle 4) Hund’s rule 91. The figure that is not a direct manifestation of the quantum nature of atoms is : [ NCERT Page No. 40] 1) 2) 3) 4) Space For Rough Work PCB TEST : 02(38) 12 Date : 09/12/2023 92. Which of the following statements are not correct about electromagnetic radiation ? i) Electromagnetic waves require medium to travel. ii) Different electromagnetic radiations travel at same speed in vaccum. iii) The oscillating electric and magnetic fields produced by oscillating charged particles are perpendicular to each other, but not to the direction of propagation. iv) The oscillating electric field and magnetic field are perpendicular to each other, and also to the direction of propagation. [ NCERT Page No. 37] 1) (i), (ii) and (iii) 2) (ii) and (iii) 3) (i) and (iii) 4) (i) and (iv) 93. Given below are two statements. Statement I : According to Bohr’s model of an atom, qualitatively the magnitude of velocity of electron increases with decrease in positive charges on the nucleus as there is no strong hold on the electron by the nucleus. Statement II : According to Bohr’s model of an atom, qualitatively the magnitude of velocity of electron increases with decreases in principal quantum number In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : [ NCERT Page No. 47] 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false 2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true 3) Statements I is false but Statement II is true 4) Statements I is true but Statement II is false RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11 94. The shortest wavelength of H atom in the Lyman series is  1. The logest wavelength in the Balmer series is He+ is: [ NCERT Page No. 46] 1) 36 1 5 2) 51 9 3) 91 5 4) 27 1 5 95. Two fast moving particles X and Y are associated with de Broglie wavelengths 1 nm and 4 nm respectively. If mass of X is nine times the mass of Y, the ratio of kinetic energies of X and Y would be [ NCERT Page No. 50] 1) 3 : 1 2) 9 : 1 3) 5 : 12 4) 16 : 9 96. For emission line of atomic hydrogen from ni = 8 to nf = n, the plot of wave number (v )  1  2  will be (The Rydberg constant, n  against  RH is in wave number unit) [ NCERT Page No. 48] 1) Linear with intercept—RH 2) Non linear 3) Linear with slope RH 4) Linear with slope—RH Space For Rough Work PCB TEST : 02(38) 13 Date : 09/12/2023 97. A hydrogen atom in the ground state is excited by monochromatic radiation of wavelength  Å. The resulting spectrum consists of maximum 15 different lines. What is the wavelength ? (RH = 109737 cm –1 ) [ NCERT Page No. 48] 1) 937.3 Å 2) 1025Å 3) 1236Å 4) None of these 98. The Heisenberg uncertainity principle will be most significant for which of the following object ? [ NCERT Page No. 51] 1) Object A ofmass 9.11 × 10–30 kg 2) Object B of mass 9.11 × 10–28 g 3) Object C of mass 9.11 × 10–24 mg 4) Object D of mass 9.11 × 10–28 kg 99. Which hydrogen-like species will have same radius as that of Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom? [ NCERT Page No. 41] 1) n = 2, Li 2+ 3) n = 2, He+ 2) n = 2, Be3+ 4) n = 3, Li2+ RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11 100. Match the angle between the axes of the orbitals with their value. [ NCERT Page No. 58] Column I Column II A The angle between the zcomponent of orbital angular p 135° q 45° r Less than 45° or more than 135° s 90° momentum of electron of px atomic orbital and z-axis (assume m = +1) B The angle between the zcomponent of orbital angular momentum of electron of pz of atomic orbital and z-axis C The angle between the zcomponent of orbital angular momentum of electron momentum of electron of py atomic orbit and z-axis is D The angle between the zcomponent of orbital angular 3dxof y electron of momentum orbital and z-axis 2 2 1) A-p, B-s, C-q, D-r 2) A-q, B-s, C-p, D-r 3) A-s, B-p, C-t, D-r 4) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s Space For Rough Work PCB TEST : 02(38) 14 Date : 09/12/2023 QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11 Section-A 101. The size of chloroplast ribosome is[NCERT Pg. 129, 136] 1) 15 um to 20 um 2) 15 nm by 20 nm 3) 15 m by 20 m 4) 15 mm by 20 mm 102. _______ studied different types of animal cells and reported that a cell has a thin outer layer. [NCERT Pg. 126] 1) Matthias Schleiden 2) Theodore Schwann 3) Robert Brown 4) Anton von Leeuwenhoek 103. Gas vacuole is present in [ NCERT Pg. 129] a) Blue green algae b) Purple photosynthetic bacteria c) Green photosynthetic bacteria 1) a only 2) b only 3) c only 4) All a, b and c 104. Small bristle-like fibres sprouting out of the bacterial cells are helpful in [ NCERT Pg. 129] 1) Cell wall synthesis 2) Cell motility 3) Antibiotic resistance 4) Attachment to the host surface 105. Fluid nature of membrane is important for [ NCERT Pg. 132] 1) Cell division and growth 2) Secretion and endocytosis 3) Formation of intercellular function 4) All of these 106. Celluloes, galactans, mannans, and calcium carbonate are present in the cell wall of [ NCERT Pg. 132] 1) Algae 2) Fungi 3) Bacteria 4) Higher plant 107. Primary cell wall is [ NCERT Pg. 132] 1) Thick layered 2) Noticed in young cells 3) Lignified and subersized usually 4) Made up of calcium and magnesium pectate PCB TEST : 02(38) RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** Section-C : Biology 15 108. The membrane proteins are classified as integral or peripheral. The basis of this classification is [ NCERT Pg. 131] 1) Quasi-fluid nature 2) Biochemical investigation 3) Ease of extraction 4) Requirement of energy for transport of material 109. Bacteria differ from mycoplasma in having [ NCERT Pg. 128] 1) Cell wall 2) Cytoplasm 3) Cell membrane 4) 70S ribosomes 110. Choose the incorrect statements for A, B, C and D in the given diagram. [ NCERT Pg. 133, 138 & PYQ] 1) A is the major site of the synthesis of protein. 2) B is the 80 S ribosome 3) C helps in protein folding 4) D is Formed by fusion of two membranes 111. Membrane-bound space present in plant cell and filled with water, sap and excretory substances is known as [ NCERT Pg. 134] 1) Lysosomes 2) ER 3) Vacuole 4) Cytosol 112. Packaging of macromolecules which has to transported out from the cell occurs in [ NCERT Pg. 134] 1) Golgi body 2) RER 3) SER 4) Vacuole Date : 09/12/2023 [ NCERT Pg. 135] 1) Type of pigments 2) Storage materials 3) Presence of thylakoid and grana 4) Presence of double membrane 114. Both mitochondria and chloroplast resemble to bacteria in [ NCERT Pg. 129, 135, 136] a. Having owns ds circular DNA b. Presence of porins on outer membrane c. Presence of 70S ribosomes d. Ability to self-duplication 1) a and c only 2) a, b and d only 3) a, b and c only 4) a, b, c and d 115. For ribosomes, sedimentation coefficient is indirectly a measure of [ NCERT Pg. 136] 1) Number of ribosomes per cell 2) Density and size of ribosomes 3) Length of rRNA 4) Number of the subunit of ribosomes 116. Centriole, cilium, and flagellum resemble one another as [ NCERT Pg. 137, 138] 1) All possess (9 + 0) organization 2) All possess (9 + 2) organization 3) All of them are made up of microtubules 4) All can duplicate themselves 117. Which of the following is correct regarding the structure of the sections of cilia and flagella? [ NCERT Pg. 137, Fig. 8.10] Peripheral Radial Central microtubules spoke bridge 1) 18 doublet 9 2 2) 18 singlet 18 2 3) 9 singlet 9 1 4) 9 doublet 9 1 118. Select the incorrectly matched pair. [NCERT Pg. 126, 127, 129] 1) Mycoplasma – The smallest cell 2) Cell cytoplasm – Main arena of cellular activities 3) Inclusion bodies – Glycogen granules 4) Centriole – Non-membrane bound cell organelle in all plant and animal cells PCB TEST : 02(38) RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11 113. What is the common feature among leucoplast, chloroplast, and chromoplast? 119. Select the correct option stating True (T) and False (F) w.r.t. ribosomes. [ NCERT Pg. 136, PYQ] A. They are granular structures first observed under electron microscope as dense particles. B. They are composed of rRNA and proteins. C. Sedimentation coefficient, is directly a measure of density and size. D. Ca++ is required for binding the two subunits of ribosomes at the time of protein synthesis. A B C D 1) T T T F 2) T T F F 3) T F F T 4) F F T T 120. Semi-autonomous nature of chloroplast is due to presence of [ NCERT PYQ] 1) Enzymes of photosynthesis 2) 70 S ribosomes 3) Double stranded circular DNA molecules 4) Both (2) and (3) 121. In Chlamydomonas, chloroplasts per cell is the 1) 10 2) 1 3) 5 4) 8 number of [ NCERT Pg. 136] 122. The plasma membrane consists mainly of : 1) proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer 2) phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer 3) proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer 4) proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecules 123. Prokaryotic cell like PPLO are __a__ and multiply __b__ than eukaryotic cells. [ Pg. 127, Para 2] 1) Larger, rapidly 2) Smaller, rapidly 3) Smaller, slowly 4) Larger, slowly. 124. An elaborated network of proteinaceous filamentous structure present is cytoplasm help in ______ [ Pg. 136, Last 2 lines] 1) Intracellular digestion 2) ATP synthesis 3) Cell shape maintenance 4) Lipid synthesis 16 Date : 09/12/2023 [ Pg. 132] a. Cell wall is rigid - living structure present in animal cells. b. Cell wall gives shape to cell and protect it from mechanical damage as well as infection. c. Cell wall in bacteria and fungi is made of peptidoglycan and chitin respectively. d. Middle lamella is made of calcium pectate which glues adjacent cells together. 1) All are true except - a 2) All are false except - a 3) Only d is true 4) Only b and c are true 126. How many of the following are nonmembranous and double membrane bound organelles respectively? Ribosome, Nucleus, Nucleolus, Centrosome, Lysosome, Peroxisome, Amyloplast, Vacuole 1) 3, 2 2) 2, 3 3) 3, 4 4) 4, 1 127. Observe the following solutes Solute - A = Negatively charged large sized molecule Solute - B = Positively charged large sized molecule Solute - C = Neutral solute Which of the above solute can easily cross lipid bilayer along the concentration, without any carrier protein? [ Pg. 132, Para 3] 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) All of these 128. Find out the odd match. [ Pg. 127 Fig. 8.1] 1) RBC- Round & biconcave 2) Mesophyll cells- Round & oval 3) Tracheid- Elongated 4) WBC- Branched & long 129. The stain used to visualise motochondria is [ Exemplar] 1) Fast green 2) Safranin 3) Acetocarmine 4) Janus green PCB TEST : 02(38) RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11 125. Identify T/F in given statements below. 17 130. What is angle between two centrioles present in centrosome? [ Pg. 137, Last 2 lines] 1) 30° 2) 45° 3) 60° 4) 90° 131. Scientist G N Ramachandran was associated with [ Pg. 124, Unit Introduction] 1) Triple helical structure of Collagen 2) Founder of Madras school of Confirmational analysis of biopolymers. 3) Ramachandran plot 4) All of these 132. Blood groups are identified based on presence of various surface glycoproteins on RBC, that are referred as antigens. The cell organelle that involved in formation of such glycoprotein is [ Pg. 134, Para 2] 1) Ribosome 2) Endoplasmic reticulum 3) Golgi bodies 4) Mitochondria 133. Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell? [NEET-2017] 1) Cell wall 2) Nuclear membrane 3) Plasma membrane 4) Glycocalyx 134. Which of the following is correct pathway of vesicle which contains secretory protein? [ Pg. 134, Para 2] 1) Nucleus -Trans Golgi - Plasma membrane 2) ER - Cis-Golgi - Nucleus 3) Cis -Golgi -ER- Trans-Golgi 4) ER Cis-Golgi -Trans-Golgi 135. Which of the following combination of statement is most suitable for mesosome [ Pg. 128, 129] a. It is extension of plasma membrane into cytoplasm b. Help in respiration, & DNA distribution. c. It decrease the surface area of plasma membrane d. It form nuclear membrane around genetic material 1) a, b and c 2) b and c 3) a and b 4) Only a Date : 09/12/2023 QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11 140. Read the following features of a cell organelle. 136. Cell organelle which exhibit cartwheel like structure in transverse section [NCERT Pg. 137, 138] a) is helpful in cell division of almost all plant cells b) is not covered by any membrane c) is having 9 + 0 arrangement of microtubules d) forms basal body of Flagella. 1) a & c - incorrect 2) b & c - correct 3) Only a is incorrect 4) Only b is incorrect 137. Read the following statements and select which of the following are not the postulates of cell theory. [ NCERT Pg. 126] a) Cells differ greatly in size, shape and activities. b) All living organisms are composed of cells and products of cells. c) The cytoplasm is the main arena of metabolic activities. d) All cells arise from pre-existing cells. 1) (a) and (d) 2) (b) and (d) 3) (a) and (c) 4) (c) and (d) 138. Match column I with column II. [ NCERT Based] Column-I Column-II a) Centrioles i) Palade particles b) Lysosomes ii) Steriod synthesis c) Ribosomes iii) Formation of spindle d) Smooth iv) Hydrolytic activity endoplasmic reticulum 1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii 2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii 3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii 4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 139. Read the following statements. [NCERT Pg. 128, 129] i. It is the extension of plasma membrane into the cytoplasm. ii. These extensions are in the form of vesicles, tubules and labellae. iii. It helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and secretion process. The above features are attributed to bacterial. 1) Genophore 2) Mesosome 3) Pili 4) Fimbriae PCB TEST : 02(38) RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** Section-B [ NCERT Pg. 134, 135] a. Organelle having width about 0.2 – 1.0 m and length of 1.0 – 4.1 m. b. Requires specific vital stain to be visualize under microscope. c. Sausage or cylindrical shaped. Identify the cell organelle on the basis of above given features. 1) Chloroplast 2) Nucleus 3) Mitochondria 4) Golgi apparatus 141. Read the following statements and choose the CORRECT [ Pg. 125] A. Unicellular organisms are not capable of independent existence because they cannot perform all the essential functions of life. B. Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence but cannot perform all the essential functions of life. C. Unicellular organisms are capable independents existence, and they can perform all the essential functions of life 1) A and B correct 2) Only B correct 3) Only C correct 4) A, B and C all correct 142. Match the column. Column-I a Metacentric [ Pg. 139] Column-II Centromere little away from middle ii Centromere in middle iii Centromere close to end iv Centromere at terminal i b Acrocentric c Sub-Metacentric d Telocentric 1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-ii 2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv 3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv 4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv + + 143. Assertion : Na /K pump transport Na+ and K+ by active transport. Reason : Na+/K+ pump don't need any energy for transportation of ions. [ Pg. 132] 1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. 2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. 3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false. 4) If both the Assertion and Reason are false. 18 Date : 09/12/2023 in A. Has contents continuous with rest of nucleoplasm B. Is a non-membrane-bound structure C. Is a site of active messenger RNA synthesis D. Are smaller and more numerous in cells actively carrying out protein synthesis Correct statement(s) is/are 1) Only A and D 2) A, B and C 3) Only A and B 4) A, B, C and D 145. Match column I with column II. [ NCERT Pg. 124, 125, 126] Column-I Column-II a) 1838 i) Matthias Schleiden b) 1839 ii) Theodore Schw ann c) 1954 iii) Rudolf Virchow d) 1855 iv) G. N. Ramachandran 1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii 2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii 3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii 4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii 146. Read the following statements carefully and find CORRECT combination for plasma membrane. [ Pg. 132] a. It is selectively permeable. b. Fluidity of lipids present in plasma membrane is disadvantage to cell. c. Fluid mosaic model was proposed by Singer and Nicolson. d. Active transport across plasma membrane is energy dependent. e. Quasifluid nature of lipid disables lateral movement of protein in bilayer 1) a, b, c 2) a, d, e 3) a, c, d 4) All statements are correct 147. Statement-I : Chlo roplast is do uble membraneous strcuture. Statement-II : Inner membrane of chloroplast is more permeable. [ NCERT Pg. 136] 1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. 2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect. 3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct. 4) Both Statement-I and II both are incorrect. PCB TEST : 02(38) RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11 144. The spherical structure present nucleoplasm [ NCERT Pg. 138] 148. Assertion (A) : Every chromosome essentially has a kineto chore on the si des of which centromeres are present. Reason (R) : Based on the position of centromere or primary constriction chromosomes can be classified into five types. [ NCERT Pg. 139] 1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. 2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. 3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false. 4) If both the Assertion and Reason are false. 149. Identify the correct set of statements out of followings : [ NCERT Pg. 139] a) Maximum arm ratio (q/p) exhibited by acrocentric chromosomes. b) Human cells (2n) has two genomes and each genome consists fourty six chromosomes. c) Nucleolar organizer region i.e. 2° constriction are not present on each human chromosome. d) Secondary constriction is present at the place of centromere. e) Each centromere possess two protein discs called kinetochores. choose the correct answer from the given options below: 1) b, c, d & e 2) a, b, c & e 3) a, c & e 4) a, b & c 150. Assertion (A) : Middle lamellae is like cementing material between two adjacent plant cells. Reason (R) : Plasmodesmata traverse cell wall and middle lamellae. 1) Assertion and Reason both are true and the Reason is correct explanation of Assertion. 2) Assertion and Reason both are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion. 3) Assertion is true but Reason is wrong. 4) Assertion and Reason both are wrong. Section-D : Biology Section-A 151. Which of the following is not a taxon but category? 1) Division 2) Dicotyledons 3) Angiosperms 19 4) Polypetalae Date : 09/12/2023 [ Excercise Q. 7] 1) Species genus family order class phylum kingdom 2) Species family order genus class phylum kingdom 3) Species genus family phylum order class kingdom 4) Species genus family order class division kingdom 153. Which of the following is a characteristic of living organism. [ Pg. 3, Para 2nd] 1) Growth and reproduction 2) Metabolism, organisation consciousness, cellular 3) Both 1 and 2 4) Only Growth 154. Statement I : Biological names are generally in latins and written in italics Statement II : They are latinised irrespective of their origin. [ Pg. 7, 5th Line] 1) Statement I is correct II is incorrect 2) Statement I is incorrect II is correct 3) Both statements are correct 4) Both statements are incorrect 155. Given below is the scientific name of Mango. Identify the correctly written name. [ Pg. 15, Exercise] 1) Mangifera Indica 2) Mangifera indica 3) Mangifera indica 4) mangifera indica 156. Systematics refers to the: [ Pg. 8] 1) identification and classification of plants and animals. 2) nomenclature and identification of plants and animals. 3) diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationship. 4) different kinds of organisms and their classification. 157. Dog and cat are seperated into two familes ___ & ___ respectively. [ Pg. 9, Last line] 1) Felis & canis 2) Felidae & canidae 3) Canis & felis PCB TEST : 02(38) RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11 152. Identify the correct sequence of taxonomic categories for mangifera indica. 4) Canidae & felidae 20 158. Refer the botanical name of wheat "Triticum aestivum" and identify the statement which correctly describes it. [ Pg. 7] 1) The second word belongs to genus and starts with a small letter. 2) Both the words "Triticum aestivum" denote the specific epithet. 3) The first word Triticum denotes the genus which Starts with a capital letter. 4) The first word Triticum denotes the specific epithet while the second word denotes the genus. 159. Choose the correct order arrangement [ Pg. 9] 1) cohort class family genus 2) class cohort family genus 3) species cohort family genus 4) order (cohort) phylum species family 160. Which of the following shows the correct example of taxonomic category - Genus? 1) Potato, tomato and brinjal belong to Solanum. 2) Monkey, gorilla and gibbon are placed in Mammalia. 3) Solanum, Petunia, and Datura are placed in Solanacea. 4) Mangifera indica, Solanum tuberosum, and Panthera leo. 161. 'Taxa'differs from'taxon'due to being: [ Pg. 8] 1) a higher taxonomic category than taxon. 2) lower taxonomic category than taxon. 3) the plural of taxon. 4) the singular of taxon. 162. Which of the following taxonomic category of housefly is incorrectly matched? [ Pg. 11] 1) Genus - Musca 2) Family - Muscidae 3) Order - Primata 4) Class - Insecta 163. Which one. of the following belongs to the family Muscidae? [ Pg. 11] 1) Housefly 2) Firefly 3) Grasshopper 4) Cockroach Date : 09/12/2023 1) growth; nutrition 2) nutrition; consciousness 3) growth; reproduction 4) reproduction; consciousness 165. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they: 1) have same number of chromosomes. 2) can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds. 3) have more than 90 per cent similar genes. 4) look similar and possess identical secondary metabolites. 166. Binomial nomenclature means: [ Pg. 7] 1) one name given by two scientists. 2) one scientific name consisting of a generic and specific epithet. 3) two names, one latinized, other of a person. 4) two names of same plant. 167. Which of the following is not universal rule of nomenclature. [ Pg. 7, 2nd para] 1) The first word in biological name represents genus while second component denotes specific epithet 2) Both the words in biological name when printed are seperately underlined. 3) The first word denoting genus starts with capital letter while specific epithet start with small letter 4) Both (1) & (3) 168. Which of the following statements is incorrect? [ Pg. 9] 1) The scientific name for humans is Homo sapiens. 2) Organisms placed in the same genus are least closely related. 3) Moving from species to kingdom more different species are included in each higher category. 4) Species that are in the same genus share very specific characteristics. PCB TEST : 02(38) RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11 164. In majority of higher animals and plants, _______ and _______ are mutually exclusive events: [ Pg. 4] 21 169. The famous botanical garden 'Kew' is located in [ Pg. 12] 1) England 2) Lucknow 3) Berlin 4) Australia 170. The famous botanical gardens are at _____, Indian Botanical Garden at ___ & National Botanical Research Institute at ____ [ Pg. 12, 2nd Para, Last line] 1) Lucknow, Kew, Howrah 2) Howrah, Kew, Lucknow 3) Kew, Howrah, Lucknow 4) Kew, Lucknow, Howrah 171. Insects are preserved in insect boxes after [ Pg. 12, Last Para, 6th line] 1) Pinning killing collecting 2) Collecting killing pinning 3) Collecting pinning killing 4) Killing Collecting pinning 172. Which of the following taxonomic aid provides information for the identification of names of species found in an area? [ Pg. 13] 1) Monograph 2) Manual 3) Flora 4) Periodical 173. Which one of the following taxonomical aid is used for identification of plants and animals based on similarities and dissimilarities? [ 1) Flora 2) Keys 3) Monographs 4) Catalogues Pg. 13] 174. Which of the following option is correct? [ Pg. 4] 1) Only living organisms grow 2) Plants grow only up to a certain age 3) The growth in living organisms is from inside 4) All of the above 175. Each statement in the key is called _______. [ 1) lead 2) catalogues 3) manuals 4) monographs Pg. 13] 176. Which of the following organisms does not reproduce? [ Pg. 4] 1) Mule 2) Worker bee 3) Infertile human 4) All of these Date : 09/12/2023 i. Reproduction is a characteristic of living organisms. [ Pg. 4, 2nd para, 1st line] ii. True regeneration is observed in planaria. iii. When it comes to unicellular organisms reproduction is antonymous to growth. iv. No non-living object is capable of reproducing or replicating by itself. v. Metabolism is characteristic of living organisms. 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 178. Families are characterised on the basis of Pg. 9, 4th para, 3rd line] [ 1) Vegetative features of plant species 2) Reproductive features of plant species 3) Both 1 & 2 4) Only vegetative features of plant species 179. Which of the following is not a characteristic of life? [ Pg. 4, 5] 1) Reproduction 2) Complex chemical organization 3) Adaptation to environmental changes 4) Differentiation from cells to tissues 180. Who among the following is known as The Darwin of the 20th century? [ Pg. 2] 1) Thomas Hunt Morgan 2) Ernst Mayr 3) George Mendel 4) Lamarck 181. Statement I : Photoperiadism affects reproductin in continuous breeders, both plants and animals. Statement II : All living organisms are aware of their surroundings. [ Pg. 5, 2nd Para] 1) Statement I is correct II is incorrect 2) Statement I is incorrect II is correct 3) Both statements are correct 4) Both statements are incorrect 182. Find odd one out with respect to taxonomic category. [ Pg. 11, Table 1.1] 1) Chordata 2) Arthropoda 3) Angiospermae 4) Diptera PCB TEST : 02(38) RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11 177. How many of following statements are incorrect. [ Pg. 4, 2nd para] 22 183. Consider following diagram and fill the following blank spaces/boxes. [ Pg. 10] 1) A-Strain, B-Order, C-Sub kingdom 2) A-species, B-order, C-kingdom 3) A-subspecies, B-Tribe, C-Domain 4) A-species, B-Cohort, C-Subdivision 184. In plants, growth occurs____, whereas in animals it occurs_____. [ Pg. 4] 1) only up to a certain age, continuously 2) continuously, continuously 3) only up to a certain age, only up to a certain age 4) continuously, only up to a certain age 185. Which of the following statement is correct for Metabolism? [ Pg. 5] 1) It is the sum of all Chemical reactions taking place inside a living system. 2) All plants, animals, fungi and microbes exhibit metabolism. 3) Isolated metabolic reactions in-vitro are not living but are living reactions. 4) All of the above Section-B 186. Find out incorrect statement. [ Pg.4, 2nd Para, 12th line] 1) Growth and reproduction are mutually inclusive for unicellular organisms 2) Key is the taxonomical aid used for classification of plants and animals based on both similarities and dissimilarities 3) The total number of species on the earth range between 1.7 - 1.8 million 4) Reproduction is non defining properties of living 187. i. Science of life forms & living processes. ii. Story at life on earth. iii. Story of evolution of living organisms on earth. Which of the above statements depicts biology. [ Pg. 1, Unit introduction, Pg. 5, Last para] 1) i only 3) i & iii only 2) ii & iii only 4) i, ii & iii Date : 09/12/2023 QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11 Column I a Flora i b Manuals ii c Monograph iii d Catalogues iv Column II Actual account of habitat & distribution of plant a given area Information on any one taxon Information for identification of names of species found in an area List of names of all species found in an area 1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv 2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv 3) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii 4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv 189. Assertion : Reprdouction is not the defining feature of living organisms. Reason : Many living organisms do not reproduce. [ Pg. 4, 2nd para, 15th line] 1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion. 2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion. 3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. 4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. 190. How many of the following statements belong to herbarium. [ Pg. 12, 1st Para] i) It is store house of animal specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved on sheet. ii) Herbarium sheets are arranged according to universally adapted system of classification. iii) These specimens along with their description becomes repository for future use. iv) Herbaria serve as quick referral system in taxonomic studies. v) Herbarium shet contain information about date and place of collection, family name, collector’s name etc. 1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 2 PCB TEST : 02(38) 191. Match the following. Pg. 14, 1st Para] RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** 188. Match the following. [ 23 Column-I a Hominidae b Diptera c Anacardiaceae d Poaceae i ii iii iv [ Based] Column-II Mangifera indica Musca domestica Trticum aestivum Primata 1) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii 2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv 3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i 4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii 192. Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given. [ Column-I (Common Name) Pg. 11] Column-II (Taxonomic Category Family) a Man i Poaceae b Housefly ii Muscidae c Mango iii Anacardiaceae d Wheat iv Hominidae 1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i 2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii 3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv 193. Statement I : Reproduction cannot be considered as defining property of living organisms. Statement II : There are many living organisms which do not reproduce. e.g. mules, workers bees etc. [ Pg. 4] 1) Both statement I and II are incorrect 2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect 3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct 4) Both statement I and II are correct 194. Assertion: Taxon and category are different things. Reason : Category shows hierarchical classification. [ Pg. 18] 1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) 2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct 4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) Date : 09/12/2023 i. Key is based dissimilarities. on similarties & ii. Keys are based on contrasting characters generally in pair called couplet. iii. It represents choise made between two opposite options. iv. Each statement in the key is called as lead. v. A single key is required for every taxonomic category. vi.Keys are generally analytical in nature. 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 196. Statement I : Higher the category, lower is the difficulty of determining the relationship to other taxa at same level. Statement II : Classes comprising animals like fish, amphibians, reptiles etc. constitute the next higher category called division. [ Pg. 10, 3rd Para] 1) Statement I is correct II is incorrect 2) Statement I is incorrect II is correct 3) Both statements are correct 4) Both statements are incorrect 197. i. Increase in mass & increase in size are twin characters of growth. [ Pg. 3, Last line] ii. In plants growth occurs continuously throught life span. [ Pg. 4, 1st line] iii. In animals growth in seen only upto certain age. [ Pg. 4, 3rd line] iv. A dead organism do not grow. [ Pg. 4, 1st Para, Last line] Find out incorrect statement. 1) ii 2) iii 3) iv 4) i RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11 195. How many of following statements do not hold true for keys. [ Pg. 13, Last para] 198. Find out correct statements. i. Linnaeus used systema naturae as title of his publication. [ Pg. 8, 3rd para] ii. Systematics takes into accont evolutionary relationship between organisms. [ Pg. 8] iii. All taxonomic category together constitute taxonomic hierarchy. iv. Each category represents a rank commonly termed as taxon. [ Pg. 8] v. Each genus have only one specific epithet representing various organisms. Pg. 9, 12th line] [ 1) All except II 2) All except V 3) All except III 4) All are correct 199. Which of the below form basis of modern taxonomic studies. [ Pg. 7, 8] i) External and internal structure of organism. ii) Structure of cell iii) Development process iv) Ecological information 1) i, ii, iv 2) i, iii, iv 3) ii, iii 4) i, ii, iii, iv 200. Assertion : Growth cannot be taken as defining property of living organism. Reason : Non living objects also grow if we consider increase in number as criterion for growth. [ Pg. 4, Line 12, 9] 1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion. 2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion. 3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. 4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Space For Rough Work PCB TEST : 02(38) 24 Date : 09/12/2023