Nursing Management Past Paper PDF

1. Which of the following best defines leadership? a) The process of giving commands to subordinates. b) The ability to delegate tasks efficiently. c) The interpersonal process of influencing an individual or group towards goal attainment. d) Enforcing rules and regulations s...

1. Which of the following best defines leadership? a) The process of giving commands to subordinates. b) The ability to delegate tasks efficiently. c) The interpersonal process of influencing an individual or group towards goal attainment. d) Enforcing rules and regulations strictly 2. Which of the following describes the "blocking" kind of influence? a) Trying to convince someone using logic and reason b) Offering a favor in exchange for compliance c) Threatening to damage an individual's opportunity for advancement d) Getting support from a higher-up 3. How does leadership differ from management in terms of goal setting? a) Leaders are formally appointed, managers are not. b) Leaders influence others, while managers follow predetermined policies and rules. c) Managers take risks, while leaders maintain stability. d.) Leaders have the legitimate right to give commands, managers do not 4. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of a nurse manager? a) Performing employee performance appraisals b) Controlling the use of supplies and time c) Maintaining rapport with clients d) Meeting budget and productivity goals 5. Effectiveness in nursing management refers to which of the following? * a) Accomplishing objectives with minimal waste of time and resources. b) Accomplishing objectives within resource parameters. c) Coordinating resources to achieve maximum efficiency. d) Influencing others to follow established procedures. 6. A nurse manager notices that the team is not meeting productivity goals. What is the best course of action for the manager? a) Sanction the staff for underperformance. b) Communicate with the team and identify barriers to productivity. c) Threaten to reduce staff if goals are not met. d) Implement a new schedule without consulting the team. 7. A nurse manager is tasked with improving staff morale in the unit. The staff has been vocal about the heavy workload. What type of leadership approach would best address this situation? a) Assertiveness to ensure staff compliance with workload demands. b) Ingratiation by rewarding staff with praise before assigning tasks. c) People development by addressing staff concerns and supporting professional growth. d) Blocking, by threatening to replace staff who do not comply with demands. 8. You are a nurse leader in a department where a new clinical policy is met with resistance from the staff. What is the most appropriate leadership strategy to promote adoption of the policy? a) Use sanction and remind staff of potential penalties for noncompliance. b) Engage staff in open communication to understand their concerns and present logical reasons for the change. c) Use exchange by offering staff additional benefits for complying with the new policy. d) Form a coalition with upper management to enforce the policy. 9. Which theory emphasizes that leadership style depends on the situation and no one leadership style is ideal for every scenario? a) Contingency Theory b) Great Man Theory c) Situational Theory d) Path Goal Theory 10. Who Introduced the concept of "POSDCORB" to define management activities? a) Henry Fayol b) Max Weber c) Luther Gulick d) Frederick Taylor 11. What is a key characteristic of Legitimate Power? a) It is derived from knowledge and skills. b) It is based on admiration and respect for an individual c) It is based on authority delegated by virtue of position. d) It comes from the ability to provide rewards. 12. How does Coercive Power affect group dynamics? a) It motivates employees through rewards. b) It promotes admiration for the leader. c) It can lead to fear, reducing job satisfaction. d) It builds team spirit through empathy. 13. Which of the following is NOT a principle included in Fayol's 14 Principles of Management? a) Initiative b) Remuneration c) Laissez-Faire Leadership d) Division of Labor 14. In Robert’s Path Goal Theory, which leadership style involves the leader facilitating tasks by minimizing obstructions to the follower’s goals? a) Directive Leadership b) Supportive Leadership  c) Participative Leadership d) Achievement Oriented Leadership 15. A nurse manager uses incentives such as paid time off to motivate the team for Increased productivity. Which power base is being used? a) Coercive Power b) Legitimate Power c) Reward Power d) Expert Power 16. When assigning patient care to an unlicensed staff, which of the following should a nurse avoid delegating? a) Vital signs monitoring for stable patients b) Interpretation of clinical data c) Assisting with patient hygiene d) Transporting a patient to a procedure 17. During a staff meeting, a nurse manager explains that decisions made by the leadership team are based on established rules and hierarchy. Which management theory is the nurse manager following? a) Scientific Management b) Bureaucracy Theory c) Path Goal Theory d) Servant Leadership 18. A nurse manager who delegates tasks to her staff follows the "Five Rights of Delegation”. A staff member assigned a stable patient experiences a sudden shift In the patient's condition. What should the manager do? a) Reassign the patient to an RN for immediate assessment. b) Continue with the delegation and monitor outcomes later. c) Ask the staff member to manage the change in condition independently. d) Delegate the task of evaluation to another unlicensed staff. 19. Which of the following theorists is known as the "father of scientific management"? a) Henri Fayol b) Frederick Taylor c) Elton Mayo d) Chris Argyris 20. Who developed the management functions of planning, organizing, staffing, directing, coordinating, reporting, and budgeting (POSDCORB)? a) Henri Fayol b) Luther Gulick c) Mary Parker Follett d) Douglas McGregor 21. The difference between transactional and transformational leadership lies primarily in: a) The emphasis on long-term vision b) The focus on day-to-day management tasks c) The leader's ability to inspire and empower others d) Both A and C 22. According to the Great Man Theory leadership is: a) Inherent and some people are born to lead b) A skill that can be learned and developed c) Based on participative decision-making d) Best suited for those who exhibit democratic behaviours 23. What is the Facts of the Theory Y manager as described by Douglas McGregor? a) Believes employers are lazy and need constant supervision b) Encourages employee self-motivation and personal growth  c) Focuses on strict control and downward communication d) Motivates employees using coercion and commands 24. A nurse manager adopts a leadership style where they allow employees to make decisions with minimal interference. This leadership style is known as: a) Authoritarian b) Transformational c) Laissez-faire d) Transactional 25. A healthcare leader who motivates their team by setting clear goals, providing rewards for achieving them, and addressing problems reactively is displaying: a) Transactional leadership b) Transformational leadership c) Situational leadership d) Participative leadership 26. According to Alford and Beatt, planning is a: a) Rational process of decision-making b) Vision based on facts and experience for intelligent action c) Set of guidelines for organizing resources d) Spontaneous reaction to external changes 27. Which principle of planning focuses on selecting alternatives based on organizational objectives? A or B? a) Principle of Contribution b) Principle of Limiting Factors c) Principle of Commitment d) Principle of Efficiency 28. What does the principle of Flexibility in planning suggest? a) Plans should remain rigid to ensure consistency in implementation b) Plans must be able to adapt to unforeseen environmental changes c) Employees should have no say in the development of plans d) The organization must always follow the same plan regardless of circumstances 29. How does planning increase the organization's ability to adapt to future uncertainties? a) By avoiding the need for decision-making b) By organizing operations according to routine tasks c) By providing a systematic approach to consider future eventualities d) By increasing the rigidity of the organization's objectives 30. A nurse manager is developing a plan to increase the efficiency of patient discharge processes. Which planning principle should guide her to minimize unnecessary costs while achieving optimal outcomes? a) Principle of Timing b) Principle of Efficiency c) Principle of Commitment d) Principle of Contribution 31. A hospital is experiencing a shortage of trained personnel, making it difficult to meet patient care standards. Which principle of planning should the manager focus on to tackle this issue? a) Principle of Flexibility b) Principle of Limiting Factors c) Principle of Commitment d) Principle of Timing 32.? 33. A hospital's management reviews its current plans because of changes in government health regulations. Which planning principle best describes the management's action? a) Principle of Navigational Change b) Principle of Flexibility c) Principle of Efficiency d) Principle of Timing 34. Which type of plan provides a high-level overview of a business and dictates long term decisions? a) Operational Plan b) Tactical Plan c) Strategic Plan d) Ongoing Plan 35. What is the primary difference between a strategic plan and a tactical plan? a) Strategic plans have fixed deadlines, while tactical plans are long term. b) Strategic plans respond to How? while tactical plans respond to What? c) Strategic plans are long-term and high level, while tactical plans are short-term and detail specific actions. d) Tactical plans cover the vision and values of the organization, while strategic plans focus on day-to-day activities. 36. Your company aims to increase sales to 200 units per day. Which type of plan will you develop to achieve this goal within six months? a) Strategic Plan b) Tactical Plan c) Operational Plan d) Ongoing Plan 37. If a manager needs a framework to guide decision-making when hiring new employees, which type of operational plan should they refer to? a) Rule b) Policy c) Procedure d) Strategy 38. Your organization needs to adjust its sourcing strategy due to the supply chain disruptions. Which type of plan would most likely be adjusted to accommodate these changes? B or C? a) Strategic Plan b) Tactical Plan c) Operational Plan d) Rule 39. An organization's sales have been consistently declining. Upon reviewing their strategic plan, it becomes evident that their long-term goals do not align with market changes. What is the first step they should take? a) Revise their tactical plan to accommodate short-term fixes b) Update their strategic plan to better reflect new market conditions c) Adjust their operational plans to improve day-to-day activities d) Develop new single-use plans to improve sales temporarily 40. A company's operational plan outlines an objective to increase hiring by 15% within six months, but budget limitations create obstacles. What should be the company's response? a) Modify the operational plan to fit within the budget b) Revise the strategic plan to reduce overall goals c) Adjust the tactical plan to include alternative funding methods. d) Abandon the hiring initiative entirely 41. Which type of plan should be used to establish company-wide regulations, such as reporting times and break schedules? a) Procedure b) Rule c) Policy d) Budget 42. What is the primary goal of strategic planning in nursing management? a) To respond to immediate crises b) To assess past achievements and failures c) To establish long-term organizational goals and plans d) To manage daily tasks effectively 43. What does a vision statement primarily focus on in an organization? a) Defining the steps to achieve objectives b) Describing future goals and aspirations c) Establishing internal policies d) Identifying current staff roles 44. Which of the following phases of Lewin's change model involves implementing and stabilizing a change within the organization? a) Unfreezing b) Movement c) Refreezing d) Reinforcing 45. How does the SWOT analysis help in the planning process of a healthcare organization? a) It identifies strengths and weaknesses based on external conditions. b) It determines goals based on internal policies only.  c) It analyzes internal attributes and external conditions to formulate strategies. d) It helps to monitor short-term operational expenses. 46. Which of the following best describes the mission statement of an organization? a) A comprehensive plan outlining the budget for future projects b) A statement describing the reason the organization exists and its key objectives c) A step-by-step guideline for carrying out daily tasks d) A list of long-term aspirations of the organization 47. A nurse manager needs to implement a new electronic health record (EHR) system but faces resistance from the staff. Which step of Lewin's change model should the manager focus on to successfully move the team towards adoption? a) Refreezing b) Movement c) Unfreezing d) Evaluation 48. A hospital is planning to expand its services in response to anticipated changes in healthcare needs in the next five years. What type of planning is the hospital engaging in? B or D? a) Reactive b) Preactive c) Inactive d) Proactive 49. A nurse manager observes that the organization struggles with high turnover rates and low staff morale. Using the SWOT analysis approach, which of the following would be classified as a “Weakness"? a) Increasing demand for healthcare services b) Staff dissatisfaction and poor retention c) Availability of advanced technology  d) Changes in healthcare regulations 50. The nursing leadership team in a hospital is considering the implementation of a new patient safety initiative. However, they are unsure of the potential risks Involved. What part of the SWOT analysis should the leadership team examine to assess potential challenges? a) Strengths b) Weaknesses c) Opportunities d) Threats 51. What is the primary purpose of organizing in nursing management? a) To supervise the staff in their roles b) To facilitate the attainment of a common goal c) To establish informal groups for emotional support d) To provide feedback on performance 52. Which of the following is a characteristic of formal organization? a) It is based on the emotional needs of the staff b) It refers to unofficial relationships between coworkers c) It has a system of well-defined jobs with authority and responsibility d) It is driven by the personal attitudes and needs of the team 53. Which principle emphasizes that each worker should report to only one superior? a) Division of labor b) Unity of command c) Span of control d) Contingency factors 54. What is meant by the "span of control" in organizational design?  a) The number of subordinates a supervisor manages directly b) The line of authority that a worker must follow c) The overall goals of the organization d) The framework that outlines communication channels 55. How does a flat organizational structure differ from a tall one? a) Flat structures have more levels of authority and narrow spans of control b) Flat structures allow for faster communication and broader spans of control C) Tall structures promote greater delegation of authority d) Tall structures are decentralized with minimal decision-making power 56. Which organizational structure combines vertical and horizontal chains of command? a) Functional Organization b) Matrix Organization c) Flat Organization d) Bureaucratic Organization 57. A nurse manager wants to promote efficiency by ensuring specialized tasks are performed by those most qualified. Which principle should she apply? a) Unity of command b) Division of labor c) Span of control d) Authority and responsibility 58. Which organizational culture is focused on competition and perfectionism? a) Positive Culture b) Passive-Aggressive Culture c) Aggressive-Defensive Culture d) Tough-Guy Macho Culture 59. A newly appointed nurse leader is designing an organizational structure. She wants to create a decentralized system where communication is fast, and staff members are encouraged to be autonomous. Which structure should she consider? a) Tall Structure b) Flat Structure c) Bureaucratic Structure d) Functional Structure 60. In what type of organization would a staff nurse report to multiple managers for specialized guidance, but still follow a formal chain of command? a) Functional Organization b) Ad Hoc Structure c) Matrix Organization d) Line Organization 61. A nurse leader is aiming to design a work environment that improves employee autonomy and decision-making. Which of the following organizational structures would best promote shared governance? a) Pyramidal Structure b) Flat Structure c) Functional Organization d) Matrix Organization 62. A healthcare unit adopts a tall organizational structure. Which of the following is a potential disadvantage the staff might experience? a) Increased autonomy and decision-making power b) Difficulty in upward communication, as messages may not reach the top c) Limited opportunities for professional development d) Poor communication among teams 63. A nurse leader is developing a staffing pattern based on patient acuity. What factor must she primarily consider to ensure efficient care delivery? a) The number of years of experience of the nursing staff b) The communication style of the nursing staff c) The level of nursing care required by each patient d) The location of healthcare unit 64. During a staffing review, a manager notices that communication between workers is inconsistent and slow. The organization has many levels of management, and workers are highly dependent on their supervisors. What structural change could improve communication? a) Introduce a matrix organization b) Shift to a flat organizational structure c) Increase the span of control d) Promote more formal authority and responsibility 65. In a unit with shared governance, a nurse manager observes the staff members are more satisfied and engaged with their roles. What is the most likely reason for this outcome? a) Supervisors are closely involved in every aspect of the team’s daily operations b) Decision-making is distributed among many, empowering nurses at all levels c) Staff is regularly monitored for compliance with strict procedures d) Nurses are given fewer responsibilities and tasks than in other models 66. Which of the following best describes a formal structure in an organization? a) A naturally forming social network among employees b) A structure defined by roles, rank, and hierarchy c) A decentralized structure where decision-making occurs at the unit level d) An informal social arrangement among healthcare workers 67. What is the primary focus of first-level managers in nursing? a) Strategic planning for the organization b) Integrating unit-level needs with organizational needs c) Managing the workflow of their specific unit d) Making decisions that influence external policies 68. Which statement best explains the role of informal structure in an organization? a) It is responsible for strategic decision-making and organizational planning b) It is the formal chart that outlines relationship with the institution c) It helps bridge gaps and forms networks between employees to get work done d) It consists of top-down communication with minimal employee input 69. What does a matrix organizational structure focus on? * a) Collaboration and informal relationships among healthcare workers b) The production process and the functional requirements to achieve results c) A top-down management style with centralized authority d) Complete decentralization with no formal hierarchy 70. A nurse leader is tasked with recruiting and hiring new staff. What should be the primary consideration when assigning personnel to a unit? a) The nurse’s years of experience in different departments b) The nurse’s alignment with the unit’s philosophy and performance standards c) The nurse’s interest in administrative roles d) The nurse’s willingness to work extra shifts 71. In a flat organizational design, what is one of the main goals? a) Increase the layers of hierarchical management to improve supervision b) Decentralize the organization and flatten the chain of command c) Strengthen the top-down communication within the hierarchy  d) Create more mid-level managerial positions to oversee staff 72. A unit manager needs to organize staffing for a high-acuity ICU. According to standard staffing ratios, what is the ideal nurse-to-patient ratio in this setting? a) 1:1 b) 1:2 c) 1:4 d) 1:5 73. A hospital is using a service line organization model to address bureaucratic issues. What potential benefits does this model offer? a) Simplifies communication by adding more hierarchical levels b) Reduces patient care costs by eliminating nursing leadership roles c) Provides clear functional divisions focused on patient care outcomes d) Addresses the weaknesses of traditional organizational structures by focusing on specific services 74. A middle-level manager is struggling to balance both short-term and long-term planning responsibilities. Which of the following strategies would most likely help them improve? a) Delegating all short-term planning to first-level managers b) Focusing exclusively on the unit’s immediate needs c) Prioritizing day-to-day tasks while aligning them with the organization’s strategic goals d) Asking top-level managers to handle both long-term and short-term planning 75. A hospital has a problem with inefficient communication between top-level management and staff nurses. Which organizational structure would likely improve communication flow? a) Matrix structure b) Line structure with top-down communication c) Flat structure with decentralized decision making d) Service line model with siloed departments 76. Which of the following best defines directing in nursing management? a) Monitoring staff performance b) Issuing orders, assignments, and instructions to accomplish goals c) Evaluating nursing staff work results d) Delegating tasks to subordinates 77. Which task cannot be delegated by a nurse manager? a) Patient education b) Administering medications c) Final evaluation of staff performance d) Collecting patient data 78. What is the primary goal of effective communication in nursing management? a) To reduce workplace conflicts b) To provide clear and concise instructions c) To ensure the received message is understood as intended d) To improve nurse-patient interaction 79. Why should directions be clear, concise, and complete? a) To allow more time for independent decision-making b) To avoid mistakes and ensure the task is done correctly c) To demonstrate authority to the staff d) To encourage improvisation 80. What is a common consequence of improper delegation in nursing management? a) The nurse manager will appear competent b) The staff will become overly dependent on the manager c) Tasks will be assigned beyond a person’s capabilities  d) Delegated task will be performed quickly 81. A nurse manager assigns a newly hired nurse to handle a complicated case without prior training. What type of delegation error is this? a) Under-delegating b) Over-delegating c) Improper delegating d) Delegating based on need 82. How can a nurse manager ensure staff understand the rationale for a particular directive? a) Use concise and mandatory language such as “must” or “will” b) Provide the directive quickly to avoid time delays c) Explain the rationale and check for understanding d) Delegate the task and let staff figure it out 83. When a nurse manager avoids addressing a conflict between staff members, which conflict management technique is being used? a) Smoothing behavior b) Dominance and suppression c) Avoidance behavior d) Integrative problem-solving 84. In which situation should a nurse manager use a win-win strategy for conflict resolution? a) When both parties have similar power and need to work together b) When the manager wants to avoid the situation c) When the conflict is not serious d) When one party needs to dominate the other 85. A nurse manager tells a nurse to complete a task by the end of the shift without explaining why the task is important. What element of good direction is missing? a) Clear language b) Complete instructions c) Prioritization of tasks d) Well-explained rationale 86. A nurse manager provides consistent feedback and guidance to a nurse but notices no improvement in performance. What should the manager consider next? a) Delegate more tasks to the nurse b) Change the approach to supervision c) Use a different type of feedback d) Terminate the nurse’s contract 87. A nursing manager notices that team members are becoming less engaged and their productivity is declining. According to Vroom’s Expectancy Model, what action should the manager take to motivate the team effectively? a) Increase supervision to ensure tasks are completed b) Assess and clarify how team efforts lead to desired outcomes and rewards c) Offer financial bonuses for completing tasks d) Ignore the problem and hope it resolves itself 88. A nurse leader wants to improve the morale of her team by recognizing their efforts. Which of the following methods aligns with McClelland’s Achievement-oriented motivation? a) Offering bonuses for completing a shift b) Providing opportunities for team members to take on challenging projects c) Organizing social events to build camaraderie d) Creating a structured work environment with strict guidelines 89. What is the primary purpose of controlling function in nursing management?  a) To create new policies and procedures b) To assure the achievement of goals and objectives c) To evaluate the effectiveness of staff nursing d) To increase the number of nursing staff 90. Which type of control focuses on operations before they begin? a) Concurrent Controls b) Feedback Controls c) Feed Forwards Controls d) Self-Control 91. Which principle of controlling suggests that fewer people involved in control can lead to better results? a) Defined Point of Control b) Critical Few c) Self-Control d) Performance Appraisal 92. Why is it important for control systems to be designed appropriately? a) To allow for maximum employee flexibility b) To ensure they can prevent problems instead of causing them c) To encourage excessive oversight of staff d) To focus only on financial outcomes 93. In a scenario where a nursing supervisor notices a decrease in patient satisfaction scores, what type of control should they implement to address the issue while services are being delivered? a) Feed Forwards Controls b) Concurrent Controls c) Feedback Controls d) Performance Appraisal 94. Which tool would a nurse educator use to allow students to evaluate their own performance effectively? a) Peer Review b) Self-Appraisal c) Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS) d) Trait Rating Scale 95. A nurse is consistently receiving average ratings from their performance appraisals despite strong performance. What error might the evaluator be making? a) Halo Effect b) Central Tendency Error c) Horn’s Effect d) Leniency Error 96.Which of the following best defines quality control in healthcare? a) The elimination of waste in healthcare services b) Activities that evaluate, monitor, or regulate services rendered to consumers c) The systematic examination of financial records in healthcare organizations d) The process of recruiting and training nursing staff 97. What is the primary purpose of quality control programs in healthcare organizations? a) To maximize profits for healthcare facilities b) To ensure compliance with legal standards c) To increase the likelihood of desired health outcomes consistent with professional knowledge d) To evaluate employee performance and job satisfaction 98. If a nurse manager identifies a decline in patient satisfaction scores, which quality control step should they prioritize to address this issue? a) Determine ways to collect relevant information about patients feedbacks  b) Immediately implement changes to nursing protocols without gathering data c) Schedule an audit for all patient interactions in the last year d) Compare the current patient satisfaction scores to those from the previous year 99. During a quality control review, a nursing team finds that the process audits indicate inconsistencies in medication administration practices. What should the team’s next step be? a) Ignore the findings, as they are minor discrepancies b) Provide information about the findings and take corrective action to improve practices c) Reevaluate the entire medication administration process without addressing the inconsistencies d) Blame individual nurses for the inconsistencies without further investigation 100. A healthcare organization wants to implement Total Quality Management (TQM) to improve service delivery. What is the most critical action they should take? a) Develop a plan for new hiring practices b) Gain support from top-level administration for TQM initiatives c) Conduct a financial audit to assess resource availability d) Create a training program for all staff members