ENT-Anatomy of External Ear PDF

ENT-Anatomy of External Ear - 1. Pinna is made of A. Tympanic part of mastoid B. Auricular cartilage B C. Skin & fat alone D. Fat alone. 2. The part of pinna devoid of cartilage is A. Cymba concha B. lncisura termi...

ENT-Anatomy of External Ear - 1. Pinna is made of A. Tympanic part of mastoid B. Auricular cartilage B C. Skin & fat alone D. Fat alone. 2. The part of pinna devoid of cartilage is A. Cymba concha B. lncisura terminalis C. Antitragus B D. Scaphoid fossa 3. Skin over pinna is A. Firmly adherent on medial side B. Loosely adherent on medial side B C. Firmly adherent on both sides D. Loosely adherent on both sides 4. What is the length of external auditory canal? A. 12mm B. 24mm C. 36mm D. 48mm B 5. To visualize the tympanic membrane, the pinna has to be pulled A. Upwards, backwards, and medially B. Upwards, backwards, and laterally B C. Downwards, backwards, and laterally D. Downwards, backwards, and medially 6. A true statement about the external auditory canal is that A. Outer 1/3rd is cartilaginous and inner 2/3rd is bony part A B. Outer 2/3rd is cartilaginous and inner 1/3rd is bony part C. Outer 1/3rd is bony and inner 2/3rd is cartilaginous part D. Outer 2/3rd is bony and inner 1/3rd is cartilaginous part 7. Fissure of Santorini is: A. Deficiency in cartilaginous canal B. Connection between Middle ear and antrum A C. Connection between Inner ear and middle ear D. Deficiency in bony canal 8. True about external auditory canal is A. Outer 2/3rd is cartilaginous and inner 1/3rd is bony part B. Furuncles are seen in the cartilaginous part B C. Fissures of Santorini are present in bony part and permits parotid and superficial mastoid infections to spread to canal D. Isthmus is present at junction of cartilaginous and fibrous part 9. Ceruminous glands are A. Modified Eccrine glands B. Modified apocrine glands B C. Modified Holocrine glands D. Modified endocrine glands 10.True regarding isthmus is A. It is just lateral to the petrotympanic suture B. It is at the bony cartilaginous junction of EAC C C. It is the narrowest part of ear canal D. All of the above 11. All are true about tympanic membrane except A. It has 3 layers B. It is derived from all 3 germ layers C. It separates External from middle ear D D. Central part is more mobile 12. Colour of the normal tympanic membrane is A. Yellow B. Pearly grey B C. Red D. Pink 13. The following is false about tympanic membrane: A. 0.2 mm thick B. 90 mm2 in area A C. Angle of 55 degree with horizontal D. Inner surface is convex 14. Shrapnell's membrane is also called A. Basilar membrane B. Reissner's membrane C C. Pars flaccida D. Secondary tympanic membrane 15. Cone of light is seen in which quadrant A. Antero-superior B. Postero-superior C. Antero-inferior C D. Postero-inferior 16. Nerve supply of external ear is by all except A. Great auricular nerve B. Greater occipital nerve C. Lesser occipital nerve B D. Auriculotemporal nerve 17. Major part of pinna is supplied by A. Auriculotemporal nerve B. Greater auricular nerve C. Lesser occipital nerve D. Arnold's nerve B 18.Arnold's nerve is A. Auricular branch of vagus B. Sensory division of facial nerve A C. Tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve D. Greater auricular nerve 19. The following cranial nerve does not supply the Tympanic membrane: A. CN V B. CN X C C. CN XI D. CN IX 20. During the examination of the ear, cough response is elicited due to stimulation of which nerve? A. Facial nerve B. Vagus nerve B C. Trigeminal nerve D. Branches of C1, C2 21. Following can cause bleeding through ear A. CSF rhinorrhoea B B. Temporal bone fracture C. Zygomatic fracture D. Parotitis 22. Cough on scratching the external acoustic canal is due to? A. Auriculotemporal nerve B. Auricular branch of vagus B C. Great auricular nerve D. Facial nerve Anatomy of inner ear MCQ 1 1. Inner ear lies in C A. Parietal bone B. Occipital bone C. Petrous part of temporal bone D. Petrous part of sphenoid bone 2. Not included in bony labyrinth A. Cochlea B. Vestibule D C. Semicircular canal D. Organ of Corti 3. Bony cochlea is a coiled tube making turns around a bony pyramid called A. 1.5, modiolus B. 2.5, modiolus C. 1.5, helicotrema B D. 2.5, helicotrema 4. The vestibule A. Is part of the membranous labyrinth B. Contains spherical recess for utricle C. Contains spherical recess tor saccule C D. Is part of the auditory pathway 5. Which of the following is not a semicircular canal? A. Posterior B. Medial C. Superior B D. Lateral 6. Crus commune is a part of A. Cochlea B. Semicircular canal B C. Vestibule D. Middle ear 7. The following is not part of bony cochlea: A. Scala tympani B B. Scala vestibule C. Scala media D. Perilymph 8. Sensory organ of hearing is A. Macula C B. Cristae C. organ or Corti D. semicircular canals 9. Organ of Corti is situated in A. Scala vestibule B B. Scala media C. Scala tympani D. Saccule 10.Organ of corti is situated over A. Basilar membrane B. Reissner's membrane A C. Shrapnell's membrane D. Stria vascularis 11. Stria vascularis secretes A. Endolymph B. Perilymph A C. Both of the above D. None of the above 12. Fluid with high potassium and low sodium content is A. Endolymph B. Perilymph A C. CSF D. ECF 13. Value of endolymphatic potential is A. +80 mv B. -80 mV C. +20mV A D. -20 mV 14. Endolymph is seen in A. Scala vestibuli B. Scala media C. Scala tympani B D. Helicotrema 15. Helicotrema connects A. Scala media and scala vestibuli B. Scala media and scala tympani C C. Scala vestibuli and scala tympani D. None of the above 16. Aqueduct of cochlea connects A. Scala vestibuli with scala tympani B. Scala vestibuli with scala media C C. Scala tympani with subarachnoid space D. Saccule with utricle 17. CNS infections can spread to inner ear through A. Endolymphatic sac B. Cochlear aqueduct B C. Scala media D. Vestibular aqueduct 18.Which of the following statements is true about membranous cochlea? A. Higher frequencies heard at the base and lower frequencies at the apex. B. Lower frequencies are heard at the base and higher frequencies at the apex. C. No difference is seen A D. None of the above 19. Which of the following sentence is true? A. Cristae are present in semicircular canal B. Maculae are present in utricle and saccule C. Organ of corti rests over basilar membrane D D. All of the above 20. Angular movements are sensed by A. Utricle B. Saccule C. Semicircular canals C D. Cochlea 21. Endolymphatic duct is a continuation of A. Ductus re-unions B. Parotid duct C. Utriculo-saccular duct C D. None of the above 22. Endolymphatic duct connects A. Scala vestibuli and scala media B. Scala media and subdural space C. Scala vestibuli with aqueduct of cochlea D D. Utriculosaccular duct to endolymphatic sac 23. Endolymphatic sac is present in A. Between two layers of dura B. Extradural space in frontal bone C. Subdural space in petrous part of temporal bone A D. Subdural space in frontal bone 24. Blood supply to labyrinth is from _ A. AICA B. PICA C. Middle meningeal artery A D. Auriculotemporal artery 25. Identify the marked structure. A. Malleus B B. Incus C. Posterior Semicircular Canal D. Lateral Semicircular Canal 26. Saccule develops from: A. Saculus anterior B. Saculus posterior C. Pars superior D. Pars inferior D Anatomy of Middle Ear- MCQ Number 1 1. Protympanum is: A. The developmental predecessor of the middle ear B. Anterior part of middle ear D C. Part of the middle ear foremost in conduction of sound D. Part of middle ear around the Eustachian tube 2. Floor of middle ear is related to A. Internal carotid artery B. Internal jugular vein C. Parotid gland D. Mastoid B 3. Tegmen tympani forms A. Floor of middle ear B. Roof of middle ear C. lateral wall of middle ear B D. Medial wall of middle ear 4. The anterior wall of the middle ear does not relate to which of the following structures? A. Eustachian tube B. Canal for tensor tympani C. lnternal carotid artery D D. Prominence of the facial canal 5. The pyramid is related to all the following except A. Facial nerve B. C. Sinus tympani Stapedius muscle D D. Round window 6. Facial recess boundaries A. Medially chorda tympani and laterally facial nerve B. Laterally chorda tympani and medially facial nerve C. Not related to chorda tympani D. None of the above B 7. In intact canal wall surgeries, the middle ear is approached through A. Supra pyramidal recess B. Infra pyramidal recess C. Promontory A D. Oval window 8. Most common site for residual cholesteatoma after surgery is A. Facial recess B. Hypotympanum C. Sinus tympani C D. Prussack's space 9. Fossa lncudis attaches A. Incus head B. Incus short process C. Incus long process B D. Lenticular process 10.Which of the following forms the promontory? A. Basal tum of cochlea B. Semicircular canal A C. Handle of malleus D. Short process of incus 11. Oval window is covered by A. Footplate of stapes B. Secondary tympanic membrane A C. Tympanic membrane D. None of the above 12. Movement of stapes footplate causes vibration in A. Scala vestibuli B. Scala media C. Scala tympani A D. Pyramid 13. Round window is covered by A. Footplate of stapes B. Secondary tympanic membrane B C. Tympanic membrane D. None of the above 14. Processus cochleariformis is related to the: A. Tendon of tensor tympani B. Tendon of stapedius C. Handle of malleus D. Incus A 15. Facial nerve course in the middle ear: A. Horizontal in the medial wall, vertical in the posterior wall B. Vertical in medial wall, horizontal in posterior wall C. Horizontal only A D. Vertical only 16. Lateral wall of the middle ear is formed by A. Pars tensa B. Pars flaccida C. Scutum D D. All of the above 17. Most common site for primary cholesteatoma: A. Mastoid antrum B. Sinus tympani C. Facial Recess D D. Prussack's space 18. Narrowest part of middle ear is A. Epitympanum B. Mesotympanum C. Hypotympanum B D. None of the above 19. Distance between promontory and tympanic membrane is A. 6mm B. 4mm C C. 2mm D. 1 mm 20. All of the following are components of epitympanum except A. Head of malleus B. Body of incus C. incudomalleolar joint D. Footplate of stapes D 21. The smallest bone in the body is A. Malleus B. C. Incus Scaphoid D D. Stirrup 22. Type of joint between middle ear ossicles is A. Primary cartilaginous joint B. Secondary cartilaginous joint C C. Synovial joint D. Fibrous joint 23. The largest mastoid air cell is: A. Antrum B. C. Aditus Attic A D. Atrium 24. Macewen's triangle is the landmark for: A. Maxillary sinus B. Mastoid antrum B C. Frontal sinus D. Cochlea 25. Boundaries of the suprameatal triangle are formed by all except A. Temporal line B. Posterosuperior segment of bony external auditory canal C. Promontory D. Tangent drawn to external auditory canal C 26. Which of the following is not a pneumatic bone? A. Maxillary B. Ethmoid C. Nasal C D. Mastoid 27.In an X-ray image, acellularity of the mastoid is seen with its relations to the surrounding structures destroyed. The condition is known as A. Sclerotic mastoid A B. Pneumatized mastoid C. Diploeic mastoid D. None of the above 28. The following is not a part of temporal bone A. Mastoid B. Squamous C. Parietal C D. Tympanic 29. Korner's septum is the persistant A. Petrosquamous suture A B. Petrotympanic suture C. Tympanomastoid suture D. Petromastoid suture 30. Citelli's angle is A. Angle of TM to the horizontal B. Angle between 3rd and 4th part of facial nerve C. Angle of the styloid to the vertical D D. Angle between sigmoid sinus and tegmen 31. Donaldson's line is a landmark for A. Facial Nerve B. Lateral semicircular canal C C. Endolymphatic sac D. Chorda tympani 32. Trautmann's triangle is an approach to: A. Anterior cranial fossa B. Middle cranial fossa C. Posterior cranial fossa D. None of the above C 33. Sensory supply to middle ear cavity is provided by: A. Facial B. Vagus C. Glossopharyngeal C D. Trigeminal 34. The course of the chorda tympani in the middle ear is A. Anterior to posterior B. Just lateral to tympanic membrane C. Between the malleus and incus D D. All of the above 35. Stapedius is supplied by A. Facial nerve B. Anterior division of mandibular nerve C. D. Posterior division of mandibular nerve Maxillary nerve A 36. Tensor tympani is supplied by A. Facial nerve B. Branch from the medial pterygoid nerve C. Posterior division of mandibular nerve B D. Maxillary nerve 37.Where does one find flat non-ciliated epithelium in the middle ear cleft? A. Eustachian tube B. External auditory meatus D C. Mesotympanum D. Mastoid air cells 38. Which of the following is true about the lesser petrosal nerve? A. It is formed over the promontory D B. It is a branch of the tympanic plexus C. It supplies parotids D. All of the above 39. All of the following nerves contribute to the Tympanic Plexus except: A. Tympanic branch of Glossopharyngeal nerve D B. Superior Caroticotympanic nerve C. Inferior Caroticotympanic nerve D. Tympanic branch of Facial nerve CSOM and its Complications MCQ 1 1. Which of the following statements is true regarding cholesteatoma? A. It is a benign tumor B. It contains cholesterol crystals C C. It is also known as epidermosis or keratoma D. It has lymphatic permeation 2. The middle ear is lined by the following epithelia except A. Ciliated columnar B. Keratinizing squamous C. Cuboidal B D. Pavement-like 3. A 34-year-old man comes with a history of painless foul-smelling ear discharge and loss of hearing for 1 year. He also presented with a history of ear surgery in the same ear 3 years back. The most likely diagnosis is _ A. Primary acquired cholesteatoma B. Tertiary acquired cholesteatoma C C. Secondary acquired cholesteatoma D. Congenital cholesteatoma 4. Theories explaining origin of cholesteatoma are A. Wittmaack's theory of retraction pocket D B. Ruedi's theory of basal cell hyperplasia C. Habermann's theory of epithelial invasion D. All of the above 5. The most accepted theory for secondary cholesteatoma is A. Presence of congenital cell rests B. Basal cell hyperplasia D C. Squamous metaplasia D. Migration of squamous epithelium 6. Levenson criteria for diagnosis is used for A. Meniere’s disease B. C. Congenital cholesteatoma Otosclerosis B D. ASOM 7. Cholesteatoma causes bone destruction by A. Pressure effect B. Release of enzymes like collagenase, acid phosphate, proteolytic enzymes C. Both a & b D. None of the above B 8. True about permanent perforation is A. Seen in acute suppurative otitis media B. C. Caused by necrotizing otitis externa Has squamous epithelium at its edges C D. None of the above 9. What makes tubotympanic disease the safe type of CSOM? A. Usually does not progress into malignancy B. medical treatment can be tried D C. Does not involve the mastoid air cells D. Rarely lead to complications 10.Which of the following statements regarding Tubotympanic type of CSOM is false? A. Mixed aerobic and anaerobic infections are seen B. It is also Known as benign or safe type C. Usually associated with central perforation D. Associated with cholesteatoma D 11. The perforation shown in the image is------- B A. Large central B. Subtotal C. Total D. Attic 12. Which of the following tests are done in Tubotympanic type of CSOM? A. Patch test C B. Bonsin's test C. Both a & b D. None of the above 13. A patient with 3 years history of on & off moderate non-foul- smelling ear discharge complaints of poor hearing which improves during periods of discharge but is worse when the ear is dry. This paradoxical phenomenon can be explained by A. Bone conduction B. Cholesteatoma hearer C. Round window shielding effect C D. Patient is malingering 14. Which of the following is true about atticoantral type of CSOM? A. Most commonly involves posterosuperior part of middle ear cleft B. Associated with cholesteatoma C. Associated with marginal perforation D D. All of the above  15. All of the following regarding atticoantral type of CSOM are true except A. Myringoplasty is the surgical treatment. A B. Bloody ear discharge C. Foul smell D. Tinnitus 16. The following pre-op preparation is required before a tympanoplasty except A. Pure tone audiometry B. Routine blood counts C C. CT Temporal bone D. Informed consent 17. A 30-year-old man presents with painless, profuse discharge from the ear which is non-foul smelling. All of the following are true regarding management except D A. Aural toilet B. Topical and systemic antibiotics C. Tympanoplasty D. Canal Wall Down Mastoidectomy 18. The most common surgery done in Tubotympanic type of CSOM is A. Simple mastoidectomy D B. Radical mastoidectomy C. Modified radical mastoidectomy D. Tympanoplasty 19. Tympanoplasty is A. Eradication of middle ear disease with reconstruction of tympanic membrane A and ossicles B. Eradication of middle ear disease with reconstruction of tympanic membrane only C. Eradication of middle ear disease only D. Eradication of disease from inner ear  20.A known case of Tubotympanic disease was taken up for surgery and on examining the middle ear, few chalky white deposits were found between the ossicles. What is the diagnosis? A. Otosclerosis B. Tympanosclerosis B C. Myringosclerosis D. Candidal infection of the middle ear 21. The most common graft material used for tympanoplasty is A. Temporalis fascia B. Duramater C. Periosteum A D. Vein 22. Which of the following statements is true regarding myringoplasty? A. In underlay technique graft is placed medial to annulus B. C. In underlay technique graft is placed lateral to malleus In overlay technique graft is placed medial to annulus A D. In overlay technique graft is placed lateral to malleus 23. Wilde's incision is used in A. Sub-mucosal resection C B. Septoplasty C. Myringoplasty D. Ludwig’s angina 24. Wullstein's classification is used for A. Tympanoplasty B. Ossiculoplasty C. Myringoplasty A D. None of the above 25. Austin's classification for anatomical defects in ossicular chain is based on D A. Malleus head and stapes suprastructure B. Malleus head and stapes footplate C. Malleus handle and stapes footplate D. Malleus handle and stapes suprastructure  26. The primary treatment for middle ear cholesteatoma is-- A. Medical management B. Surgery C. Radiotherapy B D. chemotherapy 27. The treatment of choice in atticoantral variety of CSOM is A. Myringotomy B. Mastoidectomy B C. Tympanoplasty D. Myringoplasty 28.A 5-year- old child presents with scanty, foul smelling ear discharge. On examination, perforation was seen in pars flaccida of tympanic membrane. Management includes… A. Topical antibiotics with decongestants B. IV antibiotics and follow-up C. Tympanoplasty D D. Tympanomastoid exploration 29. The primary aim of surgery for cholesteatoma is A. Restoration of hearing B B. Clearing the disease C. Reconstruction of middle ear D. Closing the perforation 30. Tubercular otitis media is characterized by all except A. Ear ache B. Multiple perforations C. D. Pale granulation Foul smelling ear discharge A Disorder of External Ear MCQ 1 1. From the image, what is the diagnosis? B A. Preauricular sinus B. Preauricular tag C. Ganglion D. Neurodermatitis 2. Identify the diagnosis. a) b) Instrumental injury Congenital anomaly B c) Accessory opening of the mastoid d) None of the above 3. Identify the anomaly. A. Wildermuth ear B. Mozaic ear C C. Microtia D. Anotia 4. The ideal time for surgical correction of "bat ears" is _ A. 3 months B. 6 months D C. 3 years D. 6 years 5. Which of the following is the feature of Collaural fistula? A. Opens into the floor of the EAC B. Opens into the neck C. Traverses close to the facial nerve D D. All of the above 6. What is the diagnosis? A A. Hematoma of pinna B. Exostosis C. Perichondritis D. Preauricular sinus 7. How to preserve avulsed pinna for later reconstruction where primary repair is not possible? A. Store in refrigerator in isotonic saline B. Suture it to buccal mucosa after careful cleaning C C. Peel the skin & insert cartilage into postauricular area D. cannot be preserved 8. Identify the condition. A. Cauliflower ear B B. Perichondritis C. Chondrodermatitis chronica helicis D. Otitis externa 9. A 60-year-old male has a lesion in his ear as shown below. what is the most probable diagnosis? A. Keloid C B. Furuncle C. Chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis D. Auricular tag 10. Prevention of recurrence post excision is not achieved by A. Preoperative radiotherapy C B. Postoperative radiotherapy C. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy D. lntralesional steroid 11. The normal pH of the ear canal is A. B. Acidic Alkaline A C. Neutral D. None 12. Which of the following is true about furuncle of ear? A. b, c and d B. Localised to outer 1/3rd cartilaginous part of EAC A C. Recurrent furunculosis should be investigated for diabetes mellitus D. Staphylococcal infection of hair follicle 13. Swimmer's ear is A. Hematoma of pinna B. Exostosis C. Diffuse otitis externa C D. Malignant otitis externa 14. A 40-year-old male presents with ear discharge, itch and pain for 4 days. He gives a history of insect entry into the EAC which he removed himself. On ex- amination, there is purulent discharge in a narrow canal and TM not visual- ized. Which of the following is the most effective single treatment for this con- dition? A. Medicated wicks B B. Aural toilet C. Antibiotics D. Analgesics 15. Otomycosis is caused by A. Aspergillus niger D B. Candida C. Aspergillus fumigatus D. All of the above 16. A 20-year-old man presented with intense itching in the ear, ear pain, and wa- tery discharge from the ear with a musty odor. On examination, black headed filamentous growth was seen resembling wet blotting paper. What is your di- agnosis? A. Otomycosis by Aspergillus niger B. Otomycosis by Aspergillus fumigatus A C. Otomycosis by Candida D. None of the above 17. A 30-year-old female presents with a facial weakness to the ENT OPD. On ex- amination, she has vesicles in the EAC and over the tympanic membrane. The diagnosis is A. Bell's palsy B. Ramsay Hunt syndrome B C. Mobeus syndrome D. Syphilis 18. Otitis externa hemorrhagica is caused by A. Influenza virus B. Mycoplasma C. Both a & b C D. None of the above 19. Which of the following statements is false about malignant otitis externa? A. Pseudomonas infection B. Mainly affects immunocompromised individuals C C. Mitotic figures will be high D. Facial nerve palsy may be seen 20.A 60-year-old diabetic presented with severe pain in ear and otorrhoea not re- sponding to antibiotics. On examination, granulation tissue is seen in EAC, facial nerve palsy was present. The likely diagnosis is A. Otomycosis C B. Serous otitis media C. Malignant otitis externa D. Eczematous otitis externa 21. Which of the following components of ear drops is responsible for eczematous otitis externa? A. Clotrimazole D B. Paradichlorobenzene C. Dexamethasone D. Neomycin 22. Which of the following statements is false about wax? A. Contains secretions of glands in the EAC B B. Made of dried up middle ear discharge C. It is protective D. Is extruded out on its own during jaw movements 23. Ceruminous glands are A. Modified apocrine sweat glands A B. Eccrine glands C. Holocrine glands D. None of the above 24. This patient developed a severe cough while performing the following procedure on him. Which of the following nerve can be attributed to this? B A. Auriculotemporal nerve B. Auricular branch of vagus nerve C. Greater auricular nerve D. Facial nerve 25. During syringing, water jet is directed along A. Anterosuperior wall B B. Posterosuperior wall C. Anteroinferior wall D. Posteroinferior wall 26. Keratosis obturans is A. Foreign body in EAC B. Impacted wax C C. Desquamated epithelial cells D. Cholesterol crystals 27. Which among the following statements is true about keratosis obturans? A. Failure of migration of desquamated epithelium along posterior meatal wall B. Widening of meatus and facial nerve palsy might be seen C. Associated bronchiectasis and sinusitis D D. All of the above 28. The surgery done to widen the cartilaginous part of the external auditory canal is: A. Meatoplasty A B. Tympanoplasty C. Myringoplasty D. Otoplasty 29. Meatoplasty is indicated in A. Congenital atresia of canal D B. Chronic stenotic otitis externa C. Tortuous canal during Tympanoplasty D. All of the above 30. Normal tympanic membrane is not A. Pearly grey in colour B. Translucent C C. Convex to EAC D. Mobile 31. Which among the following is false about retracted tympanic membrane? A. Shiny, pearly white tympanic membrane A B. Foreshortened handle of malleus C. Prominent lateral process of malleus D. Sickling of anterior and posterior malleal folds 32. Grade the retraction when the pars tensa is draping over the incudostapedial joint. A. Grade I Sade B. Grade II Sade B C. Grade I Tos D. Grade II Tos Disorder of Middle ear MCQ 1 1. Middle ear cleft does not contain-- A. Tympanic cavity B. Cochlea B C. Mastoid air cell system D. Eustachian tube 2. What is Glue Ear? A. Acute Otitis Media B. Secretory Otitis Media C. Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media B D. Aero Otitis Media 3. Most common route of spread of infection in ASOM is: A. Blood borne B. C. Eustachian tube External ear B D. None of the above 4. Which of the following conditions does not predispose to Eustachian tube obstruction? A. Choanal atresia A B. Adenoid hypertrophy C. Allergic Rhinitis D. Cleft palate 5. Most common causative organism causing ASOM is: A. Beta haemolytic streptococcus B. C. Streptococcus pneumoniae Haemophilus influenza B D. Staphylococcus 6. Pain is most severe in which stage of ASOM? A. Stage of Tubal Occlusion B. Stage of Suppuration C. Stage of Pre-Suppuration B D. Stage of Resolution 7. Most common site of perforation of tympanic membrane in ASOM A. B. Anterosuperior quadrant Posteroinferior quadrant C C. Anteroinferior quadrant D. Posterosuperior quadrant 8. A 4 year old boy presents with fever, ear ache. On examination there is congested, slightly bulging tympanic membrane. Management is _ A. Antibiotics and decongestants A B. Myringotomy with antibiotics C. Myringotomy with grommet insertion D. Antihistaminics and decongestants 9. Identify the stage of ASOM A A. Pre-suppuration B. Complication C. Resolution D. Suppuration 10. Light house sign is seen in: A. Otosclerosis B B. Mastoiditis C. Glomus tumor D. CSOM 11. Myringotomy is _ A A. Surgical opening in tympanic membrane B. Repair of ossicles C. Surgical opening in eustachian tube D. Closure of perforation of tympanic membrane 12. In serous otitis media, myringotomy incision is done in which quadrant? A. Posteroinferior C B. Anterosuperior C. Anteroinferior D. Posterosuperior 13. A 6-year-old child presents with ASOM and is not responding to medical management. On examination, tympanic membrane is full and bulging. Next step in management is A. Cortical mastoidectomy B B. Myringotomy C. Tympanoplasty D. None of the above 14. Acute necrotizing otitis media is caused by A. Staphylococcus B. Beta hemolytic streptococcus C. Streptococcus pneumoniae B D. Haemophilus influenzae 15. What is the most common cause of hearing loss in children? A. Acute Otitis Media B. Otitis media with effusion B C. Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media D. Prematurity 16. Which of the following statements is true regarding serous otitis media? A. Fluid is sterile. B. Adenoid hypertrophy is the most common cause in children causing bilateral serous otitis media D C. Tumors of nasopharynx is most common cause in adults causing unilateral serous otitis media D. All of the above 17. What is the most likely diagnoses from the given image? B A. ASOM B. Serous otitis media C. CSOM D. Glomus tumor 18.What type of tympanogram is expected in this scenario? D A. A type B. Ad type C. As type D. B type 19. Identify the object: A. Partial Ossicular Replacement Prosthesis D B. Total Ossicular Replacement Prosthesis C. Piston D. Grommet 20. The following are the possible sequelae of glue ear except A. Middle Ear Atelectasis B. Otosclerosis B C. Cholesteatoma D. Tympanosclerosis 21. The following are features of otitic barotrauma except A. Hyperacusis B. Seen more in pilots and divers C. Severe earache D. Vertigo and sensorineural hearing loss A EMBRYOLOGY OF EAR AND MALFORMATIONS – MCQ 1 1. Pinna develops from A. 1st branchial arch B. 2nd branchial arch C C. 1st and 2nd branchial arch D. 2nd and 3rd branchial arch 2. Preauricular sinus is a result of? A. Persistent opening of first branchial cleft B. Improper fusion of auricular tubercle C. Infection of haematoma of pinna B D. None of the above 3. When are surgeries for congenital malformations of pinna usually performed? A Soon after birth B. Within 1 year of age C. 5 or 6 years of age D. 3 or 4 years of age C 4. EAC develops from A. lnvagination of first pharyngeal cleft B. 1st pharyngeal pouch C. 2nd branchial cleft D. 2nd branchial groove A 5. Collaural fistula is A. 1st branchial cleft anomaly B. 1st branchial pouch anomaly c. 2nd branchial cleft anomaly D. 2nd branchial pouch anomaly A 6. Which of the following structure develops from all 3 germ layers? A. Tympanic membrane B. Pinna C. Ear ossicles D. None of the above A 7. Eustachian tube develops from A. 1st pharyngeal pouch B. 1st and 2nd pharyngeal cleft C. 2nd pharyngeal pouch D. 2nd and 3rd pharyngeal cleft A  8. Malleus and incus are derived from A. 1st arch B. 2nd arch C. 3rd arch A D. 4th arch 9. Stapes develops from A. 1st arch B. 2nd arch C. 3rd arch B D. 4th arch 10. Which of the following attains adult size before birth A. Ear ossicles B. Mastoid C. Orbit A D. Cornea 11. Fetus starts hearing by how many weeks of intrauterine life? A. 10 weeks B. 20 weeks C. 30 weeks B D. 32 weeks 12. All of the following are adult size at birth except A. Ear ossicles B. Mastoid C. Tympanic membrane B D. Tympanic cavity 13. Korner's septum is: A. Frontozygomatic suture B. Petrosquamous suture C. Temporosquamous suture B D. Petromastoid suture Eustachian Tube MCQ 1 1. The length of the eustachian tube is _ C A. 12mm B. 24mm C. 36MM D. 46MM 2. All of the following sentences are true regarding eustachian tube except _ A. Also known as pharyngotympanic tube B. 36 mm in length D C. Outer 1/3rd is bony and inner 2/3rd is cartilaginous D. Connects oropharynx with middle ear 3. The narrowest part of eustachian tube is C A. Tympanic end B. Pharyngeal end C. Isthmus D. None of the above 4. Which of the following causes opening of eustachian tube? A. Tensor tympani B B. Tensor veli palatini C. Stylopharyngeus D. Ostmann's pad of fat 5. Tensor veli palatini is supplied by A. Facial nerve B B. Trigeminal nerve C. Pharyngeal plexus D. Glossopharyngeal nerve 6. Eustachian tube in children is A. Wider, shorter B. Flaccid due to less elastin content D C. More horizontal D. All of the above 7. All of the following are tests to check patency or function of eustachian tube except A. Valsalva manoeuvre B. Stenger test B C. Tympanometry D. Toynbee's manoeuvre 8. Which of the following statements is false regarding Valsalva manuevre? A. It builds negative pressure in the nasopharynx A B. It is done by blowing hard with nose close C. Assesses ET patency D. Avoided in times of URTI 9. Which of the following statements is true regarding ET catheterization? A. Uses Politzer's bag A B. Catheter is passed upwards from mouth C. Easy and safe procedure D. Used to instill medications into middle ear 10.Which among the following is the best test for ET function? · A. Valsalva maneuver C B. Toynbee maneuver C. Tympanometry D. Politzerisation 11. Autophony is seen in C A. Blocked eustachian tube B. Retracted eustachian tube C. Patulous eustachian tube D. None of the above 12. The critical level of atmospheric pressure after which barotraumatic otitis media occurs is _ A. 30 mmHg B. 60mmHg C C. 90mmHg D. 100 mmHg 13. The causes for otitic barotrauma are all except A. Rapid ascent in air A B. Rapid descent in air C. Scuba diving D. Compression in air chamber 14. Which of the following does not lead to a mechanical eustachian tube obstruction? A. Adenoid hypertrophy B. C. Allergy Cleft palate C D. DNS Facial nerve and disorders MCQ 1 1. Facial nerve is. _ A. Mixed peripheral nerve B. Sensory Cranial nerve D C. Motor peripheral nerve D. Mixed cranial nerve 2. The following is not a component of the facial nerve A. Special visceral efferent B. Special visceral afferent C. General visceral efferent D D. General somatic efferent 3. The nerve of Wrisberg is A. Auricular branch of vagus B. Tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve C. Sensory division of facial nerve C D. Auriculotemporal nerve 4. Taste sensation is carried by A. Special visceral efferent B. General visceral efferent C. Special visceral afferent C D. General somatic afferent 5. The motor nucleus of Facial Nerve is placed in _ A. Medulla B. Pons C. Midbrain D. Cerebellum B 6. The course of the 7th nerve in the pons is _ A. Hooks around 8th nerve B. Hooks around 6th nerve nucleus B C. 8th nerve hooks around it D. 6th nerve hooks around it 7. Right upper motor neuron (supranuclear lesion) of facial nerve causes. B A. Loss of taste from anterior 2/3rd of tongue B. Paralysis of lower facial muscle on left side C. Paralysis of lower facial nerve on right side D. Loss of corneal reflex 8. Patients with UMN facial nerve palsy retain emotional movements such as smiling and crying due to A. Incomplete paralysis B. Cross regeneration of fibres C C. Fibres from thalamus D. Fibres from prefrontal cortex 9. Length of the facial nerve in the CP angle is. A. 5mm B. 10mm C C. 15mm D. 20mm 10. Shortest and narrowest segment of facial nerve is_ A. Meatal segment B. Labyrinthine segment C. Tympanic segment B D. Mastoid segment 11. False about the 1st genu of the facial nerve is A. Contains a ganglion C B. Gives the first branch of the facial nerve C. Lies on the posterior wall of the middle ear D. Between the fundus of the internal acoustic meatus and the geniculate ganglion. 12. Which of the following is true for the 2nd genu of the facial nerve? A. It contains a ganglion B. It gives the second branch of the facial nerve C. It lies on the inferior wall of the middle ear D D. It is at the junction of 3rd and 4th lntratemporal segments 13. First branch of facial nerve A. Greater superficial petrosal nerve B. Nerve to stapedius A C. Chorda tympani D. Lesser petrosal nerve 14. Nerve for taste branches off from the facial nerve in which segment. _ A. Labyrinthine C B. Tympanic C. Mastoid D. Extratemporal 15. The facial nerve divides into 2 main terminal trunks. One is cervicofacial. The other is _ A. Craniofacial B B. Temporofacial C. Parietofacial D. Maxillofacial 16. Facial nerve supplies all of the following muscles except. A. Stylohyoid B B. Anterior belly of digastric C. Posterior belly of digastric D. Occipital belly of occipitofrontalis 17. Blood supply for facial nerve is by all of the following vessels except. _ A. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery D B. Labyrinthine artery C. Superficial petrosal D. Facial artery 18. Surgical landmark for facial nerve includes. A. Processus cochleariformis D B. Horizontal semicircular canal and oval window C. short process of incus D. All of the above 19. The most common site for congenital dehiscence in the fallopian canal for the facial nerve is_ _ A. Meatal C B. Labyrinthine C. Tympanic D. Mastoid 20. During parotid surgery, facial nerve is identified using A. Tip of mastoid D B. Temporomandibular joint C. Internal Jugular vein D. Tragus 21. Most common type of nerve injury A. B. Neuropraxia Axonotemesis A C. Neurotemesis D. Transection 22. Electroneuronography is most useful when done A. Immediately following injury B. Within 2 days of injury C C. 4-21 days following injury D. 2 months following injury 23. Most common cause of facial nerve palsy is A. Postoperative B. C. Bell's palsy Cholesteatoma B D. Cerebelloponline angle tumors 24. Most common cause of LMN facial nerve palsy A. Bell's palsy B. Ramsay hunt syndrome C. CP angle tumors A D. None of the above 25. Bell's palsy is. A. UMN 5th nerve B. LMN 5th nerve D C. LMN 5th nerve D. LMN 7th nerve 26. Which of the following statements are true regarding Bell's palsy? A. Sudden onset of LMN facial palsy B. Both sexes affected equally C. 10% have positive family history D D. All of the above 27. Which of the following statements are true about Bell's palsy? A. Sudden onset and Herpes virus is a cause B. Steroids are used in treatment C. Recurrence is uncommon D D. All of the above 28. In Bell phenomenon, eyeball turns A. Up and in B B. Up and out C. Down and in D. Down and out 29. Which of the following is not a clinical feature of Bell's palsy? A. 1/L facial palsy B. 1/L ptosis B C. 1/L loss of taste sensation D. Hyperacusis 30. Hyperacusis in facial nerve palsy is due to paralysis of A. Tensor tympani B. Stapedius C. Tensor veli palatini B D. None of the above 31. Which of the following is false about the treatment of Bell's palsy? A. Eye care B. Physiotherapy/ massage of facial muscles C. Steroids are contraindicated C D. Antivirals like acyclovir are used 32. Melkersson syndrome includes all except. A. B. Facial nerve palsy swelling of lips C C. Cleft palate D. Fissured tongue 33. False about Ramsay Hunt syndrome is. A. Herpes zoster is the cause B. Involves 7th cranial nerve D C. 8th cranial nerve may also be involved D. Surgery is the mainstay of treatment 34. A man presents with vesicular eruptions over the external auditory canal with I/L LMN facial palsy. Causative agent is. A. Herpes simplex B. Herpes zoster B C. Epstein bar virus D. None of the above 35. Facial nerve palsy is seen most commonly in which fracture of petrous bone A. Longitudinal fracture B. Transverse fracture B C. Mastoid D. Cribriform plate 36. CSF otorrhoea is caused by A. Fracture of cribriform plate B. Fracture of petrous temporal bone C. Rupture of tympanic membrane B D. Fracture of parietal bone 37. Best investigation for fracture petrous part of temporal bone is. _ A. NCCT C B. CECT C. HRCT D. MRI 38. All the following prevent injury to the facial nerve during mastoid exploration except? A. Constant saline irrigation B. Using a small burr B C. Drilling parallel to course of nerve D. Good magnification 39. Topodiagnostic tests for facial nerve _ A. Stapedial reflex D B. Schirmer test C. Electrogustometry and salivary flow test D. All of the above 40. Dryness of eye is caused by injury to facial nerve at'-- A. Geniculate ganglion B. Tympanic segment C. Mastoid segment A D. Chorda tympani 41. A patient presents with loss of taste from anterior 2/3rd of tongue, hyperacusis, loss of lacrimation. Injury is at. _ A. Tympanic segment B. Mastoid segment C C. Proximal to geniculate ganglion D. Chorda tympani 42. Crocodile tears is due to A. Faulty regeneration of facial nerve fibres B. Faulty regeneration of trigeminal nerve fibres A C. Faulty regeneration of 8th cranial nerve fibres D. None of the above 43. Frey's syndrome is due to A. Aberrant reinnervation of parasympathetic fibres of auriculotemporal nerve with sympathetic sweat glands A B. Abnormal cross innervation of facial nerve with greater auricular nerve C. Abnormal cross innervation of facial nerve with auriculotemporal nerve D. None of the above 44. Temporary Tarsorrhaphy is done for A. Bell's palsy B. Hypothyroidism A C. Acoustic neuroma D. Frey's syndrome 45. Most common cause for Hemifacial spasm _ A. Acoustic neuroma B. Glomus tumor C C. Vascular loop D. Congenital Cholesteatoma 46. The nerve that cannot be used as a nerve graft for facial nerve surgeries is _ A. Sural nerve B B. Mandibular nerve C. Greater auricular nerve D. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh 47. A patient with crocodile tears syndrome has spontaneous lacrimation during eating. The lesion is located at: A A. Facial nerve proximal to geniculate ganglion B. Chorda tympani in infratemporal fossa C. Facial nerve at stylomastoid foramen D. Lacrimal nerve ENT-Meniere's Disease -Mcq number 1 1. Meniere's disease is also known as A. Perilymphatic hydrops B B. Endolymphatic hydrops C. Otospongiosis D. Coalescent Mastoiditis 2. Which of the following statements are true about Meniere's disease A. Males are more commonly affected B. Usually affects age group of 35-60 years C. Usually unilateral condition D D. All of the above 3. In familial cases of Meniere's disease, mutations are seen in A. Long arm of chromosome 6 B. Short arm of chromosome 6 C. Long arm of chromosome 8 B D. Short arm of chromosome 8 4. The characteristic triad of presenting symptoms of Meniere's disease includes all except A. Episodic vertigo B. Otalgia C. Fluctuating hearing loss B D. Tinnitus 5. A 35-year-old man complains of intolerance to loud sounds and mild giddiness associated with ringing in the ear. The intolerance to loud sounds in this patient is due to: A. Recruitment phenomenon A B. Rollover phenomenon C. Diplacusis D. Tullio phenomenon 6. Tullio phenomenon is seen in A. Meniere's disease B. Superior semi-circular canal dehiscence D C. Perilymph fistula D. All of the above 7. The following is true about early Meniere's disease: A. Higher frequencies affected B. Lower frequencies affected B C. Middle frequencies affected D. All frequencies affected 8. On electrocochleography, SP (summating potential): AP (action potential) ratio diagnostic for Meniere's disease is: A. 0.3 B. 0.1 C. 0.4 C D. 0.2 9. Useful test to diagnose Meniere's disease is A. Oto acoustic emission B. Glycerol test B C. Caloric test D. Dix Hallpike test 10.When symptoms of Meniere's appears in reverse order: A. Lermoyez syndrome A B. Lemiere's syndrome C. Lehrich syndrome D. Le riche syndrome 11. Sudden loss of tone in patients with Meniere's is called A. Tullio phenomenon B. Tumarkin's otolithic crisis B C. Lermoyez syndrome D. Vestibular hydrops 12. The following is not Meniere's disease A. Vestibular hydrops B. Cochlear hydrops C C. Perilymphatic hydrops D. Endolymphatic hydrops 13. The following is not a vestibular sedative A. Dimenhydrinate B. Prochlorperazine C. Promethazine D D. Carbogen 14. Vasodilator of the inner ear is A. Nicotine B. Betahistine B C. Antihistaminics D. Serotonin 15. Glycerol test is done in A. BPPV B. Otosclerosis C C. Meniere's disease D. ASOM 16. Differential diagnosis of Meniere's disease includes all except A. Vestibular neuronitis B. Labyrinthitis C C. CSOM D. Perilymph fistula 17. Drug used in chemical labyrinthectomy is A. Cinnarizine B. Gentamicin C. Glucocorticoids B D. Amoxicillin 18.Microwick and microcatheter devices are used in A. ASOM B. Meniere's disease C. Sudden sensorineural hearing loss D D. Both b &c 19. Endolymphatic sac decompression is done in A. Meniere's disease A B. Perilymph fistula C. Acoustic neuroma D. CSF rhinorrhea 20. The following is a treatment for refractory Meniere's disease: A. Fick's operation B. Labyrinthectomy D C. Meniett's device D. All of the above 21. What is the definitive treatment of intractable vertigo due to Meniere's disease? A. Acetazolamide B B. Labyrinthectomy C. Vestibular neurectomy D. lntratympanic gentamicin 22. Superior semicircular canal dehiscence syndrome is associated with all except: A. Gaze dependent nystagmus B. Positive Fistula test C C. Sensorineural hearing loss D. Positive Tullio phenomenon 23. A patient complains that he feels like the room is spinning when he gets up from lying down or when he turns his head. He has no history of loss of consciousness. Which of the following could be the probable diagnosis? A A. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) B. Meniere's disease C. Labyrinthitis D. Syncope OTOSCLEROSIS - MCQ NUMBER - 1 1. Otosclerosis is a disease of A. Otic labyrinth C B. Periotic labyrinth C. Otic capsule D. Periotic capsule 2. Otosclerosis involves the layer of otic capsule. A. Endosteal B. Enchondral B C. Periosteal D. Perichondral 3. The inner ear develops from ossification center/s A. 1 B. 2 D C. 7 D. 14 4. The most common site of origin of otosclerosis is A. Fissula ante fenestram B. Fissula post fenestram A C. Footplate of stapes D. Malleus 5. The most commonly affected part in otosclerosis is _ A. Oval window B. Round window C. Malleus A D. Tympanic membrane 6. Otosclerosis is inherited as A. Autosomal dominant B. Autosomal recessive C. X linked dominant A D. X linked recessive 7. The most common age group affected in otosclerosis is A. 5-10 B. 10-20 C C. 20-30 D. 30-40 8. Van der Hoeve syndrome includes all except A. Osteogenesis imperfecta B. Otosclerosis D C. Blue sclera D. Brown sclera 9. All of the following statements are true regarding otosclerosis except A. More common in females C B. Causes bilateral progressive conductive hearing loss C. Autosomal recessive inheritance D. May be associated with measles 10. A 25-year-old woman with a family history of hearing loss in mother developed hearing problem during pregnancy. Hearing loss is bilateral and progressive. The probable diagnosis is A. Otosclerosis A B. Meniere's disease C. Acoustic neuroma D. Tympanosclerosis 11. Otosclerotic foci involving the entire footplate but not the annular ligament is called A. Circumferential C B. Obliterative C. Biscuit D. Footplate 12. The kind of hearing defect not seen in otosclerosis is A. Paracusis willisii B B. Presbyacusis C. Progressive conductive hearing loss D. Sensorineural hearing loss 13. Blue Mantle sign is due to A. Blue staining of cement substance on HPE A B. Bluish discoloration of post-auricular area C. Bluish discoloration of stapes footplate D. Has nothing to do with the color blue 14. Conductive hearing loss with a normal TM is seen in A. Otosclerosis B. CSOM A C. Meniere’s disease D. Bell's palsy 15. A 20-year-old female presents with features of bilateral conductive hearing loss, not associated with tinnitus. The following image shows the otoscopic findings of her tympanic membranes. What is the diagnosis? B A. Exostosis B. Otosclerosis C. Meniere's disease D. Glomus tumor 16. Which of the following tests is used to diagnose otosclerosis? A. Gelle’s Test B. Stenger’s test A C. SchwabachTest D. Rinne’s Test 17. Carhart’s notch typically dips at A. 1000 Hz in AC B. 1000 Hz in BC D C. 2000 Hz in AC D. 2000 Hz in BC 18. The finding on impedance audiometry in a long standing otosclerosis is A. As graph alone C B. Ad graph with increased stapedial reflex C. As graph with loss of stapedial reflex D. As graph with increased stapedial reflex 19. Medication which hastens maturity of active focus in otosclerosis is A. Steroids B B. Sodium fluoride C. Gentamycin D. Vitamins 20. A 25-year-old female presents with bilateral progressive conductive hearing loss. On examination, TM is normal and audiogram shows a B/L conductive deafness. Impedance audiometry shows As type of curve and acoustic reflexes are absent. All of the following are true regarding management of this case except A. Sodium fluoride D B. Stapedectomy C. Hearing aids D. Gentamicin 21. What is the treatment of choice in a case of otosclerosis? A. Sodium fluoride B. Tympanoplasty C. Stapedectomy D D. Stapedotomy 22. In stapedotomy, piston is placed between A. Thousand Stapes head B. Incus and oval Window B C. Malleus and incus D. Malleus and oval window 23. Which among the following is not a contraindication for stapedotomy? A. Meniere's disease B. Only hearing ear C. Pilots D D. Absent Schwartz sign 24. Stapedotomy is preferably done under A. GA B. LA C. SA B D. Nerve block 25. Which of the following is not a complication of Stapedotomy? A. Dead ear B. SNHL C. Cholesteatoma D. Facial palsy C 26. In Lempert’s fenestration, operation window is created in A. oval window B. Lateral semicircular canal C. Round window D. Tympanic membrane B ENT-Physiology of Hearing and audiology -Mcq number 1 1. The middle ear performs the following functions except A. Impedance matching B. Protection of inner ear C C. Transduction of sound D. Amplification of sound intensity 2. Lever ratio of the ear ossicles is A. 14:1 B. 1.3:1 C. 18:1 B D. 22:1 3. Ratio of effective vibratory area of tympanic membrane to area of footplate of stapes is A. 17:1 B. 1.3:1 A C. 18:1 D. 6:1 4. Middle ear transformer ratio is A. 1:3:1 B. 14:1 C. 17:1 D D. 22:1 5. Natural resonance of tympanic membrane A. 3000Hz B. 800-1600 Hz C. 1500-2000 HZ B D. 2000-3000 Hz 6. Impedance matching of middle ear involves A. Lever action of ossicles B. Hydraulic action of tympanic membrane C. Curved membrane effect of tympanic membrane D. All of the above D 7. Travelling wave theory was proposed by A. Von Bekesy B. Young A C. Helmholtz D. None of the above 8. Endocochlear potential is A. +80 mV A B. -85 mV C. +200 mV D. -200mV 9. Most commonly used tuning fork frequency in ENT is A. 126Hz B. 512 Hz C. 1024 Hz B D. 2048 Hz 10.Rinne test positive indicates A. AC>BC B. C. BC>AC AC=BC A D. None of the above 11. Minimum hearing loss for Rinne test to be negative is A. 5-10dB B. 15-20dB B C. 25-30dB D. 35-40dB 12. In severe unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, Rinne test is A. Positive B. Negative C. False negative D. False positive C 13. A 25-year-old male diagnosed to have suppurative labyrinthitis, having positive fistula test and positive test on Rinne. He rejected treatment and later presented with deafness in the affected ear. On examination, the fistula test was now negative. Rinne is likely to be A. True positive B. True negative D C. False positive D. False negative 14. Rinne test is positive in A. CSOM B. Impacted wax C C. Presbycusis D. Otosclerosis 15. Negative Rinne with 512 Hz indicates approximate hearing loss of A. 15dB B B. 30 dB C. 45dB D. 60 dB 16. Which of the following statements are true regarding Weber test A. It is tested by placing tuning fork over forehead and asking patient to report in which ear he hears better B. It is heard equally on both sides in normal individual D C. It is lateralised towards worst ear in conductive deafness and better ear in sensorineural deafness D. All of the above 17. A vibrating tuning fork is placed on the mastoid while the examiner alternately closes and opens the ear canal by pressing on the tragus inwards. A normal person or one with sensorineural hearing loss hears louder when ear canal is occluded and softer when the canal is open. This test is known as: A. Absolute bone conduction test C B. Schwabach test C. Bing test D. Gille's test 18.In Bing test, a patient with conductive deafness will A. Hear louder when canal is occluded B. Appreciate no change B C. Hear less louder when canal is occluded D. None of the above 19. Gelle's test is negative in_ A. Acoustic neuroma B. Presbycusis C. Otosclerosis C D. Meniere's disease 20. Rinne positive in both ears and Weber lateralised towards right indicates A. Right conductive deafness D B. Left conductive deafness C. Right sensorineural deafness D. Left sensorineural deafness 21. Interpret the given audiogram A A. Left sided conductive deafness B. Left side sensorineural deafness C. Right sided conductive deafness D. Right sided sensorineural deafness 22. Interpret the given audiogram: A. Left sided conductive deafness D B. Left side sensorineural deafness C. Right sided conductive deafness D. Right sided sensorineural deafness 23. Interpret the given audiogram B A. Left side conductive deafness B. Left side mixed hearing loss C. Right side conductive deafness D. Left side sensorineural deafness 24. The following type of upsloping audiogram is seen in A. Ototoxicity D B. Prebyacusis C. Noise induced hearing loss D. None of the above 25. Which of the following is an objective test A. Pure tone audiometry B. Speech audiometry C C. Impedance audiometry D. Tone decay 26. Impedance audiometry uses frequency probe of A. 220 Hz B. 446 Hz C. D. 512 Hz 128 Hz A  27. As type of curve is seen in tympanogram in A. Thin and lax tympanic membrane B. Otosclerosis C. Ossicular discontinuity B D. None of the above 28. Stapedial reflex is mediated by: A. 5th and 6th cranial nerves B. 5th and 7th cranial nerves C C. 7th and 8th cranial nerves D. 6th and 7th cranial nerves 29. Recruitment is a feature of: A. Conductive hearing loss B. Cochlear pathology B C. Retrocochlear pathology D. All of the above 30. Roll over phenomenon is a feature of A. Conductive deafness C B. Cochlear pathology C. Retrocochlear pathology D. None of the above 31. Which of the following is not a feature of retrocochlear hearing loss? A. Tone decay B. Acoustic reflex decay C C. Absent otoacoustic emissions D. SISI score o - 20% 32. Summating potential is A. Electrical activity of cochlea B B. Electrical activity of hair cells C. Electrical activity of distal part of auditory nerve D. Sum of all the above 33. False about Oto Acoustic Emission is A. Generated by inner hair cells A B. Best screening test for hearing loss in infants C. Spontaneous type is present in 50% of normal individuals D. Both a and c  34. Wave V in BERA is produced by A. Superior olivary complex B. Lateral lemniscus B C. Inferior colliculus D. Distal part of cochlear nerve 35. Tests for malingering are all except A. Stenger test B. Lombard test C. Stapedial reflex D D. None of the above 36. Identify the instrument: A. Meniette device B. Barany noise box B C. Portable audiometer D. Dropper for installation of drugs 37.All are true about CERA except A Recording is made from cortical potentials B. Click stimulus is used B C. Not suitable for children D. Response is frequency specific 38. The place where the electrode is kept in a cochlear implant is: A. Round window B. Oval window C. Scala vestibuli D D. Scala tympani 39. A metal factory worker suffers from noise-induced hearing loss. Which of the following structures will be affected? A. Crista ampullaris B. Macula C. Cupola D D. Outer hair cells  40. The diagnosis in the audiogram shown below: C A. Ototoxicity B. Meniere disease C. Otosclerosis D. Noise induced hearing loss 41. While performing a caloric test, what type of nystagmus would you expect on cold water irrigation? A. Horizontal nystagmus towards the same side B. Vertical nystagmus towards the same side C. Horizontal nystagmus towards the opposite side D. Vertical nystagmus towards the opposite side C Tumors of Ear-MCQ Number 1 1. Most common site for ear carcinoma is A. Cartilagenous External auditory meatus C B. Isthmus of canal C. Pinna D. Mastoid 2. Most common site of sebaceous cyst is A. Helix B. Cymba concha C. Pre auricular area D D. Post auricular area 3. What is shown in the given image? B A. Dermoid cyst B. Sebaceous cyst C. Meningioma D. Post auricular fistula 4. Exostosis differs from osteoma in that it is. A. Unilateral B. Single C. Sessile C D. Seen in cartilaginous canal 5. Middle ear carcinomas rarely spread to _ A. Dura B. Facial canal C. Eustachian tube A D. Petrous apex 6. Most common benign tumor of middle ear _ A. Glomus tumor B. Acoustic neuroma A C. Exostosis D. Osteoma 7. The cell of origin in Glomus tumors is A. Perivascular cells B. Peritubal cells C. Paraganglionic cells C D. Paraneoplastic cells 8. All are true about glomus tumors except'--- A. Slow growing tumor B. More common in males C. usually seen in middle age B D. Highly vascular tumor 9. Glomus jugular tumor invades A. Epitympanum B. Mesotympanum C C. Hypotympanum D. Mastoid 10.The earliest symptom of the glomus tumor is A. Sensory-neural deafness B. Headache C C. Pulsatile tinnitus D. Vertigo 11. Pulsatile tinnitus is seen in _ A. CSOM B. ASOM C. Mastoiditis D. Glomus jungulare tumor D 12. Rising sun appearance is seen in A. Exostosis C B. ASOM C. Glomus Tumor D. CSOM 13. Brown's sign is seen in A. Acoustic neuroma B. Meniere's disease D C. Otosclerosis D. Glomus tumor 14. Polypoidal mass in middle ear which bleeds heavily on touch in a patient with history of hearing loss and tinnitus is due to A. Angiofibroma B. Exostosis C. Glomus jugulare C D. Acoustic neuroma 15. A middle-aged woman presents with deafness, tinnitus, and bleeding from the ear. On examination, reddish mass is seen behind an intact tympanic membrane which blanches on the pressure with the pneumatic speculum. All of the following are true regarding its management except A. Preoperative biopsy A B. Radiotherapy C. Preoperative embolization D. Surgery 16. The rule of 10 regarding glomus tumors does not include A. 10% familial B. 10% malignant transformation B C. 10% multicentric D. 10% functional 17. The CT sign that helps differentiate Glomus jugulare and tympanicum A. Ayre sign B. Lyre sign C. Phelp sign C D. Philip sign 18. Most common CP angle tumor is. A. Acoustic neuroma A B. Cholesteatoma C. Sarcoma D. None of ten above 19. Acoustic neuroma most commonly arises from, _ A. Facial nerve B B. Vestibular division of 8th cranial nerve C. Cochlear division of 8th cranial nerve D. vagus nerve 20. Most common site of origin of Acoustic neuroma is A. Cochlear nerve B. Facial nerve C. Vestibular nerve D. Auricular nerve C 21. Similarities between acoustic neuroma and glomus tumor is A. Encapsulated B. Common in middle aged females C. Vascular D. Slow growing D 22. Most common presenting symptom of acoustic neuroma is _ A. Conductive hearing Joss B. Sensorineural hearing loss C. Vertigo D. None of the above B 23. Earliest cranial nerve involved in acoustic neuroma is A. 5th B. 6th C. 7th D. 8th D 24. Earliest cranial nerve involved in acoustic neuroma is. A. 4th B. 5th C. 6th D. 7th B 25. Hitzelberger’s sign is seen in _ A. Otosclerosis B. Meniere's disease C C. Acoustic neuroma D. None of the above 26. Gold standard investigation for acoustic neuroma A. CECT B. Gadolinium enhanced MRI B C. X-Ray D. Biopsy 27. In a middle-aged-man presenting with progressive sensorineural hearing loss, imbalance, and tinnitus, Meniere's disease is ruled out and acoustic neuroma is diagnosed if A. Stapedial reflex is present B. Recruitment phenomenon is present C. High SISI score D D. Rollover phenomenon is seen 28. Treatment of choice for acoustic neuroma is. A. Surgery A B. Radiotherapy C. Chemotherapy D. Conservative 29. The latest development in the treatment of acoustic neuroma is A. External beam Radiotherapy B. Gamma knife C. Cyber-knife D. Retro sigmoid approach to CP angle C INSTRUMENTS MCQ 1 1. Identify the following instrument used in mastoidectomy: A A. Mollison's mastoid retractor B. Lempert’s endaural retractor C. Myringotome D. Jansen's self-retaining mastoid retractor 2. The following instrument is used for: C A. Septoplasty B. Myringoplasty C. Myringotomy D. Adenoidectomy 3. Which one of the following is not used in mastoid surgery: A. Lempert's curette B. Lempert's endaural incision D C. Lempert's endaural retractor D. Lempert's trocar 4. Identify the following instrument used in mastoid surgery: A A. MacEwen's curette B. Lichtwitz trocar C. Farabeuf periosteal elevator D. Mastoid gouge 5. The following instrument is used for all except: A. Functional endoscopic sinus surgery (FESS) A B. Caldwell-Luc operation C. Submucosal resection D. Take biopsy from the nose 6. The following instrument is: A A. Ballenger swivel knife B. Killian's nasal gouge C. Eves' tonsil snare D. Leighton tonsillotome 7. The following procedure is commonly carried out using: A A. Tilley-Lichtwiz trocar B. Tilley's harpoon C. Nasal snare D. Tilley's antral burr 8. This instrument is used for irrigation in the following procedures, except: C A. Intranasal antrostomy B. Caldwell-Luc operation C. Trephination D. A and B 9. Identify the instrument A A. Digital audiometer B. Tympanometer C. Rhinomanometer D. BERA 10. Identify the following instrument: B A. Digital audiometer B. Tympanometer C. Speech audiometer D. BERA ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OF NOSE AND PNS MCQ 1 1. A. Framework of external nose: Upper 1/3rd bony and lower 2/3rd cartilaginous A B. Upper 1/2 is bony and lower 1/2 is cartilaginous C. Upper 2/3rd is bony and lower 1/3rd is cartilaginous D. None of the above 2. The bony part of the external nose is contributed by all of the following bones except A. Nasal bone B. Frontal bone C C. Ethmoid bone D. Maxilla 3. The external nose is formed by A. 3 paired and 3 unpaired cartilages B. 3 paired and 1 unpaired cartilage C. 1 paired and 1 unpaired cartilages B D. 2 paired and 2 unpaired cartilages 4. The choanae are the - A. Anterior nares B. Posterior nares B C. Larynx D. Tonsils 5. Boundaries of the nasal valve are formed by all except _ A. Lower border of upper lateral cartilage B. Inferior turbinate C C. Middle turbinate D. Septum 6. The turbinate which articulates with the maxillary bone is the A. Superior turbinate B. Middle turbinate C. Inferior turbinate D. All of the above C  7. Nasolacrimal duct opens into the A. Superior meatus C B. Middle meatus C. Inferior meatus D. Sphenoethmoidal recess 8. All are paranasal sinuses opening into the middle meatus except A. Frontal sinus B. Maxillary sinus C. Anterior ethmoidal sinus D D. Posterior ethmoidal sinus 9. Hiatus semilunaris is present in _ A. Superior meatus B. Middle meatus C. Inferior meatus B D. Sphenoethmoidal recess 10. Maxillary sinus opens into middle meatus at A. Hiatus semilunaris B. Bulla ethmoidalis C C. lnfundibulum D. Uncinate process 11. Bulla ethmoidalis is present in A. Superior meatus B. Middle meatus B C. Inferior meatus D. None of the above 12. Which of the following is not related to the middle meatus? A. Agger nasi B. Atrium of middle meatus D C. Fronto-nasal duct D. Nasolacrimal duct 13. Posterior ethmoidal sinus opens into A. Superior meatus B. Middle meatus A C. Inferior meatus D. Sphenoethmoidal recess  14. Sphenoid sinus opens into A. Superior meatus D B. Middle meatus C. Inferior meatus D. Sphenoethmoidal recess 15. Which of the following does not contribute to the formation of the nasal septum? A. Septal cartilage B. Vomer D C. Perpendicular plate of ethmoid D. Perpendicular plate of sphenoid 16. Shape of the septal cartilage is A. Quadrilateral B. Triangular C. Hexagonal D. Circular A 17. Concha bullosa is pneumatization of A. Inferior turbinate B. Middle turbinate C. Superior turbinate D. None of the above B 18.Onodi cell and Haller cell are in relation to A. Optic nerve and maxillary sinus B. Optic nerve and frontal sinus C. Optic nerve only D. Optic chiasma and frontal sinus A 19. Which of the following statements are true about the olfactory area of the nose? A. Also known as dangerous area of nose B. Bounded laterally by superior turbinate, medially by corresponding part of septum, above by cribriform plate of ethmoid bone C. Trauma can lead to spread of infection intracranially and can cause CSF rhinorrhea D D. All of the above. 20. Which of the following statement is true about nasal cavity A. Upper 1 /3rd is lined by olfactory epithelium B. Lower 2/3rd is lined by Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium D C. Vestibule is anteroinferior part lined by stratified squamous epithelium with hairs, sweat and sebaceous glands D. All of the above 21. Sphenopalatine foramen is situated at posterior end of A. Superior turbinate B. Middle turbinate C. Inferior turbinate D. None of the above B 22. True about autonomic nerve supply to nose is: A. Parasympathetic supply is from greater superficial petrosal nerve B. Sympathetic supply is by upper two thoracic segments of spinal cord C. Parasympathetic stimulation causes vasodilatation and sympathetic D stimulation causes vasoconstriction D. All of the above 23. During inspiration, main current of airflow in nasal cavity is through A. Olfactory region B. Upper part of nasal cavity in a parabolic curve C. Middle part of nasal cavity in a parabolic curve C D. Lower part of nasal cavity in a parabolic curve 24. What percentage of total airflow through nose reaches the olfactory region? A. 10-15% B. 30% A C. 40 - 50% D. 60 - 70% 25. Nasal cycle which is rhythmic congestion and decongestion occurs every A. 2 1/2 - 4 hours A B. 4 - 6 hours C. 6 - 8 hours D. 10 - 12 hours 26. Mucus blanket moves at a speed of _ A. 1-2 mm/min B. 2-4 mm/min C. 5-10 mm/min C D. 10-20 mm/min 27. Movement of mucus blanket of nose is by A. Inspiration D B. Expiration C. Both a & b D. Ciliary action 28. Function of the mucociliary blanket of the upper respiratory tract is A. Temperature regulation B. Humidification C C. Trap pathogenic organisms, dust etc D. No physiological role 29. Movements of cilia are affected by A. Drying D B. Smoking C. Drugs like adrenaline D. All of the above 30. Which of the following statements is true about nasal secretions? A. They protect against infections. D B. pH is around 7. C. They increases in response to noxious stimuli. D. All of the above 31. Anosmia is seen in A. Common cold D B. Atrophic rhinitis C. Olfactory nerve injury D. All of the above 32. Which of the following syndrome is associated with anosmia? A. Kallmann syndrome A B. Turner's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 33. Parosmia is -- A. Total loss of smell sensation C B. Reduced smell sensation C. Perversion of smell sensation D. None of the above 34. Which of the following is not a paranasal sinus? A. Frontal sinus B. Pyriform sinus B C. Ethmoid sinus D. Maxillary sinus 35. Antrum of Highmore is A. Frontal sinus B. Sphenoid sinus C C. Maxillary sinus D. Ethmoid sinus 36. Maxillary sinus is A. Pyramidal in shape with base towards lateral wall of nose and apex towards zygomatic arch B. Pyramidal in shape with base towards zygomatic arch and apex towards lateral wall of nose. A C. Triangular in shape D. Rectangular in shape 37. Most superiorly located sinus is the _ A. Frontal sinus B. Maxillary sinus C. Ethmoid sinus D. Sphenoid sinus A 38. Onodi cell is related to _ A. Optic nerve B. Internal carotid artery C. Both a & b D. None of the above C 39. True about sphenoid sinus is A. Present in greater wing of sphenoid B. Lined by stratified squamous epithelium C. Opens into Sphenoethmoidal recess D. Lateral wall is related to pituitary C 40. Which of the following sinus is absent at birth? A. Maxillary sinus B. Frontal sinus C. Ethmoid sinus B D. None of the above  41. Ventilation of sinuses takes place during A. Inspiration B B. Expiration C. Both inspiration and expiration D. None of the above 42. The lining of paranasal sinuses is formed by _ A. Keratinising stratified squamous epithelium B. Non keratinizing stratified squamous epithelium C. Ciliated columnar epithelium C D. Transitional epithelium 43. Functions of paranasal sinuses are A. Air conditioning of inspired air B. Adds resonance to voice C. Lighten skull bones D D. All of the above 44. Largest paranasal sinus is the A. Maxillary sinus B. Frontal sinus C. Ethmoid sinus A D. Sphenoid sinus 45. Sinus that continues to develop till early adulthood is the _ A. Ethmoid B. Maxillary C. Frontal C D. Sphenoid 46. Occipitomental view with open mouth is called as: A. Water's view B. Towne’s view C. Law's view A D. Stenver’s view Congenital Anomalies of nose and disease of nose-MCQ Number 1 1. False statement about choanal atresia is: A. It is due to persistence of bucconasal membrane D B. Unilateral>bilateral C. Bony>membranous D. Epley’s maneuver is used in treatment 2. Most common presentation of bilateral choanal atresia is A. Respiratory obstruction B. Vomiting A C. Regurgitation of feeds D. Post nasal drip 3. Choanal atresia is associated with A. Coloboma of eye B. Heart defects D C. Retarded growth D. All of the above 4. 2 year old child presents with soft, compressible swelling at the root of nose. Most likely diagnosis is A. Meningoencephalocele B. AV malformation A C. Lacrimal sac cyst D. Ethmoid cyst 5. All of the following statements about nasal glioma are true except A. 60% are extranasal B. Presents with CSF leak C. CT Scan provides bony details D. Furstenberg test is negative B 6. The deformity depicted here is: A. Crooked nose A B. Deviated nose C. Hump nose D. Saddle nose 7. All of these can cause saddle nose except A. Syphilis D B. Leprosy C. Septal abscess D. Acromegaly 8. Rhinophyma is due to A. Hypertrophy of sweat glands B B. Hypertrophy of sebaceous glands C. Hypertrophy of cartilage D. Hypertrophy of epithelial cells 9. Which of the following statements is false regarding the condition depicted below? A. Also known as elephantiasis of nose C B. Seen in long standing cases of acne rosacea C. It is commonly seen in middle aged women D. Hypertrophy of sebaceous gland 10.Rodent ulcer is A. Rhinophyma C B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Basal cell carcinoma D. None of the above 11. Rhinoscleroma is caused by A. Rhinosporidium seeberi B. Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis C. Staphylococcus B D. Spirochetes 12. Atrophic dry nasal mucosa, extensive crustations, woody hard external nose is suggestive of A. Atrophic rhinitis B. Rhinophyma D C. Rhinosporidiosis D. Rhinoscleroma. 13. Mikulicz cells and Russell bodies are characteristic of A. Rhinoscleroma B. Rhinosporidiosis A C. Lupus vulgaris D. None of the above 14. All are true about rhinoscleroma except A. Seen in endemic regions B. Biopsy is diagnostic C. Surgery is the treatment of choice C D. Causative organism can be cultured 15. Snuffles are seen in A. Early congenital syphilis B. Late congenital syphilis C. Primary syphilis A D. Secondary syphilis 16. Lesion in the image is seen in A. Rhinoscleroma C B. Rhinosporidiosis C. Lupus vulgaris D. Syphilis 17. Rhinosporidiosis is caused by A. Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis B. Rhinosporidium seeberi B C. HSV D. EBV 18.Rhinosporidium seeberi is A. Fungus B. Aquatic Protista C. Bacteria B D. Virus 19. All are true about rhinosporidiosis except A. water borne is the most common route of transmission B. Endemic in southern states of India C. Affects immunocompromised individuals C D. Bleeding polyploidy mass 20. Treatment of choice for rhinosporidiosis is A. Streptomycin and tetracycline B. Radiotherapy C. Excision with cauterisation D. Dapsone C 21. All of the following statements are true about nasal T-cell lymphoma except: A. Also known as Stewart's granulomas B. Associated with EBV C. Locally invasive D D. Surgery is the treatment of choice ENT-Disorder of Nasal Septum and Nasal Polyposis -Mcq number 1 1. Percentage of newborns with deviation of nasal septum is _ A. 60% B. 40% C C. 20% D. 80% 2. Which of the following can cause DNS? A. Birth trauma B. Developmental error C. Fractures of nasal septum