010-06-03 Departure Procedures PDF

010-06-03 Departure Procedures 1. What is a low visibility take-off? A – A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 400m B – A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 200m C – A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 125m D – A tak...

010-06-03 Departure Procedures 1. What is a low visibility take-off? A – A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 400m B – A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 200m C – A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 125m D – A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 50m Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 2. In the event of a delay of 30 minutes in excess of the estimated EOBT for a controlled flight, which of the following actions is required? A – The flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan should be submitted and the old flight plan cancelled, whichever is applicable B – No action required because the air traffic system accommodates delays of up to 60 minutes C – None, because ATC will automatically amend the current flight plan D – A new flight plan must be submitted if required by ATC Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 3. If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected: A – To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace B – To request from ATC different heading for wind correction C – To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading equal to the track D – To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 4. A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather conditions are prevailing. The closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours away. The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are: A – VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing, and ceiling greater or equal to ceiling required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure B – VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing on the runway to be used C – ceiling greater or equal to DH or MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure to be envisaged with one engine out D – ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 5. Turning departures provide track guidance within: A – 20 km B – 5 km C – 15 km D – 10 km Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 6. Which of the following factors is least likely to be considered in the design of an Instrument Departure Procedure? A – Terrain B – The transition altitude C – ATC requirements D – Airspace restrictions Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 7. Which of the following standard instrument departures is not a straight departure? A – A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 20o from the runway alignment B – a departure where the initial departure track differs more than 15o from the runway alignment C – A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 10o from the runway alignment D – A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 5o from the runway alignment Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 8. In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals: A – 0 ft B – 394 ft C – 35 ft D – 50 ft Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 9. when can the required noise abatement procedure be disregarded? A – At PIC’s discretion where safety is an issue B – If there is work in progress on the aerodrome C – If the RVR isles than 1500m D – Never, it must always be complied with Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 10. 1658. In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway centre line within: A – 45o B – 30o C – 15o  D – 12.5o Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 11. As a standard rule, while establishing the instrument departure procedures, the procedure assumes that the aeroplane has a climb gradient of: A – 3.3% with all engines operating B – 5% with all engines operating and a climb gradient margin respectively of 0.8%, 0.9%, 1% with two, three and four engines, taking into account one engine inoperative C – 2.4% with all engines operating and 1.5% with one engine inoperative D – 2.4% with two engines, 2.7% with three engines, 3% with four engines Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 12. Who is responsible for the development of the contingency procedures required to cover the case of engine failure during an instrument departure, which occurs after V1? A – The designer of the procedure (normally the State) B – ATC will provide radar vector for obstacle clearance C – The operator of the aircraft D – The pilot in close co-operation with ATC Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 13. The procedure design gradient (PDG) consists of: A – 2.3% OIS and 1% increasing obstacle clearance margin B – 3.3% OIS C – 2.5% OIS and 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance margin D – 2.7% OIS and 0.6% increasing obstacle clearance margin Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 14. For an instrument departure (SID) what is the procedure design gradient (PDG)?  A – 2.5% B – 5% C – 3.5% D – 3.3% Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 15. In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals: A – 35 ft B – 3.3% gradient C – 0 ft D – 0.8% gradient Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 16. During an omni-directional departure, what height are you required to climb to before turning onto the desired track? A – 1000 ft B – Transition altitude C – 150 m D – 120m (394 ft) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 17. Who is responsible for establishing contingency procedures for engine failure after take off? A – The PIC B – The Operator C – The Authority D – ATC Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir  Ans: B 18. The main factor that dictates in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is: A – the terrain surrounding the aerodrome B – ATC availability and requirements C – availability of navigation aids D – airspace restrictions applicable and in force Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 19. A turning departure is constructed if a departure route requires a turn of more than: A – 10o B – 15o C – 20o D – 25o Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 20. Departure routes are based upon track guidance acquired within: A – 20 km after completion of turns on departures requiring turns B – 20 nm after completion of turns on departures requiring turns C – 10 km after completion of turns on departures requiring turns D – 10 nm after completion of turns on departures requiring turns Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 21. For a turning departure turns may be specified at: A – An altitude or height B – At a fix  C – At a facility D – All of the above Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 22. For an omni-directional departure the procedure ensures that: A – At least 90m of obstacle clearance will be provided before turns greater than 30o can be specified B – At least 90 ft of obstacle clearance will be provided before turns greater than 30o can be specified C – At least 90m of obstacle clearance will be provided before turns greater than 15o can be specified D – At least 90 ft of obstacle clearance will be provided before turns greater than 15o can be specified Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 23. When constructing a turning area departure the temperature used is: A – ISA + 15oC corresponding to the altitude B – JSA + 15oC corresponding to the altitude C – ISA – 15oC corresponding to the altitude D – JSA – 15oC corresponding to the altitude Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 24. We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within: A – 5o of the alignment of the runway centre-line B – 10o of the alignment of the runway centre-line C – 15o of the alignment of the runway centre-line D – 25o of the alignment of the runway centre-line Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 25. The PDG is made up of: A – 2.5% gradient of obstacle identification B – 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance C – 2.5% gradient of obstacle identification plus 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance D – 2.5% gradient of obstacle identification minus 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 26. A straight departure is one in which the initial departure track does not deviate from the alignment of the extended runway centre line by more than: A – 15o B – 30o C – 45o D – 12.5o Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 27. The maximum distance from the DER that track guidance for a turning departure must be acquired is: A – 5 km after the completion of the turn B – 10 km after the completion of the turn C – 15 km before the initiation of the turn D – 20 km before the initiation of the turn Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 28. When taking off in IMC an aircraft should report to Departure Control: A – when advised to do so by the Tower B – before entering cloud C – immediately after the aircraft is airborne D – when established on the first heading and clear of the aerodrome Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C  010-06-04 Approach Procedures 1. Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure? A – At least 300m (984 ft) B – 150m (492 ft) C – 300m (984 ft) D – At least 150m (492 ft) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 2. What action should be taken if contact is lost with the aerodrome on the downwind leg? A – Request an amended clearance B – descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is better at a lower altitude C – Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the aerodrome D – Initiate a missed approach Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 3. Which of the following approach speed ranges (Vat) is applicable for Category B aircraft? A – 224 km/h to 261 km/h B – 121 kts to 141 kts C – 261 km/h to 307 km/h D – 91 kts to 120 kts Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 4. During circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight track), the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection