Midwife Competency Exam Rationalization PDF

# Midwife Competency Exam Rationalization ## Page 1 ### Labour Defined - The process during which the maternal hormones relax the uterine tissue. - The voluntary pushing and effort of the mother during childbirth. - Contractions closer than five minutes apart cause the waters to break, signaling...

# Midwife Competency Exam Rationalization ## Page 1 ### Labour Defined - The process during which the maternal hormones relax the uterine tissue. - The voluntary pushing and effort of the mother during childbirth. - Contractions closer than five minutes apart cause the waters to break, signaling birth is imminent. ### Midwife Competency Exam Rationalization 1. Which of the following is **NOT** a benefit for the midwife of quality documentation in clinical records: - Reflective practice. - Communication of information with other Healthcare Practitioners. - Prevention of cross-contamination from patient to patient. - Evidence of care. 2. The premature exit of products of conception is known as: - Abortion - Chemical pregnancy - Stillbirth - Miscarriage 3. The number of times a woman has been pregnant, regardless of the outcome, including the current pregnancy is, defined as: - Fundus - Prognosis - Gravida - Parity 4. LNMP is an acronym for: - Ligand Neurotransmitter Myofibril Perisome - Labor Not Making Progress - Last Normal Menstrual Period - Legal Natural Mother's Party 5. A uterine contraction is: - Sometimes referred to as "Braxton Hick” - A tightening and shortening of the uterine muscles. - The stretching of the pelvic floor muscles. - A signal to the midwife to perform an artificial rupture of membranes. 6. The condition in which there is no expulsion of the placenta even after 30 minutes of the birth of the baby is called: - Placenta Previa. - Abruptio Placenta. - Retained Placenta. - Placenta Accreta. 7. Effacement is the: - Dilatation of the internal os. - Dilatation of the cervix. - Dilatation of the external os. - Dilatation of the internal vagina. 8. How much does the body cells need for Oxygen increase in: - 20% - 30% - 40% 9. What is the primary role of a midwife during prenatal: - Performing major surgical procedures. - Prescribing all types of medications. - Monitoring the health of the mother. 10. What is the lining of the uterus called: - Decidua - Basal - **Endometrium** - Humotrium ## Page 2 11. Which hormone is produced by the Corpus Luteum? - Leutinizing hormone - Estrogen - Progesterone - Follicle stimulating hormone 12. Which hormone stimulates the release of milk? - Prolactin - Oxytocin - Estrogen - Progesterone 13. A female reproductive cell that is released during the reproductive process? - Oocyte - Ovary - Ovum - Zygote 14. Which structure carries oxygenated blood across the placenta to the fetus? - Umbilical vein - Umbilical artery - Fetal artery - Ductus arteriosus 15. At full term, the placenta weights what fraction of the fetal weight? - 1/6 - 1/10 - 1/8 - 1/4 16. How much does the non-pregnant uterus weigh? - 10 grams - 50 grams - 80 grams - 100 grams 17. A surge in which hormone: - Estrogen - Follicle stimulating hormone 18. Bleeding in the first trimester with no uterine contraction, no pain, and no dilation of the cervix indicates: - Inevitable abortion - Threatened abortion - Missed abortion - Complete abortion 19. The golden color of the amniotic fluid indicates which condition: - Fetal distress - Post maturity - Rh incompatibility - Intrauterine disease 20. Newborn baby does not indicate pathology? - Bleeding from umbilicus at 70/minute at rest - Yellow skin tones at 12 hours of age - Bleeding from umbilicus - Yellow skin tones at 12 hours of age ## Page 3 21. Baby Z was born at 9:15 am. At 9:20 am, her heart rate was 132 beats/minute, she was crying vigorously moving all extremities and only her hands and feet were still slightly blue. The midwife should enter her APGAR score as: - 7 - 8 - 9 - 10 22. When is the APGAR score performed? - 10 minutes after birth - 20 minutes after birth - 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth - 7 minutes after birth 23. APGAR stands for: - Assessment, planning, graft, activity, response - Appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, record - Appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respiration - Actual, pulse, grimace, activity, respiration 24. The appropriate dilution of 5-6% sodium hypochlorite solution for disinfecting surfaces: - 1:5 - 1:9 - 1:10 - 1:11 25. How frequent should the bassinet be cleaned thoroughly, and disinfection should be done with sodium hypochlorite solution? - Daily - Weekly - Monthly. - Before and after use. 26. The midwife measured the head circumference of the baby and noticed that it was bigger than his/her chest, your evaluation is: - Abnormal, it may lead to hydrocephalus - Refer to the physician/doctor. - The difference is normal - The baby should be closely watched. 27. Which of the following advantages best described the value of breast milk. - Cheap and less Incidents of gastroenteritis, higher protein content. - Less costly has Immune bodies and more digestible protein - Inexpensive, safe and with more protein - Free, safe, with immune bodies and higher protein content. 28. The mother and midwife should be closely monitored? - Apgar score of 7 - The baby does not suck and sleepy - All of the above. 29. Which of the following organs of a newborn cannot adequately handle waste of the red blood cells that leads to physiologic jaundice? - Liver - Heart - Spleen - Pancreas ## Page 4 30. Which of the following is not true about meconium stain? - Sticky and odorless - Greenish black to brownish - First fecal material and passed from 8 to 34 hours after birth - All of the above 31. Which of the following vitamins is given among neonates to prevent bleeding? - Zinc - Iodine - Vitamin K - Vitamin D 32. A newborn is breathing and cyanotic. What is your initial step? - Dry and stimulate - Suction his/her mouth - Place him/her in a new environment - Give oxygen via ET tube 33. You have just attended a mother delivered a healthy infant, when is the best time to cut the infant cord? - When sign of placental separation - When the baby start to cry - 60 seconds after the baby is out - When the cord stop pulsating 34. Which of the following is correct about neonatal resuscitation? - Place a folded piece of cloth under the baby's head - Clear the nose first and then mouth - Ventilate at 40 squeezes per minutes - All of the above 35. The following are normal findings of the newborn EXCEPT. - Orange pink colored urine - Slightly watery, yellow-colored stools - Vaginal bleeding - Respiratory rate 20-40 per minute 36. Intrapartum newborn care? - Skin contact - Delayed cord clamping - All of the above. 37. These are precautions that a midwife should observed to prevent infection while attending to a delivery - Preparation of patient by emptying bowels and showers bath. - Sterilization of the Instruments by soaking in Lysol solution for 1 (one) minute. - Wearing cap, soaked clean gown. 38. The following are the time-bound interventions of Unang Yakap except. - Immediate and thorough drying of the newborn. - Early timed skin contact of newborn and breast. - Properly timed cord clamping and cutting. - Non separation of newborn and mother. 39. In clamping of the cord of the newborn: - True - False 40. A baby is: - Establish an airway for the baby. - Ascertain the newborn’s temperature. ## Page 5 41. It is an essential public health strategy that enables the early detection and management of several congenital metabolic disorders, which if left untreated, may lead to mental retardation and/or death. - Congenital heart screening - Hearing screening - Newborn screening - All of the above. 42. When is the Best/Ideal Time for NBS sample collection on Newborn screening? - 24 hours from birth - Less than 24 hours of life - After putting the baby on NPO and giving a blood transfusion - After 24 hours from birth. 43. Where is the best place to collect the sample for Newborn Screening? - Any clean/dry/secured place - Any clean place near electric fan for easy drying - Any place facing the sun for easy drying. - Under the radiant warmer. 44. What ink should you use when filling out the filter cards for newborn screening? - Use ballpoint pen with black or blue ink. - Use water soluble ink pens for easy reading. - Use a ballpoint pen with red ink. - All of the above. 45. What is the preferred method for: - Umbilical line - Venous - Arterial 46. What comes next in newborn screening, after the puncture site has been: - Squeeze the punctured site. - Wipe the first drop of blood with cotton balls soaked in alcohol. - Wipe the first Wood with. 47. Where should blood samples be collected for follow-up testing when a patient's NBS test results for G6PD were positive? - Baguio General Hospital Laboratory - Angeles University Foundation. - UP Diliman - Ilocos Training Regional Medical Center. 48. What is the first step in Human Milk bank process? - Breast milk expression - Donor screening - Raw Milk storage - Pooling ## Page 6 49. It is a method that involves heating milk to a specified temperature for a set amount of time to kill hazardous microorganisms. - Deep Freezing. - Ethanol oxide sterilization - Pasteurization. - Sterilizing with dry heat. 50. What is the ideal temperature for the refrigerator and freezer for breastmilk storage? - 0-4 °C for chiller, 20 °C chiller - 0-8 °C freezer, -20°C chiller. - 0-4 °C freezer, -18°C chiller - 0-4 °C freezer, -18°C chiller 51. The breastmilk of a full-term baby can be stored in the back of the main body of the refrigerator within: - 24 hours. - 48 hours - 72 hours - 7 days 52. To get breast milk from the milk bank, recipients need to: - Ask the midwives give her/him pasteurized milk. - Present a doctor’s prescription. - Pay a minimal fee to the midwives help sustain milk bank operations. - Present an issue slip. 53. Once frozen: - 24 hours 54. How does breastfeeding benefit the mother? - Helps in losing pregnancy weight. - Lowers the risk of breast and ovarian cancer. - Reduces the risk of osteoporosis. - All of the above. 55. What is the brain responsible for the release of oxytocin? - Hypothalamus - Pituitary gland - Brainstem 56. All of the following are being observed to ensure the safety and quality of the pasteurized milk before dispensing it to the recipient, EXCEPT: - Microbiological testing. - Routine Sterilization of milk container after each use. - Breast milk is pasteurized for 10 minutes. - Breast milk from multiple donors is pooled under a laminar flow hood. 57. What kind of milk of the human breast is: - First milk - Hindmilk - Foremilk - Colostrum. 58. What is Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC)? - Method of carrying the baby in a sling. - Skin-to-skin contact between mother and baby. - A form of breastfeeding ## Page 7 59. Which of the following is a core component of Kangaroo Mother Care? - Exclusive breastfeeding - Skin-to-skin contact - Early discharge from the hospital - All of the above 60. When should Kangaroo Mother Care ideally begin? - Immediately after birth. - After the first week. - Once the baby is 1 month old. - When the baby reaches 2 kg in weight. 61. What are some benefits of Kangaroo Mother Care for the baby? - Improved thermal regulation. - Better weight gain. - Enhanced bonding with mother. - All of the above. 62. How long should each Kangaroo Mother Care session last? - At least 2 hours. - 8-24 hours. - Only during breastfeeding. - At least 1 hour. 63. Kangaroo Mother Care is most: - 900 gms. - 1200 kgs. - 2000 gms. 64. What should be done if a mother is unable to provide Kangaroo Mother Care? - Discontinue KMC until the mother is available. - Use an incubator instead. - Involve the father or another family member. - Wait until the baby is older. 65. Which of the following is a contraindication for Kangaroo Mother Care? - Respiratory distress requiring mechanical ventilation. - Baby with cleft lip and palate. - Low birth weight. - Small for gestational age. 66. What should be monitored during Kangaroo Mother Care? - Flexed position. - Baby’s back covered and supported. - All of the above. 67. What is an important safety consideration during Kangaroo Mother Care? - Ensuring the baby does not overheat. - Checking the baby’s breathing regularly. - Avoiding sudden movements. - All of the above. 68. What hormone is primarily responsible for milk production? - Estrogen - Progesterone - Oxytocin. - Prolactin. ## Page 8 69. What triggers the milk ejection (let-down) reflex? - Baby’s sucking. - Baby’s cry. - Thinking about the baby. - All of the above. 70. Which position is often recommended for mothers who have had a cesarean section? - Cradle hold - Football hold - Side-lying position - B and C 71. Which breastfeeding position can be helpful for mothers with a strong let-down reflex? - Upright or laid-back position. - Side-lying position. - Football hold. - Cross-cradle hold. 72. What is the most common antibody in breast milk? - Immunoglobulin E - Immunoglobulin M - Immunoglobulin G - Immunoglobulin A 73. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), family: - The ability of individuals and couples to anticipate and attain their desired number of children and the spacing and timing of their births - Allows people to decide when and to have children, using the information, means and methods they need to do so. 74. The National Family Planning policy (AO No.50-A. s. 2001, prescribes the key policies for Family planning services focused : - Family planning as a health Intervention to promote the overall health of all Filipinos. - Family planning information and services will be provided based on voluntary and informed choice. 75. One of the RH elements deals on the orientation on fertility awareness and counselling are basic services which help promote responsible sexually among adolescents. - Education and counselling on sexuality and sexual health. - Adolescent Reproductive health. - Mother & child reproductive health. - Men’s reproductive health. 76. For Health reasons, how long should women wait after miscarriage before trying to become pregnant again? - No wait is necessary. - 3 months. - 6 months. - 1 year. 77. Which of the following statements is TRUE and should be shared with a woman during postpartum IUD counselling? - Placement of an IUD during the immediate postpartum period has a slightly higher risk of uterine perforation than placement during the interval between pregnancies. - An IUD placed during the postpartum períod can be used to delay or prevent pregnancy for as long as the woman desires, even up to 12 years. - Women who choose the PPIUD should limit breastfeeding in order to reduce the risk of expulsion. - All of the above. 78. Counselling about the use and benefits of a PPIUD can be provided, EXCEPT; - Only during routine antenatal care visits, if the husband has agreed to it. - During the latent phase labor, if the woman is comfortable. - During active labor, so that the IUD can be placed immediately after delivery of the placenta. - After delivery. ## Page 9 79. Non-contraceptive advantage of Combined hormonal contraceptive metods are as follows, EXCEPT; - Monthly periods are predictable. - Reduces symptoms of gynecologic conditions such as painful menses. - Reduces the risk for ovarian and endometrial cancer. - Prevents ectopic pregnancy. 80. Which of the following statement is most advantageous about condom? - Protects against sexually transmitted infections. - Inexpensive and easy to use. - Safe, effective and portable. - Can be use anytime if you want to engage in sex. 81. DMPA injection Post counselling include the following, EXCEPT; - Bleeding changes are common but not harmful. - Return of fertility is often delayed. - Injections can be as much as two weeks early or late. - Sudden weight gains due to increase of appetite. 82. Principles in assessing an infant is to follow: - Cephalocaudally - From the least intrusive to the most intrusive area. - Most intrusive to the least intrusive area. - Most intrusive to the most intrusive. 83. Baby boy Jose has a birthweight of 1500 grams. What is the expected weight of patient on his first birthday? - 3000 grams - 4000 grams - 5000 grams - 6000 grams 84. What is the recommended for an infant: - 35 days old - 38 days old - 10 days old 85. The following are danger signs in children according to the Integrated Management of children illnesses EXCEPT; - Not able to breastfeed or drink. - Develops fever at young infants. - Fast breathing. - Whole body Jaundice. 86. The following vaccines can be given by intramuscular route. - Bacillus Calmette Guerin. - Measle, Mumps, rubella. - Oral Polio, Rotavirus - Pneumococcal vaccine. 87. The following are contraindications of vaccination EXCEPT; - Temperature 36.5-37 C. - Cough and colds -on antibiotics- follow up. - Post admission-AGE resolving. - Unable to breastfeed and irritability. 88. A one-year-old: - 3 doses of OPV - 1 dose of IPV.