EPE MCQs PDF

MCQs On EPE 3rd year  Neuroscience 1 (Stroke) 1) Which of the following does not cause infarction? a) Venous occlusion b) Partial arterial occlusion c) Vascular spasm d) Atherothrombosis e) Embolic event 2) Spasticity of the paralyzed muscles in UMN lesions is associated with:...

MCQs On EPE 3rd year  Neuroscience 1 (Stroke) 1) Which of the following does not cause infarction? a) Venous occlusion b) Partial arterial occlusion c) Vascular spasm d) Atherothrombosis e) Embolic event 2) Spasticity of the paralyzed muscles in UMN lesions is associated with: a) Inhibition of tendon jerks. b) Remarkable wasting of the muscle. c) Clonus. d) Fasciculations. e) Prolonged chronaxie. 3) Abnormal Babinski reflex indicates damage to the: a) Spinal cord. b) Brainstem. c) Cerebellum. d) Basal ganglia. e) Pyramidal tract. 4) A young girl complains of dryness of the nose and the palate. This would indicate a lesion of which of the following ganglia? a) Nodose ganglion  b) Otic ganglion c) Pterygopalatine ganglion d) Submandibular ganglion e) Ciliary ganglion 5) The hypoglossal nerve supplies the following muscles a) stylopharyngeus b) Muscles of larynx c) Trapezius d) Hyoglossus e) tensor palati 6) Which of the following nerves is a branch of the vagus nerve? a) Nerve to stapedius muscle b) Greater superficial petrosal c) Lesser superficial petrosal d) Superior laryngeal nerve e) Posterior auricular nerve 7) Hypertonia of UMN lesions is characterized by: a) Increased gamma-motor neuron discharge. b) Increased inhibitory discharge from the premotor area. c) Inhibition of pontine reticular formation. d) Decreased muscle spindle discharge. e) The resistance to bending is present throughout the range of movement. 8) Which of the following is incorrect regarding recent infarct? a) Wedge shape b) Raised due to edema c) Appears as an area of softening d) Depressed with gliosis e) May be covered with Fibrinous exudate 9) Cerebral infarcts is ———— necrosis : a) Coagulative b) Fat c) Liquifactive d) Caseuous e) Fibrinoid 10) As regarding cranial nerve examination, which of the following is FALSE a) The cranial nerve examination allows one to examine the brain stem b) Three components of the optic nerve are typically evaluated: visual acuity, visual fields and the funduscopic examination. c) Olfactory Nerve, this nerve is tested by occluding one nostril and presenting a non-volatile stimulus (e.g. spices, coffee) to the other nostril. d) Oculomotor, Trochlear, and Abducens Nerves :these nerves are examined together since they have similar functions. e) The trigeminal nerve has only motor function. 11) When performing the motor examination: a) The motor examination consists of several parts: assessment of muscle bulk, evaluation of muscle tone, observation for spontaneous movements, and functional and formal muscle strength testing. b) Spasticity (clasp knife) indicating lower motor neuron lesions c) Rigidity (lead pipe) has a catch which varies with position and is velocity dependent d) Flaccidity, indicating only lower motor neuron lesions e) Spasticity, Steady resistance to movement at all speeds and positions. 12) Anti-convulsant drugs include which of the following: a) Valproic acid b) Barbituric acid c) Mefenamic acid d) Acetylsalicylic acid e) Citric acid 13) The following antiepileptic dug is effective in therapy of neuropathic pain: a) Phenytoin b) Zonisamide c) Gabapentin d) Vigabatrine e) Clonazepam 14) Which of the following is useful in treatment of generalized tonic-clonic epilepsy: a) Ethosuximide b) Carbamazepine c) Chlorpromazine d) Meperidine e) Acetazolamide 15) A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing a sudden loss of motor control on his left side accompanied by aphasia. Few hours later his symptoms completely resolved, and his physician prescribed a drug that binds platelet ADP receptors to prevent their aggregation. Which is the most likely prescribed drug? a) Aspirin b) Clopidogrel c) Enoxaparin d) Eptifibatide e) Tirofiban 16) A 57-year-old woman on warfarin therapy for treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left limb. Her lab analysis revealed an INR of 4.5 (the INR in such warfarin-treated patient should be 2.0–3.0). Which of the following should be given immediately to treat this patient? a) Alteplase b) Factor VIII c) Protamine sulfate d) Vitamin K1  e) Aminocaproic acid 17) Streptokinase is useful in which of the following: a) Dissolve recent blood clots b) Treat digestive disorders c) Treat muscle injuries d) Replace pepsin e) Promote carbohydrate degradation 18) A fibrinolytic drug may cause the following adverse effect: a) Acute renal failure b) Development of antiplatelet antibodies c) Encephalitis d) Hemorrhagic stroke e) Liver dysfunction 19) A 52-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation is prescribed apixaban. What is the mechanism of action of this drug? a) It indirectly inhibits thrombin by activating antithrombin b) It directly inhibits thrombin c) It indirectly inhibits actor Xa by activating antithrombin d) It directly inhibits actor Xa e) It antagonizes the effect of vitamin K  Cognitive and Psychology Module (Emotions) 1) Destruction of the amygdale causes: a) Fear. b) Rage. c) Motivation. d) Placidity. e) Sensation of reward. 2) The emotional aspect of the long-term memories is mostly stored in: a) The neocortex and amygdaloid nuclei. b) Floculo-nodular lobe. c) Pre-Botzinger complex. d) Brain stem. e) Red nucleus. 3) Areas whose stimulation gives a sensation of punishment are located in: a) The basal ganglia. b) The hippocampus c) The amygdale d) The anterior hypothalamus. e) The lateral portion of the posterior hypothalamus. 4) component of emotion includes: a) Attitude b) Motivation c) Affective expression d) Primary emotion e) Secondary emotion 5) Depression is: a) Attitude b) Motivation c) primitive emotion d) Primary emotion e) Mature emotion 6) Universal emotions include: a) Love b) Anger c) Anxiety d) submission e) Hatred 7) Disorders of mood include: a) Mood swings b) Illusions c) Delusions d) Irritability e) Depersonalization 8) Disorders of affect include: a) Mood swings b) Illusions c) Delusions d) Irritability e) Depersonalization  Multisystem module (diabetic retinopathy ) 1) There are ……bends in the course of internal carotid artery a) 2 b) 3 c) 3 d) 5 e) 6 2) A branch of the internal carotid artery: a) superior thyroid b) lingual c) maxillary d) ophthalmic e) posterior auricular 3) Regarding internal jugular vein, choose the best answer a) end in the subclavian vein. b) runs superficial to two heads of sternocleidomastoid. c) medial to artery d) begins as a continuation of sigmoid sinus. e) external jugular vein is one of its tributaries. 4) Recognized features of diabetic retinopathy include all of the following except: a) flame hemorrhages  b) arteriovenous nicking c) new blood vessels overlying the optic discs d) macular edema 5) When considering diabetic retinopathy which of the following statements is most accurate: a) Micro aneurysms represent sacular dilatation of retinal arterioles b) Hard exudates represent calcium deposits in the retina c) Cotton wool spots represent infarcts of the nerve fibre layer of the retina d) Laser photocoagulation is applied directly to new vessels to destroy them 6) All of the following can be associated with diabetic retinopathy EXCEPT a) Vitreous hemorrhage b) Retinal detachment c) Retinal hemorrhage d) Corneal edema 7) Which of the following drugs is an insulin secretagogue: a) Metformin b) Pioglitazone c) Repaglinide d) Acarbose e) Dapagliflozin f) 8) Adverse effects of metformin include which of the following: a) Hypoglycemia b) Lactic acidosis c) Increased appetite d) Hepatic toxicity e) Increased risk of heart attacks 9) Regarding the drug interactions of the oral antidiabetic sulfonylurea drugs, which of the following is correct: a) They are displaced from plasma proteins by salicylates b) MAO inhibitors increase their hepatic metabolism c) β-blockers antagonize their hypoglycemic effect d) Thiazide diuretics potentiate their hypoglycemic effect e) Glucocorticoids increase their hypoglycemic effect 10) As regarding UMN LESION, a) Muscle Bulk has atrophy b) hyporeflexia c) Babinski reflex is not Present d) Stroke may be a cause e) Neuropathy is a common cause 11) As regarding LMN LESION a) Spontaneous Movements like Fasciculations may be present b) There is hyperreflexia c) Muscle Tone is Spastic d) Muscle Bulk Preserved e) Babinski reflex Present  Neuroscience 2 (Hypertensive retinopathy) 1) Regarding the central artery of the retina, which of the following statements is true? a. It is a branch of ophthalmic artery. b. It passes to the eye ball outside the optic nerve. c. Its branches are anastomosis with each other. d. D.it gives arise to the ciliary artery e. It gives branches to extra-ocular muscles before it reaches eye ball. 2) A 31-year-old hockey player is hit in the head by a puck. His radiogram shows a fracture of the superior orbital fissure. Which of the following nerves would be damaged by this event? a. Ophthalmic nerve b. Mandibular nerve c. Maxillary nerve d. Optic nerve e. Olfactory nerve 3) The largest branch of ophthalmic artery is: a. lacrimal b. central retinal c. infratrochlear d. infraorbital e. supratrochlear 4) Concerning Muller’s cells, one of the following is FALSE: a. They share in the formation of the limiting membranes. b. They are nerve cells. c. They have long processes. d. Their nuclei are present in the inner nuclear layer. e. They are very long cells. 5) Which cell not belongs to retina? a. Muller cell b. Amacrine cells c. horizontal cells d. ganglion cells e. Purkinje cells 6) The outer plexiform layer of the retina is formed of synapses between: a. Müller cells & the photoreceptors. b. bipolar nerve cells& ganglion cells c. rod & cone cells with bipolar cells d. bipolar nerve cells& Amacrine cells e. ganglion cells and amacrine cells 7) Most of the fibers carrying visual impulses relay in: a. Medial geniculate body which send fibers in optic radiation to cerebral cortex b. Medial longitudinal bundle to reach reticular formation of mid brain. c. Lateral geniculate body which send fibers in optic radiation to cerebral cortex d. Inferior colliculus which send fibers in optic radiation to cerebral cortex  e. Superior colliculus which send fibers in optic radiation to cerebral cortex 8) A hypertensive patient developed an acute attack of marked diminution of vision on fundus examination all of the following can be present except : a. macular star b. macular hole c. retinal vein occlusion d. retinal artery occlusion 9) Which of the following Is not found in hypertensive retinopathy : a. attenuation of retinal arteries b. segmentation of the blood column of retinal veins c. deeply seated hard exudates d. cotton wall spots 10) Hypertensive retinopathy is retinal vascular damage caused by hypertension. Chronic, poorly controlled hypertension can cause arteriovenous crossing abnormalities (arteriovenous nicking). Arteriovenous nicking is a major predisposing factor for the development of which of the following eye disorders? a. Branch retinal vein occlusion b. Endothelial necrosis c. Optic disk edema d. Vascular wall hyperplasia 11) A hypertensive patient developed persistent dry cough after starting monotherapy designed to reduce preload and afterload. Which is the most likely drug that would have the same benefits but not cause cough? a. Hydrochlorothiazide b. Losartan c. Propranolol d. Verapamil e. Captopril 12) In hypertension which drug may reverse cardiac hypertrophy? a. Diuretics b. Alpha2 agonists c. ACE inhibitors d. Calcium channel blockers e. Nitrates 13) The following is approved for the treatment of subarachnoid hemorrhage: a. Hydralazine b. Noradrenaline c. Nifedipine d. Nimodipine e. Verapamil 14) A 62-year-old man presented with persistent elevation of his blood pressure despite regular antihypertensive medications. His physician prescribed an additional drug that dilate blood vessels by blocking calcium channels. Which is the most likely prescribed drug for this patient? a. Amlodipine b. Captopril c. Clonidine d. Hydrochlorothiazide e. Atenolol