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Amity University Chhattisgarh
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This is a sample paper for the NEET exam, covering Chemistry, Physics, and Biology. It includes multiple-choice questions
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NEET SAMPLE PAPER Max. Marks: 180 Duration: 3 Hrs This paper consists of Chemistry, Physics and Biology Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer Questio...
NEET SAMPLE PAPER Max. Marks: 180 Duration: 3 Hrs This paper consists of Chemistry, Physics and Biology Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer Question No. 1 to 45. A correct answer carries 1 Mark. A wrong answer carries a penalty of 0.25 marks. Physics Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer Question No. 46 to 90. A correct answer carries 1 Mark. A wrong answer carries a penalty of 0.25 marks. Biology Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer Question No. 91 to 180. A correct answer carries 1 Mark. A wrong answer carries a penalty of 0.25 marks. Useful Data At. Wt.: N = 14; O = 16; H = 1; S = 32; Cl = 35.5; Mn = 55; Na = 23; C = 12; Ag = 108; K = 39; Fe = 56; Pb = 207 Physical constants: h = 6.626 10−34 J.sec , Na = 6.022 1023 mol-1 , C = 2.998 108 ms-1 , me = 9.110−31 kg Chemistry 1. Which of the following order of radii is correct (a) Li Be Mg (b) H + Li + H − (c) O F Ne (d) Na+ F − O−2 2. At 0o C , the density of a certain gaseous oxide at 2 bar is same as that of dinitrogen at 5 bar. What is the molecular mass of the oxide? (a) 70 g/mol (b) 35 g/mol (c) 140 g/mol (d) 280 g/mol 3. Which of the following does not have sp3d hybridization? (a) SF4 (b) BrCl3 (c) XeOF2 (d) XeF4 4. How many moles of K2Cr2O7 in acidic medium are required to react completely with one mole of KHC2O4 www.vedantu.com 1 (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 6 3 3 5. The ratio of the wave numbers of the radiation corresponding to the third line of Balmer series and the second line of the paschen series of hydrogen spectrum is 21 9 25 9 21 9 16 9 (a) (b) (c) (d) 16 4 16 4 25 4 25 4 6. The number of radial nodes, nodal planes for an orbital with n = 4; l = 1 is (a) 3,1 (b) 2,1 (c) 2, 0 (d) 4, 0 7. Thermal stability of hybrids of first group (Alkali metals) elements follows the order (a) LiH NaH KH RbH (b) LiH KH NaH RbH (c) LiH RbH KH NaH (d) LiH KH RbH NaH 8. The structure of diborane ( B2 H6 ) contains (a) Four 2 centered-2 electron bonds and two 3 centered-2 electron bonds (b) Two 2 centered-2 electron bonds and four 3 centered-2 electron bonds (c) Two 2 centered-2 electron bonds and two 3 centered-3 electron bonds (d) Four 2 centered-2 electron bonds and four 3 centered-2 electron bonds 9. A mixture of two gases is found when an organic acid is heated with con.H2 SO4. When the gaseous mixture is passed through KOH solution, one gas is absorbed. The unabsorbed gas combines with chlorine and forms a poisonous gas. The organic acid and the two gases evolved with con.H2 SO4 are respectively (a) CH3COOH , CO2 , CO (b) Oxalic acid, CO2 , CO (c) HCOOH , CO, H2O (d) None of these 10. Which of the following contains O − O linkage? (a) H3 PO3 (b) H4 P2O7 (c) H4 P2O6 (d) H3 PO5 11. The number of lone pairs and the number of S − S bonds in S8 molecules are respectively (a) 8,8 (b) 16,8 (c) 8,16 (d) 8, 4 12. The complex ion which has no ' d ' electrons in the central metal atom is +3 −3 +3 (a) MnO4 (b) Co ( NH3 )6 (c) Fe ( CN )6 (d) Cr ( H 2O )6 − 13. The values of observed and calculated molecular weights of AgNO3 are 92.64 and 170 respectively. The degree of dissociation of AgNO3 is (a) 60% (b) 83.5% (c) 46.7% (d) 60.23% 14. 10 moles of an ideal gas expand isothermally and reversibly from a pressure of 10 atm to 1 atm at 300 K. What is the largest mass which can be lifted through a height of 100 meter? (a) 31842 kg (b) 58.55 kg (c) 342.58 kg (d) 116.11 kg www.vedantu.com 2 15. In an electrolytic cell one litre of 1M aqueous solution of MnO4− is reduced to MnO4−2 at cathode. How many faradays would be required so that the solution becomes 0.899 M MnO4− (a) 10F (b) 0.1F (c) 110−4 F (d) 110−2 F 16. The SRP of three metals X, Y, Z are 0.52, -3.03 and -1.18 V respectively. The order of reducing power of the corresponding metals is (a) Y Z X (b) X Y Z (c) Z Y X (d) Z X Y 17. A compound is formed by element A and B is cubic. A atoms are at the corners and B atoms are at the face centre. What is the formula? (a) AB (b) AB2 (c) AB3 (d) A3 B 18. The correct name of the following structure is H H C C H H3C C C H CH3 (a) (E), (E)-2, 4-hexadiene (b) (Z), (Z)-2, 4-hexadiene (c) (E), (Z)-3, 5-hexadiene (d) (Z), (E)-2, 4-hexadiene 19. In the reaction sequence: Air/hv C6H6/Anhydrous AlCl 3 CHCl3 [X] excess Y; Y will be O O (a) Cl C Cl (b) H5C6 C Cl O (c) H5C6 C C6H5 (d) H5C6 CHO 20. An organic compound A of the molecular formula C5 H10Cl2 is hydrolyzed to compound B , C5 H10O which gives an oxime with hydroxylamine and yellow precipitate with a mixture of Iodine and NaOH. The compound A should be (a) CH3 CH2 CCl2 CH2 CH 3 (b) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 CCl2 CH3 (c) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CHCl2 (d) CH3 CH2 CH2 CHCl CH2Cl 21. Which of the following compounds is oxidized to prepare methyl ethyl Ketone? (a) 2-Propanol (b) 1-Butanol (c) 2-Butanol (d) t-Butyl alcohol 22. Which type of halogen containing compound could react with OH − to give a carboxylic acid? (a) RCH2 X (b) RCHX 2 (c) RCX 3 (d) None of these 23. Hunsdiecker reaction is given by (a) Aldehydes (b) Ketones (c) Carboxylic acids (d) All of these 24. Nitrobenzene can be converted into azobenzene by: www.vedantu.com 3 (a) Zn / NaOH (b) LiAlH4 (c) Zn / NH4Cl / HOH (d) CH3ONa / CH3OH 25. Two liquids A and B on mixing form an ideal solution. At certain temperature, the vapour pressure of the solution containing 3 moles of A and 1 mole of B is 550 mm of Hg. But when 4 moles of A and 1 mole of B are mixed, the vapour pressure of the solution thus formed is 560 mm of Hg. The vapour pressure of the pure liquid A is (a) 400 mm (b) 200 mm (c) 600 mm (d) 300 mm 26. Heat of formation of two moles of NH3 ( g ) is -90 KJ. Bond energies of H − H and N − H bonds are 435 KJ and 390 KJ mol −1 respectively. The value of the bond energy of N N will be (a) -472.5 KJ (b) -945 KJ (c) 472.5 KJ (d) 945 KJ 27. When 2-bromo-3-methylbutane is treated with aqueous KOH it follows SN1 mechanism. The product formed is (a) 3-Methyl-2-butanol (b) 3-Methyl-1-butanol (c) 2-Methyl-2-butanol (d) 2-Methyl-1-butanol 28. Which of the following are isomers? (a) Ethyl alcohol and dimethyl ether (b) Methyl alcohol and dimethyl ether (c) Propanone and Ethanol (d) Propionic acid and Acetone 29. Carbolic acid is (a) Acetic acid (b) Salicylic acid (c) Phenol (d) Formic acid 30. In blast furnace, the highest temperature is in (a) slag zone at the middle (b) reduction zone at the top (c) combustion zone at the base (d) fusion zone at the middle 31. A cuprous ore among the following is (a) Malachite (b) Cuprite (c) Calamine (d) Cryolite 32. Fe2O3 is reduced to iron near the top of blast furnace by (a) C (b) CO (c) CO2 (d) H 2 33. Equal masses of Methane, Hydrogen gases, are mixed in a container at 300K. fraction of total pressure exerted by methane gas is 1 8 1 1 (a) (b) (c) (d) 9 9 2 3 www.vedantu.com 4 34. Bohr’s radius for the H – atom ( n = 1) is approximately 0.53 A. The radius of the first excited state ( n = 2) orbit is o o o o (a) 0.13A (b) 1.06 A (c) 4.77 A (d) 2.12 A 35. The compressibility factor for an ideal gas (a) 1 (b) 1 (c) infinity (d) 1 36. In Bohr series of lines of hydrogen spectrum, which of the following inter-orbit jumps of the electron represents highest energy emission? (a) 5 →1 (b) 4 →1 (c) 3 →1 (d) 2 →1 37. When 50 cm3 of a strong acid is added to 50 cm3 of an alkali, the temperature rises by 5 C. If 250 cm3 of each liquid are mixed, the temperature rise would be : (a) 10 C (b) 5 C (c) 20 C (d) 25 C ( ) 38. A binary solid A+ B− has a zinc blende structure with B − ion constituting lattice and A− ions occupying 25% of tetrahedral holes. The formula of the solid is (a) AB (b) AB2 (c) A7 B24 (d) AB4 39. Which of the following has the biggest radius? (a) Cs + (b) Mg 2+ (c) Na + (d) Li + 40. The statement that is not correct for periodic classification of elements is (a) The Properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic numbers (b) Non-metallic elements are less in number than metallic elements (c) The first ionization energies of elements along a period do not vary in a regular manner with increase in atomic number at some places (d) For transition elements, the d − subshells are filled with electrons uniformly with increase in atomic number without any exceptions 41. Thermodynamically, most stable form of carbon is : (a) Diamond (b) Graphite (c) Peat (d) Coal 42. Which one of the following is a correct set with respect to a molecule; hybridization and shape? (a) BeCl2 : sp2 linear (b) BeCl2 : sp2 , triangular planar (c) BCl3 : sp2 , triangular planar (d) BCl3 : sp3, tetrahedral. 43. According to the molecular orbital theory, which of the following statements about magnetic character and bond order is correct regarding O2+ ? (a) Paramagnetic and bond order O2 (b) Paramagnetic and bond order O2 (c) Diamagnetic and bond order O2 (d) Diamagnetic and bond order O2 www.vedantu.com 5 44. Oxalic acid reacts with concentrated H2SO4 to give a mixture of two gasses. One gas is acidic, and another gas is neutral. When this mixture is passed through caustic potash ( KOH ) , one of the gases is absorbed. What is the product formed by the absorbed gas with caustic potash? (a) K2SO4 (b) K2HCO3 (c) K2CO3 (d) KOH 45. Which noble gas has lowest boiling point? (a) Xe (b) Ne (c) Kr (d) He Physics 46. Three blocks are connected as shown in figure on a horizontal frictionless table. If m1 = 1kg, m2 = 8kg, m3 = 27kg and T3 = 36N. Then what is the value of T2 (a) 18 N (b) 9N (c) 3.375 N (d) 1.75 N 47. A block of mass M is placed on a rough inclined plane having angle of inclination 45. the coefficient of friction is 0.5. What is the acceleration of the block down the inclined plane? (Acceleration due to gravity is g = 10m / s 2 ) (a) 0.20g (b) 0.25 g (c) 0.30g (d) 0.35g 48. A circular road of radius 1000 m has banking angle 45. The maximum safe speed (in m/s) of a car having a mass 2000 kg will be, if the coefficient of friction between the tyre and road is 0.5 (a) 172 (b) 124 (c) 99 (d) 86 49. Two bodies A and B initially at rest are attracted towards each other due to gravitation. Given that A is much heavier than B which of the following correctly describes the relative motion of the centre of mass of the bodies? (a) It moves towards A (b) It moves towards B (c) It moves perpendicular to the line joining the particles (d) it remains at rest 50. Four spheres, each having mass m and radius r , are placed with their r centres on the four corners of a square of side a. Then the moment of inertia of the system about an axis along one of the sides of the square is a (a) (8 / 5) mr 2 (b) (8 / 5) mr 2 + ma2 a (c) (8 / 5) mr + 2ma 2 2 (d) ( 4 / 5) mr 2 + 4ma2 www.vedantu.com 6 51. Two satellites A and B of the same mass are revolving around the earth in concentric circular orbits such that the distance of satellite B from the centre of the earth is thrice as compared to the distance of the satellite A from the centre of the earth. The ratio of centripetal force acting on B as compared to A is (a) 1/3 (b) 3 (c) 1/9 (d) 1/ 3 52. On increasing the length by 0.5 mm in a steel wire of length 2m and area of cross – section 2mm2 , the force required is [Y for steel = 2.2 1011 Nm−2 ] (a) 1.1105 N (b) 1.1104 N (c) 1.1103 N (d) 1.1102 N 53. Two wires of the same material and length but diameters in the ratio 1:2 are stretched by the same force. The potential – energy per unit volume for the two wires when stretched will be in the ratio (a) 16 : 1 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 2:1 (d) 1:1 54. The reading of a spring balance when a block is suspended from it in air is 60N. This reading is changed to 40 N when the block is submerged in water. The specific gravity of the block is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 55. The internal energy of an ideal diatomic gas corresponding to volume V and pressure P is U = 2.5PV. The gas expands from 1 litre to 2 litre at a constant pressure of 1 atm. The heat supplied to gas is (a) 100 J (b) 250 J (c) 350 J (d) 50 J 56. Figure shows the volume versus temperature graph for the same V P2 P1 mass of a gas(assumed ideal) corresponding to two different pressures P1 and P2 Then, (a) P1 P2 (b) P1 P2 (c) P1 = P2 (d)The information is insufficient T 57. A particle is vibrating simple harmonically with an amplitude ' a '. The displacement of the particle when its energy is half kinetic and half potential is : (a) a / 2 (b) a / 2 (c) a / 4 (d) zero 58. Two masses m1 and m2 are suspended together by a massless spring of spring constant k. When the masses are in equilibrium, m1 is removed without disturbing the system; the amplitude of vibration is : k (a) m1g / k (b) m2 g / k (c) ( m1 + m2 ) g / k (d) ( m2 − m1 ) g / k m1 m2 59. The first overtone of a stretched string of given length is 320 Hz. The first harmonic is (a) 320Hz (b) 640Hz (c) 160Hz (d) 480Hz www.vedantu.com 7 60. sound wave of wavelength 0.40m enters the tube at S. The r smallest radius r of the circular segment to hear minimum at D S detector D must be (a) 1.75m (b) 0.175m (c) 0.93m (d) 9.3m 61. Two point charges −2Q and +Q are situated as shown in −2Q +Q the figure. At which point could the resultant electric field A B C D due to these charges be zero ? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D 62. A network of six identical capacitors, each of value c , is made as shown in the figure. Equivalent capacitance between points A A and B is (a) c / 4 (b) 3c / 4 (c) 4c / 3 (d) 3c B 63. When a capacitor remains connected to a battery, a dielectric slab is introduced between the plates. Then (a) potential difference between the plates increases (b) energy stored in the capacitor increases (c) electric field between the plates decreases (d) charge on the plates decreases 64. How many calories of heat will be approximately developed in a 210W electric bulb in 5 min ? (a) 15,000 (b) 1050 (c) 63,000 (d) 80,000 65. ABCD is a square loop made of a uniform conducting wire. The current enters the loop at A and leaves at D. The magnetic field is C B (a) zero only at the centre of the loop (b) maximum at the centre of the loop (c) zero at all points outside the loop A D (d) zero at all points inside the loop 66. A Magnet of magnetic moment M is rotated through 360 in a magnetic field. The work done is (a) MH (b) 2MH (c) 2pMH (d) zero 67. A horizontal straight conductor when placed along south-north direction falls under gravity; there is (a) an induced current from south to north direction (b) an induced current from north to south direction (c) no induced emf along the length of the conductor (d) an induced emf along the length of the conductor www.vedantu.com 8 68. Two circular, similar, coaxial loops carry equal currents in the same direction. If the loops are brought nearer, what will happen ? (a) current will increase in each loop (b) current will decrease in each loop (c) current will remain same in each loop (d) current will increase in one and decrease in the other 69. In a circuit, if the rms voltage of the ac supply remains constant when the frequency is varied between 50Hz and 50kHz , which of the graphs below best illustrates the variation of current through the ammeter with frequency ? (a) (b) i i f f i (c) (d) i f f 70. In X − ray tube the accelerating potential applied at the anode is V volt. The minimum wavelength of the emitted x − ray will be (a) eV / h (b) h / eV (c) eV / ch (d) hc / eV 71. A plane mirror is approaching you at 10 cms−1. Your image shall approach you with a speed of (a) +10cm s−1 (b) −10cm s−1 (c) +20cm s−1 (d) −20cm s−1 72. Monochromatic light of wavelength 1 travelling in medium of refractive index n1 enters a denser medium of refractive index n2. The wavelength in the second medium is (a) 1 ( n1 / n2 ) (b) 1 ( n2 / n1 ) (c) 1 (d) 1 ( n2 − n1 ) / n1 73. If white light is used in Young’s double slit experiment, (a) a very large number of coloured fringes can be seen (b) a very large number of coloured fringes with a central white fringe can be seen (c) very few coloured fringes can be seen, with first order violet fringes being closer to the central white fringe (d) very few coloured fringes can be seen with first order red fringes being closer to the central white fringe www.vedantu.com 9 74. The length of one rod 1 = 3.323cm and the other is 2 = 3.321cm. Both rods were measured with one measuring instrument with least count 0.001 cm. Then ( 1 − 2 ) is (a) ( 0.002 0.001) cm (b) ( 0.002 0.000) cm (c) ( 0.002 0.002) cm (d) None of these 75. Two bodies begin a free fall from the same height at a time interval of N s. If vertical separation between the two bodies is 1 after n second from the start of the first body, then n is equal to 1 1 N 1 N (a) nN (b) (c) + (d) − gN gN 2 gN 4 76. A uniform rod of length l is free to rotate in a vertical plane about a fixed horizontal axis through O. The rod begins rotating from rest from its unstable equilibrium position. When it has turned through an angle , its angular velocity is given as 6g 6g (a) sin (b) sin l l 2 6g 6g (c) cos (d) cos l 2 l 77. A boy and a man carry a uniform rod of length L, horizontally in such a way that the boy gets 1/4th load. If the boy is at one end of the rod, the distance of the man from the other end is (a) L / 3 (b) L / 4 (c) 2L / 3 (d) 3L / 4 78. Two rods A and B of the same material and length have their radii r1 and r2 respectively. If they are rigidly fixed at one end and twisted by the same couple at other end, then theangle of twist at theend of A is theangle of twist at theend of B (a) r12 / r22 (b) r13 / r23 (c) r24 / r14 (d) r14 / r24 79. Three successive resonance frequencies in an organ pipe are 1310,1834 and 2358 Hz. The frequency of 1st overtone (in Hz) is (velocity of sound in air is 340 m / s ) (a) 262 (b) 786 (c) 1310 (d) 1834 80. Two rods of copper and steel having same area of cross – section but different lengths l1 and l2 respectively are connected to each other. The combined length of two rods fits between two walls without any stress on walls. If 1 and 2 are their coefficient of linear expansion, Y1 and Y2 are their Young’s modulus respectively, then (There is no buckling of rods while heating) With increase in temperature: (a) the combined length of rods on heating remains l1 + l2 but l1 and l2 both changes (b) the combined length l1 + l2 as well as l1 and l2 remains the same (c) on heating length of each rod increases and combined length also increases www.vedantu.com 10 (d) combined length remains l1 + l2 while length of one rod increases and that of other decreases 81. A charged particle q is placed at the center O of cube of length L ( ABC D E F G H ). Another same charge q is placed at a 3L distance L from O and from B. Then the electric flux 2 through ABCD is (a) q / 4 0 L (b) Zero (c) q / 2 0 L (d) q / 3 0 L 82. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is Ca (fig. a) A dielectric of dielectric constant K is inserted as shown in fig (b) and (c). If Cb and Cc denote the capacitances in fig (b) and (c), then (a) Both Cb , Cc Ca (b) Cc Ca while Cb Ca (c) Both Cb , Cc Ca (d) Ca = Cb = Cc 83. Three resistances are connected to form a T-shape as showing the figure. Then the current in the 4 resistor is (a) 0.93 mA (b) 1.42 mA (c) 2.5 mA (d) 1.57 mA 84. A parallel beam of light is incident normally on a plane surface absorbing 40% of the light and reflecting the rest. If the incident beam carries 60 watt of power, the force exerted by it on the surface is (a) 3.2 10−8 N (b) 3.2 10−7 N (c) 5.12 10−7 N (d) 5.12 10−8 N 85. The velocity of electromagnetic waves in a medium of dielectric constant 4 is (velocity of light in air is 3 108 m sec) (a) 3 1016 m s (b) 0.75 109 m s (c) 1.5 108 m s (d) 2 1010 m s 86. The diagram shows the energy levels for an electron in a certain atom. Which transition shown represents the emission of a photon with the most energy? (a) IV (b) III (c) II (d) I www.vedantu.com 11 87. A sinusoidal voltage of rms value 200 volt is connected to the diode and capacitor C in the circuit shown so that half wave rectification occurs. The final potential difference in volt across C is (a) 500 (b) 200 (c) 283 (d) 141 88. In Fraunhofer’s single slit diffraction experiment (a) width of the central bright band is twice the width of the third bright band (b) width of the central bright band is equal to the width of the second bright band (c) width of the central bright band is half of the width of the fifth bright band (d) width of the central bright band is quarter the width of the seventh bright band 89. A massless rod of length L is suspended by two identical A C strings AB and CD of equal length. A block of mass m is suspended from point O such that BO is equal to ' x '. Further it is observed that the frequency of 1st harmonic in AB is equal to O B D 2nd harmonic frequency in CD. ' x ' is L x L 4L m (a) (b) 5 5 3L L (c) (d) 4 4 90. A light ray is incident perpendicularly to one face of a 90o prism and is totally internally reflected at the glass-air interface. If the angle of reflection is 45 , we conclude that the refractive index n 1 (a) n (b) n 2 2 1 (c) n (d) n 2 2 Biology 91. Which one of the following is called maiden-hair fern? (a) Dryopteris (b) Pteris (c) Adiantum (d) Lycopodium 92. Bicollateral conjoint vascular bundles have (a) Xylem and phloem, which are arranged in an alternate manner on different radii. (b) Xylem and phloem, which are situated at the same radius and it has two groups of phloem along the two sides of xylem (inside and outside) (c) Xylem and phloem in same radius but it has only one group phloem outside the xylem www.vedantu.com 12 (d) Phloem surrounds the xylem tissues 93. Which of the following processes make direct use of oxygen? (a) Glycolysis (b) Fermentation (c) Electron transport (d) Krebs citric acid cycle 94. The large, empty and colourless cells present at intervals on the upper surface of grass leaf are called (a) bulliform cells (b) palisade parenchyma (c) spongy parenchyma (d) accessory cells 95. The method of inducing early flowering by pretreatment of seeds with a certain low temperature is called (a) Photoperiodism (b) abscission (c) Vernalisation (d) phototaxis 96. The technique that was employed to produce haploids of Datura was (a) Meristem culture (b) anther culture (c) Embryo culture (d) protoplast culture 97. SCID is caused by defective gene coding for the enzyme called (a) Adenosine transaminase (b) guanosine transaminase (c) Adenosine deaminase (d) guanosine deaminase 98. The leaves are modified into tendrils, hook pitcher and bladder in the following plants respectively. (a) Sweet pea, cat’s nail, Nepenthes, Utricularia (b) Sweet pea, cat’s nail, Utricularia, Nepenthes (c) Nepenthes, cat’s nail, sweet pea, Utricularia (d) Nepenthes, sweet pea, cat’s nail Utricularia 99. A lysogenic cycle involves (a) early lysis of the host cell (b) the ultimate formation of a prophase (c) lysis by the lambda lytic protein (d) a period of genome integration 100. In the diagram given above, parts labelled as ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’, ‘E’, and ‘F’ are respectively identified as: (a) synergids, polar nuclei, central cell, antipodals, filiform apparatus and egg (b) polar nuclei, egg, antipodals, central cell, filiform apparatus and synergids (c) egg, synergids, central cell, filiform apparatus, antipodals and polar nuclei (d) central cell, polar nuclei, filiform apparatus, anitpodals, synergids and egg www.vedantu.com 13 (e) filiform apparatus, polar nuclei, egg, antipodals, synergids and central cell 101. The genetic alteration of a cell’s genome is called (a) transformation (b) reverse transcription (c) genome conversion (d) invasion 102. Unlike the flow through vessels, water conducted by tracheids must flow through (a) pits (b) pores (c) sieve plates (d) tubes only 103. The primary walls of the endodermis are impregnated with (a) lignin (b) was (c) proteins (d) suberin 104. Which of the following is not a true statement about the kingdom Protista? (a) It is an artificial grouping. (b) Its members are placed there as a matter of convenience. (c) Although diverse, the group represents a closely related group evolutionarily (d) It contains unicellular, colonial and multicellular groups. 105. Which of the following flowering arrangements promotes self-pollination? (a) Monoecious (b) Dioecious (c) Dichogamous (d) none of these 106. The usefulness of fermentation as a means of deriving energy is limited because (a) It cannot generate enough ADP (b) It produces too much NH2 (c) The end products are toxic to the producer (d) It uses more energy than it produces 107. Give below is the diagram of bacteriophage. In which one of the options all the four parts A, B, C and D are correct A B C D (a) tail fibres head sheath collar (b) sheath collar head tail fibres (c) head sheath collar tail fibres (d) collar tail fibres head sheath 108. The dark reaction in photosynthesis is limited by (a) CO2, temperature and light (b) CO2, light and water (c) Water, temperature and CO2 (d) Oxygen, water and temperature 109. Which of the following is a protein that interferes with virus production, and is produced by most cells in response to a vital infection? (a) Complemen (b) Interferon (c) Lysoszyme (d) Mucus 110. Which of these are not a part of nucleotide molecules? (a) Ribose or doxyribose (b) Nitrogenous organic bases (c) Phosphate groups (d) Peptides www.vedantu.com 14 111. Which of these processes is associated with meiosis, but not mitosis? (a) DNA replication prior to division (b) Cytokinesis (c) Crossing over (d) Prophase-metaphase-anaphase-telophase sequence 112. During the process of DNA replication (a) One new DNA strands is formed (b) The production of new nucleotide strands is catalysed by DNA ligase (c) Short segments are spliced together by DNA polymerase’ (d) Each new DNA molecule has one strand of nucleotides from the original DNA and one newly synthesized strand. 113. Regions of DNA that do not code for portions of a protein are called (a) Anticodons (b) codons (c) Exons (d) introns 114. Chemical reactions that convert glucose to pyruvic acid in the cell are called (a) Aerobic respiration (b) anaerobic respiration (c) The citric acid cycle (d) glycolysis 115. A sequence of nucleotides in DNA that provides a set of chemical instructions for making a functional protein is called a (a) Codon (b) anticodon (c) Peptide bond (d) gene 116. Microtubules are (a) Composed of actin filaments (b) Essential components of cilia, flagella, centrioles and spindle fibres (c) Responsible for changes in cell shape (d) Smaller in diameter than other cytoskeleton components 117. An energy bearing compound that promotes chemical reactions in cells and initiates the activity of metabolic machinery is (a) NADP (b) NAD (c) FAD (d) c-AMP 118. The transfer of genes from one chromosome to another during synapsis is termed as (a) Linkage (b) crossing over (c) Dominance (d) Independent assortment 119. The main function of contractile vacuole in Protozoa is (a) Nutrition (b) excretion (c) Respiration (d) osmoregualtion 120. An input of energy is required for which one of the following (a) Diffusion (b) Osmosis (c) Active transport (d) Facilitated diffusion 121. Gibberellin is obtained from (a) Phytophthora infestans (b) Fusarium moniliforme www.vedantu.com 15 (c) Gibberella fujikuroi (d) Alternaria solani 122. Which of the following theories gives the latest explanation for closure of stomata? (a) Starch glucose theory (b) Munch theory (c) ABA theory (d) Active K+ transport theory 123. Rough endoplasmic reticulum differs from smooth walled endoplasmic reticulum due to the presence of (a) DNA (b) nucleus (c) ribosomes (d) ergastic substance 124. Which of the following transfers the electrons in ETS (Electron Transport System)? (a) Quantasome (b) F – particles (c) Phytochrome (d) Cytochrome 125. In photosynthesis, photolysis of water is useful for (a) Reduction of NADP (b) oxidation of NADP (c) Oxidation of FAD (d) none of the above 126. The plants face wilting due to use of excessive fertilizers, because of (a) exosmosis (b) endosmosis (c) imbibtion (d) All of these 127. The transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another by virus is called (a) Translation (b) transduction (c) conjugation (d) transformation 128. In photosynthesis (a) Oxidation of CO2 takes place (b) Reduction of H2O takes place (c) Oxidation of H2O takes place (d) Reduction of NH3 takes place 129. Which of the following representations shows the pyramid of numbers in a forest ecosystem? (a) D (b) A (c) B (d) C 130. RNA processing (a) takes place in the cytoplasm (b) is the same as transcription (c) is an event that occurs after RNA is transcribed (d) is the rejection of old, worn-out RNA 131. During protein synthesis, an anticodon of a transfer RNA (tRNA) pairs with (a) amino acids in the polypeptide (b) DNA nucleotide bases (c) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) nucleotide bases (d) messenger RNA (mRNA) nucleotide bases 132. The enzyme responsible for adding new nucleotides to a growing DNA chain during DNA replication is www.vedantu.com 16 (a) helicase (b) DNA polymerase III (c) RNA polymerase II (d) Ribozymes 133. Embryo culture is performed to (a) To develop seeds quickly (b) Raise large number of plants (c) Overcome dormancy and multiply rare hybrids (d) To avoid fertilization 134. The enzyme commonly referred to as molecular scissors is (a) DNA ligase (b) Restriction endonuclease (c) RNA polymerase (d) DNA Polymerase 135. Restriction endonuclease cuts DNA at specific sites but does not destroy the cellular Dna because (a) The cellular DNA does not have cutting sites (b) The susceptible sites are masked by proteins (c) The restriction enzyme specific sites are modified by methylation (d) The restriction sites and the cellular DNA are in different regions 136. A Radial symmetry is usually associated with (a) Creeping mode of locomotion (b) Lower grade of organisation (c) Sedentary mode of life (d) Aquatic mode of life 137. Which of the following is transparent tissue? (a) Tendon (b) Ligament (c) Fibrous Cartilage (d) Hyaline Cartilage 138. Keratinized dead layer of skin is made of (a) Stratified squamous (b) Simple Cuboidal (c) Simple Columnar (d) Stratified Columnar 139. Colleterial glands of cockroach help in : (a) Copulation (b) Fertilization (c) Formation of ootheca chamber (d) formation of Ootheca 140. Periplaneta Americana differs from Blatta orientalis in : (a) Well developed wings on the body (b) Wingless body (c) Only one pair of wings on the body (d) Only two pairs of wings are developed 141. Argentaffin cells are found in : (a) Pancreas (b) Internal ear (c) Gastric glands (d) Crypts of Lieberkuhn 142. Stenson’s duct is associated with : (a) Parotid gland (b) Sublingual gland (c) Submandibular gland (d) Thyroid gland 143. Mark the add one : (a) Rhinitis is another name of Hay fever www.vedantu.com 17 (b) Hay fever develops due to atopic hypersensitivity to pollen & feathers etc (c) Rhinitis is not transmitted by constant, but transmitted orally (d) In hay fever there is running nose, watery eyes, sneezing, dry cough etc 144. Which one of the following statement is wrong as far as symptoms of emphysema : (a) In emphysema there is increasing breathlessness (b) The patient may have difficulty in walking across a room (c) Taking the air in inspiration becomes difficult (d) There is difficulty to exhale air out is expiration 145. The cardiac or heart muscles beat always rhythmically by : (a) External stimuli (b) Their own property (c) Action of liver (d) Action of Hormones 146. Aldosterone hormone controls sodium ion reabsorption. Lower level of aldosterone secretion causes : (a) Increased excretion of sodium ions. (b) Decreased excretion of sodium ions (c) Unchanged excretion of sodium ions (d) none of these 147. Substances like pigments, antibiotics, hydrogen ions, urea etc are excreted mainly by : (a) Tubular secretion (b) Reabsorption (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) none of these 148. A person taking protein rich diet will eliminate more: (a) Urea (b) Creatinine (c) Albumin (d) Glycogen 149. The autonomic nervous system which operates independently from the brain, does not regulate : (a) Respiration (b) Blood circulation (c) Excretion (d) Learning and memory 150. The terminals of the postganglionic fibres in sympathetic division secrete: (a) Acetylocholine (b) Adrenaline (c) Gastrin (d) none of these 151. In ANS the post ganglionic fibres supplying organ are : (a) medullated (b) non-medullated (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these 152. Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect the secretion of which one of the following? (a) Cortisol (b) Aldosterone (c) Both androstenedione and dehydropiandrosterone (d) Adrenaline 153. Which of the following hormone is not steroid? (a) Androgen (b) Aldosterone (c) Testosterone (d) Vasopressin 154. Zygomatic arch bone is found in the : (a) Skull (b) Vertebra (c) Sternum (d) Pelvic girdle 155. In most of the mammals vertebrae are : (a) Acoelous (b) Procoelous (c) Heterocoelous (d) Platycoelous www.vedantu.com 18 156. The _______ of axis acts as centrum of atlas (a) Transverse (b) Articular (c) Odontoid (d) Palatine 157. In sweat peas, genes C and P are necessary for colour in flowers. The flowers are white in the absence of either or both the genes. What will be the percentage of coloured flowers in the offspring of the cross Ccpp x ccPp ? (a) 75% (b) 25% (c) 100% (d) 50 % 158. If a homozygous red-flowered plant is crossed with a homozygous white-flowered plant, the offsprings will be (a) Half-white flowered (b) Half red-flowered (c) All white-flowered (d) All red-flowered 159. Mendel was not able to say anything about recombination and crossing over because (a) He did not have a large and strong microscope (b) He chose only pure type (c) Traits he chose, were not linked and present on different chromosomes or were far apart (d) Triats he chose had no genes 160. Albinism and phenylketonuria are disorders due to (a) Recessive autosomal genes (b) Dominant autosomal genes (c) Recessive sex genes (d) Dominant sex genes 161. Which plant species is on the verge of extinction due to over-exploitation? (a) Gloriosa (b) Podophyllum (c) Ceritella (d) all of these 162. If the high altitude birds become rare or extinct, the plants which may disappear along with them are (a) Pine (b) Oak (c) Orchids (d) Rhododendrons 163. If the Bengal Tiger becomes extinct (a) Hyenas and wolves will become scarce (b) The wild areas will be safe for man and domestic animals (c) Its gene pool will be lost for ever (d) The populations of beautiful animals like deers will get stabilized 164. Which of the following is a vestigial structure in python? (a) Hind limbs (b) Teeth (c) Poison glands (d) Scales 165. Which of the following monkey has prehensile tail? (a) Spider monkey (b) Loris (c) Rhesus monkey (d) Tarsiers 166. Camouflage of Chameleon is associated with (a) Chromoplast (b) Chromosome (c) Chromatophore (d) Chromomere 167. Which of the following gland controls egg production and moulting in insects? (a) Corpus callosum (b) Corpora allata (c) Corpora cardiaca (d) all of these 168. Tadpoles can be made to grow in size by www.vedantu.com 19 (a) Inhibiting throxine hormone (b) Feeding the eggs of other frogs (c) Injecting gonadotrophic hormones (d) Providing them with suitable climatic conditions 169. Meroblastic cleavage refers to which type of division of eggs? (a) Incomplete (b) Total (c) Horizontal (d) Spiral 170. The placenta of human beings belong to the category of (a) Haemo-chorial (b) Syndesmo-chorial (c) Endothelio-chorial (d) Epithelio-chorial 171. Immediately after ovulation, the mammalian egg is covered by a membrane known as (a) Chorion (b) Zona pellucida (c) Corona radiate (d) Vitelline membrane 172. Hominids were originated during (a) Miocene (b) Pliocene (c) Oligocene (d) Palaeocene 173. Wings of pigeon, mosquito and bat show (a) Divergent evolution (b) Atavism (c) Convergent evolution (d) All of these 174. “They have raised cheek bones, oblique eyes and yellowish skin colours”, Here they refers to (a) Adrenoids (b) Negroids (c) Mongoloids (d) Africans 175. The cranial capacity was largest among the (a) Peking man (b) Java ape man (c) African man (d) Neanderthal man 176. The branch, which is associated with diagnosis, prevention and cure of mental disorder is called (a) Neurology (b) Psychiatry (c) Neuropsychiatry (d) Psychology 177. July 11 is observed as (a) World population day (b) No tobacco day (c) World environment day (d) World health day 178. Cocaine is a stimulant, which may cause addiction, It is an alkaloid obtained from (a) Eucalyptus (b) Erythroxylon (c) Rauwolfia (d) Papaver 179. A baby has been born with a small tail. It is a case exhibiting (a) Retrogressive evolution (b) Mutation (c) Atavism (d) Metamorphosis 180. Cyclosporin is used as (a) Allergic eczema (b) Immunodepressant (c) Prophylactic for viruses (d) Prophylactic for marasmus www.vedantu.com 20 Chemistry: Answer Key: 1. b 2. a 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. a 9. b 10. d 11. b 12. a 13. b 14. b 15. b 16. a 17. c 18. d 19. c 20. b 21. c 22. c 23. c 24. b 25. c 26. d 27. c 28. a 29. c 30. c 31. b 32. b 33. a 34. d 35. d 36. a 37. b 38. b 39. a 40. d 41. b 42. c 43. b 44. c 45. d Physics: Answer Key: 46. b 47. d 48. a 49. d 50. c 51. c 52. d 53. a 54. c 55. c 56. a 57. b 58. a 59. c 60. b 61. d 62. c 63. b 64. a 65. a 66. d 67. c 68. b 69. c 70. d 71. c 72. a 73. c 74. c 75. c 76. c 77. a 78. c 79. b 80. d 81. b 82. a 83. d 84. b 85. c 86. b 87. c 88. a 89. a 90. b Biology: Answer Key: 91. c 92. b 93. c 94. a 95. c 96. b 97. c 98. a 99. d 100. a 101. a 102. a 103. d 104. c 105. d 106. c 107. c 108. 109. b 110. d 111. c 112. d 113. d 114. d 115. d 116. b 117. d 118. b 119. d 120. c 121. c 122. d 123. c 124. d 125. a 126. a 127. b 128. c 129. d 130. c 131. d 132. b 133. c 134. b 135. c 136. c 137. d 138. a 139. c 140. a 141. c 142. a 143. c 144. c 145. b 146. a 147. a 148. a 149. d 150. b 151. b 152. d 153. d 154. a 155. a 156. c 157. b 158. d 159. c 160. a 161. b 162. d 163. c 164. a 165. a 166. c 167. b 168. a 169. a 170. a www.vedantu.com 21 171. c 172. b 173. c 174. c 175. d 176. c 177. a 178. b 179. c 180. b Chemistry Solutions: 1. Li + and H − are isoelectronic. Radius of anion is larger than that of cation. PM 2. d= RT d , T are constant PM PM d = 1 1 d= 2 2 RT RT PM 1 1 = P2 M 2 2 M1 = 5 28 M1 = 70 g / mol 3. SF4 ( sp3d sea saw ) BrCl3 ( sp3d T − shape) , XeOF2 ( sp3d T − shape ) , XeF4 ( sp3d 2 square planar ) 4. 6 moles KHC2O4 = 2 mole K2Cr2O7 1 1 mole KHC2O4 = mole of K2Cr2O7 3 1 1 R − 1 = 4 25 5. 2 1 1 R − 9 25 1 21R 25 9 21 9 = = 2 100 16R 16 4 6. Radial nodes = n − l −1 nodal planes=l 7. Small anion forms stable compound with small contain. 8. Diborane molecule has four 2 C – 2 e bonds and two 3 C – 2 e banana bonds 9. COOH con. H SO 2 4 KOH Cl2 CO + CO2 CO COCl2 -H2O CO2 COOH poisonous gas is absorbed www.vedantu.com 22 OH 10. H3 PO5 structure is P HO O O H O 11. In S8 every S atom is in sp 3 hybridized state S S S S S S S S 12. In MnO4− , oxidation state of manganese is +7 , ( x − 8 = −1 x = +7) Mn 4s2 3d 5 Mn+7 4S 0 3d 0 170 + - 13. i = = 1.835 AgNO3 Ag +NO 3 92.64 n=2 i − 1 1.835 − 1 = = = 0.835 n −1 2 −1 degree of dissociation= 83.5% P1 14. = −2.303nRT log P2 10 = −2.303 10 8.314 300log 1 = −57441.4 J W = −mgh 57441.4 = m 9.8 100 m = 58.55kg 15. No. of moles of MnO4− changed to MnO4−2 = 1 − 0.899 = 0.101 For 1 mole =1 F For 0.101 mole = 0.1 F 16. Lower the SRP value higher is the reducing power 1 17. Effective no. of A atoms = 8 = 1 8 1 Effective no. of B atoms = 6 =3 2 Formula = AB3 18. It is Z.E or E.Z. O O O C 6H 6 /AlCl 3 C 6H 6 /AlCl 3 CHCl3 Air/hv Cl C Cl C6H5 C Cl C6H5 C C6H5 www.vedantu.com 23 19. - I2/OH 20. CH3 CH2 CH2 Cl2 CH3 [CH3 CH2 CH2 C(OH)2 CH3] CH3 CH2 CH2 CO CH3 CHI3 21. OH Oxidation CH3 CH CH2 CH3 CH3 CO CH2 CH3 - OH 22. RCX3 RC(OH)3 R COOH -H2O AgNO3 X2/ 23. R COOH R COOAg R X +AgX+CO2 LiAlH4 24. C6H5 NO2 C6H5 N N C6H5 Zn/NaOH C6H5 NO2 C6H5 NH NH C6H5 CH 3 ONa/CH 3 OH C 6 H5 NO 2 C 6 H5 N N C 6 H5 O Zn/NH4Cl C6H5 NO2 C6H5 NHOH 25. P = PAO xA + PBO xB 3 1 550 = PAO + PBO 4 4 550 = 0.75PAO + 0.25PBO Similarly 560 = 0.8PAO + 0.2PBO 3 1 550 = PAO + PBO 4 4 2200 = 3PAO + PBO …. (1) 4 O 1 O 560 = PA + PB 5 5 2800 = 4PAO + PBO …. (2) From equation (1) and (2), 2800 = 4PAO + PBO 2200 = 3PAO + PBO 600 = PAO H N N +3(H-H) 2N H ΔH= − 90KJ H www.vedantu.com 24 26. Hreaction = ( BE )reactants − ( BE )products −90 = ( BE )N N + 3( BE )H − H − 6 ( BE )N − H −90 = x + 3 435 − 6 390 x = 945 KJ 27. CH3 H CH3 H CH3 C C CH3 -Br Hydride shift CH3 C C CH3 H Br H CH3 H CH3 H - CH3 C C CH3 OH CH3 C C CH3 H OH H 28. Ethyl alcohol and dimethyl ether are functional isomers. Because they have same M.F. 29. Phenol is commonly called carbolic acid. 30. Combustion zone is the highest temperature zone. 31. Cuprite ( Cu2O) is a cuprous ore containing Cu+. 32. Fe2O3 + CO → 2FeO+CO2 33. Let mass of methane = Hydrogen = 16g. n of methane = 16/16 = 1; n of hydrogen = 16/2 = 8 1 1 Partial pressure of methane = Ptotal = Ptotal 1 + 8 9 34. Radius of n = 2 orbit = r1 n2 = 0.53A 22 = 2.12 A 35. Conceptual 36. 5 → 1 represents highest energy. 37. In case 1, let increase in temp. is 2H /100 = H /50 In case 2, increase in temp is H / 50 = H / 50 38. Let B − ions constituting the lattice = 1 number of tetrahedral holes =2 Now, 25% of tetrahedral holes are occupied by A+. 1 Number of A+ ions = 25% of 2 = 2 A : B www.vedantu.com 25 1 : 1 2 1 : 2 formula is AB2 39. Cs + has biggest radius as ionic radius increases down the group. 40. For transition elements, the d – subshells are not filled monotonically (one at a time) with increase in atomic number. This is because of extra stability of half-filled (d ) 5 and fully filled (d ) 10 configuration Moreover, there are many other exceptional configurations like Nb, Mo Rh, Pd, etc. 41. Graphite is the purest and thermodynamically the most stable form of carbon. 1 4 42. Hybridisation of Be atom in BeCl2 = 2 + 2 − 0 + 0 = = 2 ( sp linear ) 2 2 2 1 2 6 ( Hybridisation of B atom in BCl3 = 3 + 3 − 0 + 0 = = 3 sp2. trigonal planar ) 43. B.O. of O2+ ( 2.5) is more than that of O2 ( 2.0) ad is also paramagnetic due to one electron in antibonding M.O. COOH Conc H2SO4 CO2 + CO+H2O 44.. COOH Oxalic acid K2CO3 + H2O 2KOH + CO2 Caustic potash 45. As molecular weight of noble gas increases boiling point also increases. Physics Solutions: 46. T3 = ( m1 + m2 + m3 ) a 36 = (1 + 8 + 27 ) a a = 1m / s 2 Now T2 = ( m1 + m2 ) a = (1 + 8) 1 = 9N 47. Apply a = g sin − g cos Rg tan + 48. Vmax = 1 − tan 49. As there is no external force, so centre of mass remains at rest. 2 2 50. I = 2 mr 2 + 2 mr 2 + 2ma2 5 5 www.vedantu.com 26 GM GM 51. VA = and VB = Given rB = 3rA, rA rB mVA2 m GM GMm 2 GMm FB rA 1 Now FA = = = 2 FB = 2 = 2= rA rA rA rA rB FA rB 9 2.2 1011 2 10−6 0.5 10−3 52. Y = Fl / Al or F = YAl / l or F = 2 = 1.1102 N 1 53. Energy density = stress strain 2 stress ( stress ) 2 1 1 = stress = 4 2 Y 2Y D u A DB4 = 2 = 16 4 Now, = uB DA4 54. Specific gravity Weight in air = Loss of weight in water 60 = =3 60 − 40 55. U = 2.5 PV So, U = 2.5PV Also, W = PV So, Q = U + W = 3.5PV ( = 3.5 1105 Nm−2 ) ( 2 −1) 10−3 m3 = 350 J 56. Since the graph is a straight line, so V = mT , where m is the slope = ( nRT ) / P [From equation of state] or, m (1/ P ) or, m2 m1 P2 P1 57. Kinetic energy=Potential energy 1 2 ( 1 ) m 2 a2 − y2 = m 2 y 2 2 a2 − y 2 = y 2 a 2 y 2 = a2 y = 2 58. With mass m2 alone, the extension of the spring l is given as m2 g = kl …(1) With mass ( m1 + m2 ) , the extension l ' is given by ( m1 + m2 ) g = k (l + l ) …(2) www.vedantu.com 27 The increase in extension is l which is the amplitude of vibration. Subtracting (1) from (2), we get mg m1g = k l or l = 1 k 59. Let the fundamental frequency be v. Then the frequency of nth overtone= ( n + 1) v. Given, 2v = 320 v = 160Hz. 60. Path difference = ( r − 2r ) = ( 2n − 1) For minima 2 Given = 0.40m, for smallest radius n = 1( 3.14 − 2) r = 2 0.40 r= = = 0.175m 2 1.14 2 1.14 61. Electric field due to charge + I Q Q, E+ = 4 0 r 2 + Electric field due to charge – −I Q 2Q, E− =. 4 0 r 2 − For net field to be zero. I Q I 2Q = − 4 0 r 2 4 0 r−2 − 1 2 Or = r−2 r−2 Or r−2 = 2r−2 or r = 2r+ The condition is satisfied by point D. 62. A B 1 63. Battery supplies charges so that V remains U = qV . 2 www.vedantu.com 28 210 5 60 64. Heat in calories = = 15000 4.2 3l l 65. B1 B2 3 r r Clearly, the two fields are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction. 66. The magnet is back to original position. An interesting fact. No work done, if = 2 , where n = 0,1,2,3,.... 67. No induced current is set up as the magnetic field line of earth is not cut by the falling conductor. 68. When the loops are brought nearer, magnetic flux linked with each loop increases. Thus the current will be induced in each loop in a direction opposite to its own current in order to oppose increase in magnetic flux. This is in accordance with Lenz’s law. So, the current will decrease in each loop. 69. l is maximum at a certain frequency. This frequency is called resonance frequency. hc 70. eV = hv = hc = eV 71. As is clear from the figure the new distance is 2x − 2 y. The distance of image from the object is reduced by an amount 2v in one second. x x x−v x −v c f 72. n1 = = = v1 f 1 1 c f n2 = = = v2 f 2 2 n Now, 1 = 2 n2 1 n or 2 = 1 1 n2 73. For the central fringe, all the colours have zero path difference nD Again, yn = d is least for violet. 74. 1 − 2 = ( 3.323 0.001) − ( 3.321 0.001) = ( 0.002 0.002) cm www.vedantu.com 29 1 2 1 75. y1 = gn , y2 = g ( n − N ) 2 2 2 1 2 y1 − y2 = g n − (n − N ) 2 2 y1 − y2 = 1 g 1 = ( 2n − N ) N 2 N n= + gN 2 1 2 76. 1 = Loss of gravitational potential energy 2 1 ml 2 2 mgl = (1 + cos ) 2 3 2 3g 2 6g 2 = 2cos = cos l 2 l 2 77. So couple about the C.M must be zero for rotational W L 3W L equilibrium, It means that = x x = & the 4 2 4 6 L L L L distance of men from other and is −x= − = 2 2 6 3 r 4 78. Couple per unit angle of twist, C = 2 r 4 Couple = C = 2 Here , ,C & are same. So, r 4 = constant 1 r24 = 2 r14 79. The given frequencies are in the ratio such that it satisfies frequencies of closed end organ pipe. f1 = nV f2 = ( n + 2 )V 4l and 4l 1310 = n 340 and 1384 = ( n + 2) 340 4l 4l By solving n = 5 5V = 1310 4l l = 0.324 m 3V Frequency of 1st overtone = = 786 4l www.vedantu.com 30 80. Combined length remains l1 + l2 because l1 and l2 are rigidly fixed between walls, while length of one rod increases and that of other decreases 81. The flux both the charges exactly cancels the effect of each other. 0 A A 2 0 A (1 + K ) 82. Ca = and Cb = 0 = d d d d + 2 2K A A 0 0 K A and Cc = 2 + 2 = 0 (1 + K ) d d 2d 0 A or Cb = 2 (1 + K ) Ca d 0 A 1 + K or Cc = Ca Cb and Cc Ca. d 2 83. Let potential of X be x. Now current from AX and BX will pass through XC. 2 − x −4 − x x + 8 so + = 2 8 4 −4 − x x 2− x+ = +4 4 2 x x −x −1 − = +2 4 2 5x x − − =3 4 2 7x 12 − = 3 or x = − 4 7 So current in 4K will be 12 − +8 7 44 11 = = = 1.57 A 4 28 7 84. Momentum of incident light per second E 60 P1 = = = 2 10−7 c 3 108 Momentum of reflected light per sec 60 E 60 60 P2 = = = 1.2 10−7 100 c 100 3 108 Force on the surface = change in momentum per sec = P2 − ( −P1 ) = P2 + P1 = ( 2 + 1.2) 10−7 = 3.2 10−7 N www.vedantu.com 31 1 1 1 1 1 85. V = = = C = 3 108 = 1.5 108 m s 0 K 0 K 0 0 K 4 1 1 86. E = Rhc 2 − 2 n1 n2 1 1 E will be maximum for the transition for which 2 − 2 is maximum. Here n2 is the higher n1 n2 energy level. 1 1 Clearly, 2 − 2 is maximum for the third transition, i.e. 2 →1. I transition represents the n1 n2 absorption of energy. 87. A junction diode conducts during alternate half cycles of AC input supply. During a half cycle of conduction, the capacitor will charge itself to peak value of supply voltage. Voltage across capacitor = Erms 2 = 200 2V = 282.8V = 283V. 88. Width of the central bright band is twice the width of the any bright band. 1 TAB 89. Frequency of 1st harmonic of AB = 2 m 1 TCD Frequency of 2nd harmonic of CD = m Given that the two frequencies are equal. 1 TAB 1 TCD = 2 m m T AB = TCD TAB = 4TCD …. (i) 4 For rotational equilibrium of mass less rod, taking torque about point O, TAB x = TCD ( L − x ).… (ii) For translational equilibrium, TAB + TCD = mg.… (iii) mg On solving, (i) & (iii) we get, TCD = ; 5 4, g TAB = 5 Substituting these values in (ii) we get 4mg mg L x = ( L − x ) 4x = L − x x = 5 5 5 90. The incident angle is 45o. incident angle > critical angle, i ic sin i sin ic or sin 45 sin ic 1 1 1 1 sin ic = sin 45o or n n 2 n n 2 www.vedantu.com 32
