CCNAv7_questions.pdf

CCNAv7 (2020) – New Questions 2 Question 1 What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two) A. Artificial intelligence identifies and prevents potential design failures B. Data collection and analysis tools establish a baseline for the network C. New devices are onboarded with minimal effort D. Machine learning minimizes the overall error rate when automating troubleshooting processes E. Proprietary Cisco APIs leverage multiple network management tools Answer: A E Question 2 A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1. The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client. Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements? A. R1#enable R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com R1(config)#crypto key generate ec keysize 1024 B. R1#enable R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com R1(config)#crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024 C. R1#enable R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com R1(config)#crypto key generate ec keysize 2048 D. R1#enable R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com R1(config)#crypto key encrypt rsa name myKey A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Answer: B Question 3 An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GHz access points? A. Client Band Select B. OEAP Split Tunnel C. 11ac MU-MIMO D. Re-Anchor Roamed Clients Answer: A Question 4 When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported? A. Unicode B. base64 C. ASCII D. decimal Answer: C Question 5 Which networking function occurs on the data plane? A. facilitates spanning-tree elections B. processing inbound SSH management traffic C. forwarding remote client/server traffic D. sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets Answer: C Question 6 What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API? A. XML B. Java C. REST D. OpenFlow Answer: D Question 7 A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface? A. ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B B. ipv6 address 2001 db8:0::500:a:4F:583B C. ipv6 address 2001:0db8::5:a:4F:583B D. ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::500:a:400F:583B Answer: A Question 8 An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request? A. Enable Security Association Teardown Protection and set the SA Query timeout to 10 B. Enable the Protected Management Frame service and set the Comeback timer to 10 C. Enable 802.1x Layer 2 security and set the Comeback timer to 10 D. Enable MAC filtering and set the SA Query timeout to 10 Answer: B Question 9 What is the benefit of using FHRP? A. balancing traffic across multiple gateways in proportion to their loads B. reduced management overhead on network routers C. reduced ARP traffic on the network D. higher degree of availability Answer: D Question 10 Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID? A. Authentication Request B. Probe Request C. Reassociation Request D. Association Request Answer: C Question 11 What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable? A. Both have a 50 micron core diameter B. Both have a 9 micron core diameter C. Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter D. Both have a 100 micron core diameter Answer: A Question 12 Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a connected switch? A. Internet Group Management Protocol B. Cisco Discovery Protocol C. Adaptive Wireless Path Protocol D. Neighbor Discovery Protocol Answer: B Question 13 When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message? A. 0 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6 Answer: D Syslog levels are listed below Level Keyword Description 0 emergencies System is unusable 1 alerts Immediate action is needed 2 critical Critical conditions exist 3 errors Error conditions exist 4 warnings Warning conditions exist 5 notification Normal, but significant, conditions exist 6 informational Informational messages 7 debugging Debugging messages The highest level is level 0 (emergencies). The lowest level is level 7. By default, the router will send informational messages (level 6). That means it will send all the syslog messages from level 0 to 6. Question 14 Refer to the exhibit. Which command must be executed for Gi1/1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode? A. switchport mode trunk B. switchport mode dot1-tunnel C. switchport mode dynamic auto D. switchport mode dynamic desirable Answer: D Question 15 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic. Which configuration accomplishes this task? Option A Option B interface gigabitethernet1/1 interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode access switchport mode access switchport access vlan 300 switchport access vlan 400 switchport voice vlan 400 switchport voice vlan 300 Option C Option D interface gigabitethernet1/1 interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode trunk switchport mode trunk switchport access vlan 300 switchport trunk vlan 300 switchport voice vlan 400 switchport trunk vlan 400 A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Answer: A Question 16 What describes the operation of virtual machines? A. Virtual machines are responsible for managing and allocating host hardware resources B. Virtual machines are operating system instances that are decoupled from server hardware C. Virtual machines are the physical hardware that support a virtual environment D. In a virtual machine environment, physical servers must run one operating system at a time Answer: A Question 17 What is a role of access points in an enterprise network? A. connect wireless devices to a wired network B. support secure user logins to devices or the network C. integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks D. serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network Answer: A Question 18 Refer to the exhibit. SiteA#show interface TenGigabitEthernet0/1/0 TenGigabitEthernet0/1/0 is up, line protocol is up Hardware is BUILT-IN-EPA-8x10G, address is aabb.cc00.0100 (bia aabb.cc00.0100) Description: Connection to SiteB Internet address is 10.10.10.1/30 MTU 8146 bytes, BW 10000000 Kbit/sec, DLY 10 usec, reliability 166/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Full Duplex, 10000Mbps, link type is force-up, media type is SFP-LR 5 minute input rate 265746000 bits/sec, 24343 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 123245000 bits/sec, 12453 packets/sec SiteB#show interface TenGigabitEthernet0/1/0 TenGigabitEthernet0/1/0 is up, line protocol is up Hardware is BUILT-IN-EPA-8x10G, address is 0000.0c00.750c (bia 0000.0c00.750c) Description: Connection to SiteA Internet address is 10.10.10.2/30 MTU 8146 bytes, BW 10000000 Kbit/sec, DLY 10 usec, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Full Duplex, 10000Mbps, link type is force-up, media type is SFP-LR 5 minute input rate 123245000 bits/sec, 15343 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 265746000 bits/sec, 12453 packets/sec Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path, users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB. What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue? A. Interface errors are incrementing B. An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA C. High usage is causing high latency D. The sites were connected with the wrong cable type Answer: A Question 19 Refer to the exhibit. Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process. Branch-1: priority 614440 Branch-2: priority 39082416 Branch-3: priority 0 Branch-4: root primary Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5? A. Branch-1 B. Branch-2 C. Branch-3 D. Branch-4 Answer: C Question 20 Refer to the exhibit. The entire contents of the MAC address table are shown. Sales-4 sends a data frame to Sales-1. What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4? A. Map the Layer 2 MAC address to the Layer 3 IP address and forward the frame B. Insert the source MAC address and port into the forwarding table and forward the frame to Sales- 1 C. Perform a lookup in the MAC address table and discard the frame due to a missing entry D. Flood the frame out of all ports except on the port where Sales-1 is connected Answer: B Question 21 Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer? A. virtual device contexts B. network port ID visualization C. virtual routing and forwarding D. server virtualization Answer: D Question 22 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement? A. interface gi0/1 no cdp enable B. interface gi0/1 clear cdp table C. interface gi0/0 no cdp run D. interface gi0/0 no cdp advertise-v2 Answer: C Question 23 Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? (Choose two) A. FRTS B. CAR C. PQ D. PBR E. CBWFQ Answer: C E Question 24 What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented? A. The wireless network becomes vulnerable to unauthorized access B. Wireless devices are unable to distinguish between different SSIDs C. Network communications are open to eavesdropping D. Users experience poor wireless network performance Answer: D Question 25 Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute-value pairs? A. array B. string C. object D. Boolean Answer: C Question 26 An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database which action must be taken? A. Add the switch in the VTP domain with a lower revision number B. Add the switch in the VTP domain with a higher revision number C. Add the switch with DTP set to dynamic desirable D. Add the switch with DTP set to desirable Answer: A Question 27 Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic? A. distribution system B. service C. redundancy D. console Answer: A CCNAv7 (2020) – New Questions Question 1 Which two QoS tools are used to guarantee minimum bandwidth to certain traffic? (Choose two) A. FIFO B. CBWFQ C. LLC D. WFQ E. RSVP Answer: B D Question 2 Drag and drop the SNMP manager and agent identifier commands from the left onto the functions on the right. Answer: + show snmp group: displays the SNMP security model in use + show snmp community: displays the SNMP access string + show snmp chassis: displays the SNMP server serial number + show snmp engineID: displays the IP address of the remote SNMP device + show snmp host: displays information about the SNMP recipient Question 3 Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person? A. intrusion detection B. user awareness C. physical access control D. network authorization Answer: C Question 4 A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch. What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection? A. 802.1q trunks B. Cisco vPC C. LLDP D. LACP Answer: D Question 5 In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization? A. There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization. B. The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the number of broadcasts. C. Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside organization. D. The ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the internet for web services. Answer: A Question 6 Aside from discarding, which two states does the switch port transition through while using RSTP (802.1w)? (Choose two) A. listening B. blocking C. forwarding D. learning E. speaking Answer: C D Question 7 What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise network? A. serve as the first line of defense in an enterprise network B. support standalone or controller-based architectures C. centralize the management of access points in an enterprise network D. provide secure user logins to devices on the network Answer: C Question 8 How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment? A. wireless to an access point that is physically connected to the network B. a cable connected to a physical switch on the network C. a virtual switch that links to an access point that is physically connected to the network D. a software switch on a hypervisor that is physically connected to the network Answer: D Question 9 Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method? A. read B. update C. create D. delete Answer: A Question 10 With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client? A. Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate B. Accept-Patch: text/example; charset=utf-8 C. Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8 D. Accept: application/json Answer: D Question 11 Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through? A. firewall B. wireless access point C. router D. wireless LAN controller Answer: A Question 12 Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point? A. TACACS server B. wireless access point C. RADIUS server D. wireless LAN controller Answer: D Question 13 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task? A. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10.0 0.0.0.255 eq ssh B. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10.0 0.0.0.255 eq scp C. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10.0 0.0.0.255 eq telnet D. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10.0 0.0.0.255 eq https Answer: A (?) Question 14 A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server? A. a DHCP Relay Agent B. DHCP Binding C. a DHCP Pool D. DHCP Snooping Answer: A Question 15 Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is trying to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1. Which action is taken by S1? A. It forwards it out G0/3 only B. It is flooded out every port except G0/0 C. It drops the frame D. It forwards it out interface G0/2 only Answer: B Question 16 Refer to the exhibit. What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU? switch(config)#interface gigabitEthernet 1/11 switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast switch(config-if)#spanning-tree bpduguard enable A. The port transitions to STP blocking B. The port transitions to the root port C. The port immediately transitions to STP forwarding D. The port goes into error-disable state Answer: D Question 17 An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used? A. switchport trunk allowed vlan 10 B. switchport trunk native vlan 10 C. switchport mode trunk D. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q Answer: B Question 18 What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection? A. 1.544 Mbps B. 2.048 Mbps C. 34.368 Mbps D. 43.7 Mbps Answer: A Question 19 How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap? A. It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points B. It allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-interface basis. C. It segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different channels. D. It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel. Answer: A Question 20 What does a switch use to build its MAC address table? A. VTP B. DTP C. egress traffic D. ingress traffic Answer: D Question 21 Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions? A. policy plane B. control plane C. management plane D. data plane Answer: B Question 22 What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI? A. initiates a ping request to the URL B. prompts the user to specify the desired IP address C. continuously attempts to resolve the URL until the command is cancelled D. sends a broadcast message in an attempt to resolve the URL Answer: D Question 23 Refer to the exhibit. Switch 1 VLAN 110 – 32778 0018.184e.3c00 Switch 2 VLAN 110 – 24586 001a.e3ff.a680 Switch 3 VLAN 110 – 28682 0022.55cf.cc00 Switch 4 VLAN 110 – 64000 0e38.7363.657f Which switch becomes the root of the spanning tree for VLAN 110? A. Switch 1 B. Switch 2 C. Switch 3 D. Switch 4 Answer: B Question 24 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN. Which configuration meets these requirements? Option A Option B interface gigabitethernet1/1 interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode access switchport mode access switchport access vlan 8 switchport access vlan 9 ! ! interface gigabitethernet1/3 interface gigabitethernet1/3 switchport mode access switchport mode trunk switchport voice vlan 8 switchport voice vlan 8 switchport access vlan 9 switchport access vlan 9 Option C Option D interface gigabitethernet1/1 interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode access switchport mode access switchport access vlan 8 switchport access vlan 8 ! ! interface gigabitethernet1/3 interface gigabitethernet1/3 switchport mode access switchport mode trunk switchport access vlan 8 switchport voice vlan 8 switchport voice vlan 9 switchport access vlan 9 A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Answer: C Question 25 Refer to exhibit. Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses? Option A Option B Router1(config)#access-list 99 permit Router1(config)#access-list 99 permit 209.165.201.2 0.0.0.0 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.255 Router1(config)#ip nat inside source list 99 Router1(config)#ip nat inside source list 99 interface gi1/0/0 overload interface gi1/0/0 overload Router1(config)#interface gi2/0/1.200 Router1(config)#interface gi2/0/1.200 Router1(config)#ip nat inside Router1(config)#ip nat inside Router1(config)#interface gi1/0/0 Router1(config)#interface gi1/0/0 Router1(config)#ip nat outside Router1(config)#ip nat outside Option C Option D Router1(config)#access-list 99 permit Router1(config)#access-list 99 permit 192.168.100.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.100.32 0.0.0.31 Router1(config)#ip nat inside source list 99 Router1(config)#ip nat inside source list 99 interface gi1/0/0 overload interface gi1/0/0 overload Router1(config)#interface gi2/0/1.200 Router1(config)#interface gi2/0/1.200 Router1(config)#ip nat inside Router1(config)#ip nat inside Router1(config)#interface gi1/0/0 Router1(config)#interface gi1/0/0 Router1(config)#ip nat outside Router1(config)#ip nat outside A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Answer: D Question 26 How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of 0e38.7363.657b when the table is missing the address? A. It floods the frame to all interfaces except Fa0/1. B. It forwards the frame back out of interface Fa0/1. C. It drops the frame immediately. D. It holds the frame until the MAC address timer expires and then drops the frame. Answer: A Question 27 What is a benefit of VRRP? A. It provides traffic load balancing to destinations that are more than two hops from the source. B. It provides the default gateway redundancy on a LAN using two or more routers. C. It allows neighbors to share routing table information between each other. D. It prevents loops in a Layer 2 LAN by forwarding all traffic to a root bridge, which then makes the final forwarding decision. Answer: B Question 28 Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address? A. ARP B. DNS C. CDP D. DHCP Answer: D Question 29 Refer to the exhibit. Option A Option B ip access-list standard 99 ip access-list standard 99 permit 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 permit 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 deny 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 deny 192.168.0.0 0.255.255.255 Option C Option D ip access-list standard 100 ip access-list standard 199 permit 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 permit 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 deny 192.168.0.0 0.255.255.255 deny 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface Gi0/1. Which access list must be applied? A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Answer: A Question 30 Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent? A. The NMS must be configured on the same router as the SNMP agent B. The NMS must receive a trap and an inform message from the SNMP agent within a configured interval C. The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap D. The NMS must receive the same trap from two different SNMP agents to verify that it is reliable Answer: C Question 31 What is a characteristic of a SOHO network? A. connects each switch to every other switch in the network B. enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection C. provides high throughput access for 1000 or more users D. includes at least three tiers of devices to provide load balancing and redundancy Answer: B Question 32 Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server? A. applications B. operating system C. VM configuration file D. disk Answer: D Question 33 Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment? A. WPA2 + AES B. WPA + AES C. WEP D. WPA + TKIP Answer: A Question 34 Refer to the exhibit. After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface’s configuration? A. Use the xml library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface’s configuration. B. Create an XML filter as a string and pass it to get_config() method as an argument. C. Create a JSON filter as a string and pass it to the get_config() method as an argument. D. Use the JSON library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface’s configuration. Answer: D Question 35 What are two functions of an SDN controller? (Choose two) A. coordinating VTNs B. Layer 2 forwarding C. tracking hosts D. managing the topology E. protecting against DDoS attacks Answer: A D Question 36 If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames? A. The previous frame is delivered, the new frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent. B. The new frame is delivered first, the previous frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent. C. The two frames are processed and delivered at the same time. D. The new frame is placed in a queue for transmission after the previous frame. Answer: B Question 37 Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability? A. partial mesh B. full mesh C. point-to-point D. hub-and-spoke Answer: C Question 38 Refer to the exhibit. The ntp server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on Router1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on Router2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock? A. Router2(config)#ntp passive B. Router2(config)#ntp master 4 C. Router2(config)#ntp server 172.17.0.1 D. Router2(config)#ntp server 192.168.0.2 Answer: B Question 39 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configured communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured? A. Switch trunk allowed vlan 12 B. Switchport trunk allowed vlan none C. Switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13 D. Switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 10-11 Answer: C Question 40 Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports? A. The destination MAC address of the frame is unknown B. The source MAC address of the frame is unknown C. The source and destination MAC addresses of the frame are the same D. The frame has zero destination MAC addresses Answer: A Question 41 When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed? A. default-router B. default-gateway C. ip helper-address D. dns-server Answer: A Question 42 What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate? A. Layer 2 switch B. LAN controller C. load balancer D. firewall Answer: D Question 43 How is the native VLAN secured in a network? A. separate from other VLANs within the administrative domain B. give it a value in the private VLAN range C. assign it as VLAN 1 D. configure it as a different VLAN ID on each end of the link Answer: D Question 44 Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it? A. switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast default B. switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default C. switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast trunk D. switch(config-if)#no spanning-tree portfast Answer: C Question 45 What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture? A. facilities communication between the controller and the applications B. integrates a controller with other automation and orchestration tools C. allows application developers to interact with the network D. facilities communication between the controller and the networking hardware Answer: D Question 46 Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in? A. UplinkFast B. PortFast C. BPDU guard D. BackboneFast Answer: B Question 47 What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state? A. latency B. nothing plugged into the port C. shutdown command issued on the port D. port security violation Answer: D Question 48 Which technology is appropriate for communication between an SDN controller and applications running over the network? A. OpenFlow B. Southbound API C. NETCONF D. REST API Answer: D Question 49 Which security program element involves installing badge readers on data-center doors to allow workers to enter and exit based on their job roles? A. physical access control B. biometrics C. role-based access control D. multifactor authentication Answer: C Question 50 What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing? A. used without tracking or registration B. issued by IANA in conjunction with an autonomous system number C. traverse the Internet when an outbound ACL is applied D. composed of up to 65,536 available addresses Answer: A Question 51 Which network action occurs within the data plane? A. compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table B. make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC C. run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP) D. reply to an incoming ICMP echo request Answer: D Basic Questions https://www.9tut.com/basic-questions-3 Question 1 Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two) A. Defines the network functions that occur at each layer B. Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network C. Changes in one layer do not impact other layer D. Ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach Answer: A B Question 2 What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received? A. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame B. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN C. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning D. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to Its MAC address table Answer: B Question 3 What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame? A. 00:00:0c:07:ac:01 B. ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff C. 43:2e:08:00:00:0c D. 00:00:0c:43:2e:08 E. 00:00:0crfHfrff Answer: B Question 4 Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override? A. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog message is generated B. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused C. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device has failed and disconnects D. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled Answer: D Question 5 In which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required? A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks C. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch D. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch Answer: D Question 6 A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two) A. runts B. giants C. frame D. CRC E. input errors Answer: D E Question 7 What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two) A. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again B. when the cable length limits are exceeded C. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex D. when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used E. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted Answer: B C Question 8 What is the function of a server? A. It transmits packets between hosts in the same broadcast domain B. It provides shared applications to end users C. It routes traffic between Layer 3 devices D. It creates security zones between trusted and untrusted networks Answer: B Question 9 What is a function of TFTP in network operations? A. transfers a configuration files from a server to a router on a congested link B. transfers IOS images from a server to a router for firmware upgrades C. transfers a backup configuration file from a server to a switch using a username and password D. transfers files between file systems on a router Answer: B Question 10 What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two) A. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests B. achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering C. housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client D. runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers E. handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time Answer: A E Question 11 What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device? A. to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet B. to transmit wireless traffic between hosts C. forward traffic within the same broadcast domain D. to pass traffic between different networks Answer: D Question 12 What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules? A. They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength B. They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module C. They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode D. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable Answer: D Topology Architecture Questions https://www.9tut.com/topology-architecture-questions Question 1 What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture? A. Each device is separated by the same number of hops B. It provides variable latency C. It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports D. Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth Answer: A Question 2 What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two) A. The core and distribution layers perform the same functions B. The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains C. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail D. The core layer maintains wired connections for each host E. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies Answer: C E Question 3 What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking? A. moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy B. provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks C. allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized port D. combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency Answer: C Question 4 Which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture? A. communicates between the controller and the physical network hardware B. reports device errors to a controller C. generates statistics for network hardware and traffic D. facilitates communication between the controller and the applications Answer: D Question 5 What is the name of the layer in the Cisco borderless switched network design that is considered to be the backbone used for high-speed connectivity and fault isolation? A. data link B. access C. core D. network E. network access Answer: C Question 6 A company needs to interconnect several branch offices across a metropolitan area. The network engineer is seeking a solution that provides high-speed converged traffic, including voice, video, and data on the same network infrastructure. The company also wants easy integration to their existing LAN infrastructure in their office locations. Which technology should be recommended? A. VSAT B. ISDN C. Frame Relay D. Ethernet WAN Answer: D Question 7 Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two) A. dynamic routing B. static routing C. dual-homed branches D. single-homed branches E. asychronous routing Answer: A C Question 8 Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture? A. broadband cable access B. frame-relay packet switching C. dedicated point-to-point leased line D. Integrated Services Digital Network switching Answer: A Question 9 Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two) A. Provide direct connectivity for end user devices B. Police traffic that is sent to the edge of the network C. Provide uninterrupted forwarding service D. Inspect packets for malicious activity E. Ensure timely data transfer between layers Answer: C E Question 10 Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture? A. applying security policies B. marking interesting traffic for data polices C. enforcing routing policies D. attaching users to the edge of the network Answer: C Cloud & Virtualization Questions https://www.9tut.com/cloud-virtualization-questions Question 1 Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines? A. Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor B. The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage C. Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch D. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources Answer: B Question 2 An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine? A. platform-as-a-service B. software-as-a-service C. network-as-a-service D. infrastructure-as-a-service Answer: D Question 3 Anycompany has decided to reduce its environmental footprint by reducing energy costs, moving to a smaller facility, and promoting telecommuting. What service or technology would support this requirement? A. Cisco ACI B. cloud services C. APIC-EM D. data center Answer: B Question 4 What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (Choose two) A. The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic B. It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network C. It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server D. It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network E. It requires that some servers, virtual machines and network gear reside on the Internet Answer: B C Question 5 What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization? A. control and distribution of physical resources B. software-as-a-service C. services as a hardware controller D. infrastructure-as-a-service Answer: A Question 6 Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend? A. infrastructure-as-a-service B. platform-as-a-service C. business process as service to support different types of service D. software-as-a-service Answer: D Question 7 A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend? A. infrastructure-as-a-service B. software-as-a-service C. platform-as-a-service D. business process as service to support different types of service Answer: B CDP & LLDP Questions https://www.9tut.com/cdp-lldp-questions-2 Question 1 How can the Cisco Discovery Protocol be used? A. to allow a switch to discover the devices that are connected to its ports B. to determine the hardware platform of the device C. to determine the IP addresses of connected Cisco devices D. all of the above Answer: D Question 2 In a CDP environment, what happens when the CDP interface on an adjacent device is configured without an IP address? A. CDP operates normally, but it cannot provide any information for that neighbor. B. CDP operates normally, but it cannot provide IP address information for that neighbor. C. CDP uses the IP address of another interface for that neighbor. D. CDP becomes inoperable on that neighbor. Answer: C Question 3 Which command should you enter to configure an LLDP delay time of 5 seconds? A. lldp reinit 5 B. lldp reinit 5000 C. lldp holdtime 5 D. lldp timer 5000 Answer: A Question 4 Which command is used to enable LLDP globally on a Cisco IOS ISR? A. lldp run B. lldp enable C. lldp transmit D. cdp run E. cdp enable Answer: A Question 5 Refer to the exhibit. Which command provides this output? Capability Codes: k - Router, I - Trans Bridge, B - source Route bridge S - Switch, H - Host, I - IGMP, r - Repeater, P - Phone, D - Remote, C - CVTA, M - Two-port Mac Relay Device ID Local Intrfce Holdtme Capability Platform Port ID 10.1.1.2 Gig37/3 176 RI CPT 600 Gig36/41 10.1.1.2 Gig37/1 174 RI CPT 600 Gig36/43 10.1.1.2 Gig36/41 134 RI CPT 600 Gig37/3 10.1.1.2 Gig36/43 134 RI CPT 600 Gig37/1 10.1.1.2 Ten3/2 132 RI CPT 600 Ten4/2 10.1.1.2 Ten4/2 174 RI CPT 600 Ten3/2 A. show ip route B. show ip interface C. show interface D. show cdp neighbor Answer: D Question 6 Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface? A. lldp timer B. lldp holdtime C. lldp reinit D. lldp tlv-select Answer: C Question 7 A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped? A. Device(Config)#lldp run B. Device(Config)#cdp run C. Device(Config-if)#cdp enable D. Device(Config)#flow-sampler-map topology Answer: A Question 8 An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented? A. switch#lldp port-description B. switch(config)#lldp port-description C. switch(config-line)#lldp port-description D. switch(config-if)#lldp port-description Answer: B Switch Questions https://www.9tut.com/switch-questions-3 Question 1 Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three) A. To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address B. The MAC address is also referred to as the IP address C. The MAC address of a device must be configured in the Cisco IOS CLI by a user with administrative privileges D. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware E. An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90 F. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the network on which the host resides and the second of which uniquely identifies the host on the network Answer: A D E Question 2 The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions? (Choose two) A. There is a duplex mismatch B. There is a speed mismatch C. There is a protocol mismatch D. The interface is shut down E. The interface is error-disabled Answer: D E Question 3 What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two) A. makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet B. selects the best route between networks on a WAN C. moves packets within a VLAN D. moves packets between different VLANs E. acts as a central point for association and authentication servers Answer: A C Question 4 How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function? A. It requires a minimum number of secure MAC addresses to be filled dynamically B. Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses of each connecting CAM table C. The ports are restricted and learn up to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses D. The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port Answer: D VLAN & Trunking Questions https://www.9tut.com/trunking-questions-3 Question 1 Refer to the exhibit. After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B. Based on the output for switch 1, which error must be corrected? Switch 1 Switch 2 Name: Gi0/1 Name: Gi0/1 Switchport: Enabled Switchport: Enabled Administrative Mode: trunk Administrative Mode: trunk Operational Mode: trunk Operational Mode: trunk Administrative Trunking Encapsulation: dot1q Administrative Trunking Encapsulation: dot1q Operational Trunking Encapsulation: dot1q Operational Trunking Encapsulation: dot1q Negotiation of Trunking: Off Negotiation of Trunking: Off Access Mode VLAN: 1 (default) Access Mode VLAN: 1 (default) Trunking Native Mode VLAN: 1 (default) Trunking Native Mode VLAN: 99 (default) Administrative Native VLAN tagging: enabled Administrative Native VLAN tagging: enabled Voice VLAN: none Voice VLAN: none Trunking VLANs Enabled: 50-100 Trunking VLANs Enabled: 50-100 Pruning VLANs Enabled: 2-1001 Pruning VLANs Enabled: 2-1001 Capture Mode Disabled Capture Mode Disabled Capture VLANs Allowed: ALL Capture VLANs Allowed: ALL A. There is a native VLAN mismatch B. Access mode is configured on the switch ports. C. The PCs are in the incorrect VLAN D. All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk Answer: A Question 2 Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration? A. The link is in a downstate. B. The link is in an error disables stale C. The link is becomes an access port D. The link becomes a trunkport Answer: D Question 3 Refer to exhibit. Which action do the switches take on the trunk link? interface FastEthernet0/1 interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport trunk native vlan 999 switchport trunk native vlan 99 switchport mode trunk switchport mode trunk A. The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status B. The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain C. The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link D. The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state Answer: B Question 4 Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged. Which command accomplishes this task? A. switchport access vlan 67 B. switchport trunk allowed vlan 67 C. switchport private-vlan association host 67 D. switchport trunk native vlan 67 Answer: D Question 5 Refer to the exhibit. A frame from VLAN1 of switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame received on VLAN2. What causes this behavior? A. trunk mode mismatches B. VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet C. native vlan mismatches D. allowing only vlan 2 on the destination Answer: C Question 6 Refer to the exhibit. Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface? SW1#show run int gig 0/1 interface GigabitEthernet0/1 switchport access vlan 11 switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-10 switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport trunk native vlan 5 switchport mode trunk speed 1000 duplex full A. The frame is processed in VLAN 5 B. The frame is processed in VLAN 11 C. The frame is processed in VLAN 1 D. The frame is dropped Answer: A Question 7 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1 configuration is shown. What is the correct configuration for SW2? A. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode active switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk ! interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode active switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk B. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 2 mode auto switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk ! interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 2 mode auto switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk C. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk ! interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk D. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode passive switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk ! interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode passive switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk Answer: C Question 8 What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding? A. Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs B. Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in MAC address table C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port D. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN Answer: C Question 9 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEthernet 3/1/4 port on a switch? interface GigabitEthernet3/1/4 switchport voice vlan 50 ! A. The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone do not have VLAN connectivity. B. The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1. C. The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone has no VLAN connected. D. The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone send and receive data in VLAN 50. Answer: B Question 10 Refer to the exhibit. What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24? SW1: SW2: interface Ethernet0/0 interface Ethernet0/1 switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q R1 switchport mode trunk switchport mode trunk interface Ethernet0/0 ! ! no ip address interface Ethernet0/1 interface Ethernet0/2 switchport trunk allowed vlan 10 switchport access vlan 20 switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode access switchport mode trunk A. R1 (config)#interface ethernet0/0 R1 (config)#encapsulation dot1q 20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 B. R1 (config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1 (config)#encapsulation dot1q 20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 C. R1 (config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 D. R1 (config)#interface ethernet0/0 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 Answer: B VLAN & Trunking Questions 2 https://www.9tut.com/vlan-trunking-questions-2 Question 1 Refer to the exhibit. Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B? A. The source MAC address is changed B. The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same C. The destination MAC address is replaced with ffff.ffff.ffff D. The switch rewrites the source and destination MAC addresses with its own Answer: B Question 2 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server. Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLANs 10, 11, 12 and 13. What is the next step in the configuration? A. Add PC A to the same subnet as the File Server allowing for intra-VLAN communication B. Add PC A to VLAN 10 and the File Server to VLAN 11 for VLAN segmentation C. Add a router on a stick between Switch A and Switch B allowing for inter-VLAN routing D. Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation Answer: D Question 3 An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken? A. configure switchport nonegotiate B. configure switchport mode dynamic desirable C. configure switchport mode dynamic auto D. configure switchport trunk dynamic desirable Answer: B Question 4 An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured? A. switchport mode trunk B. switchport mode dynamic desirable C. switchport mode dynamic auto D. switchport nonegotiate Answer: B Question 5 An engineer must configure interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third- party switch. Which action should be taken? A. configure IEEE 802.1p B. configure IEEE 802.1q C. configure ISL D. configure DSCP Answer: B STP & VTP Questions https://www.9tut.com/stp-vtp-questions Question 1 How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI Layer 2? A. TTL B. MAC address forwarding C. Collision avoidance. D. Port blocking Answer: D Question 2 What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command? A. It enables BPDU messages B. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time C. It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded D. It immediately enables the port in the listening state Answer: B Question 3 Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch? A. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms B. VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically. C. Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down D. After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs. Answer: A Question 4 Refer to exhibit. How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain? SW2 vtp domain cisco vtp mode transparent vtp password test interface fastethernet0/1 description connection to SW1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q A. It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports B. It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports C. It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports D. It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on its trunk ports Answer: C Question 5 Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two) A. The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1 B. This is a root bridge C. The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+ D. The spanning-tree mode is PVST+ E. The root port is FastEthernet 2/1 Answer: C E Question 6 Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge? SW1: 0C:E0:38:00:36:75 SW2: 0C:0E:15:22:05:97 SW3: 0C:0E:15:1A:3C:9D SW4: 0C:E0:18:A1:B3:19 A. SW1 B. SW2 C. SW3 D. SW4 Answer: C Question 7 Refer to the exhibit. Which switch becomes the root bridge? A. S1 B. S2 C. S3 D. S4 Answer: B Question 8 Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled? A. learning B. forwarding C. blocking D. listening Answer: B Question 9 What criteria is used first during the root port selection process? A. lowest neighbor’s port ID B. lowest path cost to the root bridge C. lowest neighbor’s bridge ID D. local port ID Answer: B Question 10 Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750? A. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0 B. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 614440 C. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 38003685 D. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 root primary Answer: A Question 11 Which spanning-tree enhancement avoids the learning and listening states and immediately places ports in the forwarding state? A. BPDUfilter B. BPDUguard C. Backbonefast D. PortFast Answer: D Question 12 Refer to the exhibit. Switch1: 0C.E0.38.57.24.22 Switch2: 0C.0E.15.22.1A.61 Switch3: 0C.0E.15.1D.3C.9A Switch4: 0C.E0.19.A1.4D.16 After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN? A. Switch 1 B. Switch 2 C. Switch 3 D. Switch 4 Answer: C Question 13 When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200? A. spanning-tree vlan 200 priority 38572422 B. spanning-tree vlan 200 priority 614440 C. spanning-tree vlan 200 priority 0 D. spanning-tree vlan 200 root primary Answer: C EtherChannel Questions https://www.9tut.com/etherchannel-questions-2 Question 1 Which two statements about EtherChannel technology are true? (Choose two) A. EtherChannel provides increased bandwidth by bundling existing FastEthernet or Gigabit Ethernet interfaces into a single EtherChannel B. STP does not block EtherChannel links C. You can configure multiple EtherChannel links between two switches, using up to a limit of sixteen physical ports D. EtherChannel does not allow load sharing of traffic among the physical links within the EtherChannel E. EtherChannel allows redundancy in case one or more links in the EtherChannel fail Answer: A E Question 2 Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol? A. on B. auto C. active D. desirable Answer: A Question 3 Refer to the exhibit. Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured? A. passive B. mode on C. auto D. active Answer: D Question 4 Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two) A. interface range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode active B. interface range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode desirable C. interface range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode passive D. interface range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto E. interface range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on Answer: A C Question 5 Which two command sequences must you configure on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two) A. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode active B. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode auto C. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode on D. interface port-channel 10 no switchport ip address 172.16.0.1 255.255.255.0 E. interface port-channel 10 switchport switchport mode trunk Answer: A D TCP & UDP Questions https://www.9tut.com/tcp-udp-questions Question 1 What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP? A. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol B. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol C. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol D. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol Answer: A Question 2 How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets? A. TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data, UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery B. TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost C. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing D. TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake Answer: C Question 3 How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery? A. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only. B. TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks and UDP uses retransmissions only. C. TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only. D. TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgement and parity checks and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only. Answer: A Question 4 How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints? A. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets B. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK bits C. UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol D. TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery Answer: D IP Address & Subnetting Questions https://www.9tut.com/ip-address-subnetting-questions Question 1 An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria? A. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A371:10975 ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248 B. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A371:10975 ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252 C. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A371:10975 ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248 D. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A371:10975 ip address 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252 Answer: D Question 2 Refer to exhibit. Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received? Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/1 Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.16.143 255.255.255.240 Bad mask /28 for address 192.168.16.143 A. It is a broadcast IP address B. The router does not support /28 mask C. It belongs to a private IP address range D. IT is a network IP address Answer: A Question 3 Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet? A. 172.9.0.0/16 B. 172.28.0.0/16 C. 192.0.0.0/8 D. 209.165.201.0/24 Answer: B Question 4 Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform? A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts B. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network C. ensures that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing D. enables secure communications to the internet for all external hosts Answer: A Question 5 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses? A. 10.10.225.48 255.255.255.240 B. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.240 C. 10.10.225.48 255.255.255.224 D. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224 Answer: D Question 6 A corporate office uses four floors in a building * Floor 1 has 24 users * Floor 2 has 29 users * Floor 3 has 28 users * Floor 4 has 22 users Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration? A. 192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor B. 192.168.0.0/24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor C. 192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor D. 192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor Answer: D Question 7 Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design? A. The design will function as intended B. Spanning-tree will need to be used. C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme. D. The connection between switches should be a trunk. E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol. Answer: C Question 8 Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network? A. provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers B. provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure C. allows communication across the Internet to other private networks D. allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries Answer: B Question 9 An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor. What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently? A. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 B. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0 C. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224 D. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128 Answer: C IP Routing Questions https://www.9tut.com/ip-routing-questions Question 1 Which statement about static and dynamic routes is true? A. Dynamic routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while static routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol B. Static routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while dynamic routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol C. Static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, while dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected D. Dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, while static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected Answer: B Question 2 Refer to the exhibit. When PC 1 sends a packet to PC2, the packet has which source and destination IP address when it arrives at interface Gi0/0 on router R2? A. source 192.168.10.10 and destination 10.10.2.2 B. source 192.168.20.10 and destination 192.168.20.1 C. source 192.168.10.10 and destination 192.168.20.10 D. source 10.10.1.1 and destination 10.10.2.2 Answer: C Question 3 Which of the following dynamic routing protocols are Distance Vector routing protocols? (Choose two) A. IS-IS B. EIGRP C. OSPF D. BGP E. RIP Answer: B E Question 4 Refer to the exhibit. With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned? A. 0 B. 110 C. 38443 D. 3184439 Answer: C Question 5 Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router 1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative distance? A. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 1 B. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5 C. router1(config)#ip route 1 192.168.201.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 D. router1(config)#ip route 5 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 Answer: B Question 6 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32? R1#show ip route Gateway of last resort is 10.10.10.18 to network 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets. 3 Masks C 10.10.10.0/30 is directly connected. FastEthernet0/1 O 10.10.13.0/25 [110/4576] via 10.10.10.1, 02:53:11, FastEthernet0/1 C 10.10.10.16/30 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/24 0 10.10.13.144/28 [110/110] via 10.10.10.1, 03:51:21, FastEthernet0/1 B* 0.0.0.0/0 [20/0] via 10.10.10.18, 02:17:53 A. floating static route B. host route C. default route D. network route Answer: D Question 7 Refer to the exhibit. If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command, how does the router respond? Gateway of last resort is 10.12.0.1 to network 0.0.0.0 O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 10.12.0.1, 00:00:01, GigabitEthernet0/0 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks C 10.0.0.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0 L 10.0.0.2/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0 C 10.13.0.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1 L 10.13.0.2/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1 A. It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed B. It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route C. It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes D. It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernet0/1 Answer: A Question 8 When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route falls? A. The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup B. The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes secondary C. The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup D. The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing table Answer: A Question 9 Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols? A. dual algorithm B. metric C. administrative distance D. hop count Answer: C Question 10 Refer to the exhibit. Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192.168.16.2? R1#show ip route D 192.168.16.0/26 [90/2679326] via 192.168.1.1 R 192.168.16.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.1.2 O 192.168.16.0/21 [110/2] via 192.168.1.3 i L1 192.168.16.0/27 [115/30] via 192.168.1.4 A. 192.168.16.0/21 B. 192.168.16.0/24 C. 192.168 26.0/26 D. 192.168.16.0/27 Answer: D Question 11 Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A? Router1#show ip route Gateway of last resort is 10.10.11.2 to network 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.0/27 is sudnetted, 1 subnets B 209.165.200.224 [20/0] via 10.10.12.2, 03:03:03 209.165.201.0/27 is sudnetted, 1 subnets B 209.165.201.0 [20/0] via 10.10.12.2, 03:03:03 209.165.202.0/27 is subnetted, 1 subnets B 209.165.202.128 [20/0] via 10.10.12.2, 03:03:03 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 8 subnets, 4 masks C 10.10.10.0/28 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0 C 10.10.11.0/30 is directly connected, FastEthernet2/0 C 10.10.12.0/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1 O 10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.1, 00:00:03, GigabitEthernet0/0 O 10.10.13.128/28 [110/2] via 10.10.10.1, 00:00:03, GigabitEthernet0/0 O 10.10.13.144/28 [110/2] via 10.10.10.1, 00:00:03, GigabitEthernet0/0 O 10.10.13.160/29 [110/2] via 10.10.10.1, 00:00:03, GigabitEthernet0/0 O 10.10.13.208/29 [110/2] via 10.10.10.1, 00:00:03, GigabitEthernet0/0 S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 10.10.11.2 A. 10.10.10.0/28 B. 10.10.13.0/25 C. 10.10.13.144/28 D. 10.10.13.208/29 Answer: D Question 12 Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table? A. 20 B. 90 C. 110 D. 115 Answer: B Question 13 Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16? R1# show ip route D 192.168.10.0/24 [90/2679326] via 192.168.1.1 R 192.168.10.0/27 [120/3] via 192.168.1.2 O 192.168.10.0/28 [110/2] via 192.168.1.3 i L1 192.168.10.0/13 [115/30] via 192.168.1.4 A. It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address B. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix: inclusive of the destination address C. It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost D. It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance Answer: B Question 14 Refer to the exhibit. Which path is used by the router for Internet traffic? R1#show ip route Gateway of last resort is 10.10.11.2 to network 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.0/27 is subnetted, 1 subnets B 209.165.200.224 [20/0] via 10.10.12.2, 00:10:34 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 3 masks C 10.10.10.0/28 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0 C 10.10.11.0/30 is directly connected, FastEthernet2/0 C 10.10.13.0/30 [110/2] via 10.10.10.1, 00:03:34, GigabitEthernet0/0 C 10.10.12.0/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1 S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 10.10.11.2 Switch1#show ip route Gateway of last resort is not set 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks C 10.10.10.0/28 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1 C 10.10.13.0/24 is directly connected, VLAN20 A. 209.165.200.0/27 B. 10.10.10.0/28 C. 0.0.0.0/0 D. 10.10.13.0/24 Answer: C IP Routing Questions 2 https://www.9tut.com/ip-routing-questions-2 Question 1 Refer to the exhibit. A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources. Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two) IBGP route 10.0.0.0/30 RIP route 10.0.0.0/30 OSPF route 10.0.0.0/16 OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30 EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32 A. RIP route 10.0.0.0/30 B. iBGP route 10.0.0.0/30 C. OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30 D. EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32 E. OSPF route 10.0.0.0/16 Answer: C D Question 2 A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet? A. ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1 B. ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1 C. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1 D. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1 Answer: C Question 3 Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 Fa0/0 cannot ping router R3 Fa0/1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue? R2#show ip route R1#show ip route Gateway of last resort is not set Gateway of last resort is not set 20.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 20.20.20.0 is directly connected, 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets FastEthernet0/1 C 10.10.10.0 is directly connected, 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets FastEthernet0/0 C 10.10.10.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0 R3#show ip route Gateway of last resort is not set 20.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 20.20.20.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets S 10.10.10.0 [1/0] via 20.20.20.1 A. set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24 B. set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2 C. configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network D. configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network Answer: D Question 4 Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1? A. longest prefix B. metric C. cost D. administrative distance Answer: A Question 5 Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task? A. R1#config t R1(config)#ip routing R1(config)#ip route default-route 192.168.1.1 B. R1#config t R1(config)#ip routing R1(config)#ip route 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 C. R1#config t R1(config)#ip routing R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 D. R1#config t R1(config)#ip routing R1(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1 Answer: C Question 6 Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.12.16? EIGRP: 192.168.12.0/24 RIP: 192.168.12.0/27 OSPF: 192.168.12.0/26 A. It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address B. It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance C. It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost D. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address Answer: D Question 7 R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed? A. route with the lowest cost B. route with the next hop that has the highest IP C. route with the shortest prefix length D. route with the lowest administrative distance Answer: D Question 8 What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating static route? (Choose two) A. to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down B. to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet C. to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails D. to support load balancing via static routing E. to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router Answer: A C Question 9 Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet? A. 207.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0 B. 207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0 C. 207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1 D. 207.165.200.250 via Serial0/0/0 Answer: C Question 10 Refer to the exhibit. Which route type is configured to reach the internet? R1#show ip route Gateway of last resort is 10.10.10.18 to network 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets. 3 Masks C 10.10.10.0/30 is directly connected. FastEthernet0/1 O 10.10.13.0/25 [110/4576] via 10.10.10.1, 02:53:11, FastEthernet0/1 C 10.10.10.16/30 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/24 0 10.10.13.144/28 [110/110] via 10.10.10.1, 03:51:21, FastEthernet0/1 B* 0.0.0.0/0 [20/0] via 10.10.10.18, 02:17:53 A. host route B. default route C. floating static route D. network route Answer: B Question 11 Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24? A. OSPF B. static C. EIGRP D. eBGP Answer: B Question 12 Refer to the exhibit. Which command configures a floating static route to provide a backup to the primary link? A. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.202.131 B. ip route 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.130 C. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.224 D. ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.129 254 Answer: D OSPF Questions https://www.9tut.com/ospf-questions-3 Question 1 What is the purpose of the show ip ospf interface command? A. displaying OSPF-related interface information B. displaying general information about OSPF routing processes C. displaying OSPF neighbor information on a per-interface basis D. displaying OSPF neighbor information on a per-interface-type basis Answer: A Question 2 When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route? A. It multiple the active K value by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric. B. For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination to calculate the route with the lowest bandwidth. C. It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost. D. It count the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the router with the lowest metric Answer: C Question 3 A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF. By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to? A. point-to-multipoint B. point-to-point C. broadcast D. nonbroadcast Answer: C Question 4 You have configured a router with an OSPF router ID, but its IP address still reflects the physical interface. Which action can you take to correct the problem in the least disruptive way? A. Reload the OSPF process B. Reload the router C. Save the router configuration D. Specify a loopback address Answer: A Question 5 An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode? A. Exchange B. 2-way C. Full D. Init Answer: C Question 6 Refer to the exhibit. If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A? Router2#show ip route Gateway of last resort is not set 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks C 10.10.10.8/30 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/2 C 10.10.10.12/30 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1 O 10.10.13.0/25 [110/11] via 10.10.10.9, 00:00:02, FastEthernet0/2 [110/11] via 10.10.10.13, 00:00:02, FastEthernet0/1 C 10.10.10.4/30 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/2 A. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2 only B. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1 only C. It cannot send packets to 10.10.13.128/25 D. It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2 Answer: C Question 7 A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers. A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP. By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2? A. point-to-multipoint B. broadcast C. point-to-point D. non-broadcast Answer: C Question 8 Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID? A. 10.10.1.10 B. 10.10.10.20 C. 172.16.15.10 D. 192.168.0.1 Answer: C Question 9 Refer to the exhibit. The “show ip ospf interface” command has been executed on R1. How is OSPF configured? Designated Router (ID) 10.11.11.11, Interface address 10.10.10.1 Backup Designated router (ID) 10.3.3.3, Interface address 10.10.10.3 Timer intervals configured, Hello 10, Dead 40, Wait 40, Retransmit 5 oob-resync timeout 40 Hello due in 00:00:08 Supports Link-local Signaling (LLS) Cisco NSF helper support enabled IETF NSF helper support enabled Index 1/1/1, flood queue length 0 Next 0x0(0)/0x0(0)/0x0(0) Last flood scan length is 1, maximum is 6 Last flood scan time is 0 msec, maximum is 1 msec Neighbor Count is 3, Adjacent neighbor count is 3 Adjacent with neighbor 10.1.1.4 Adjacent with neighbor 10.2.2.2 Adjacent with neighbor 10.3.3.3 (Backup Designated Router) Suppress hello for 0 neighbor(s) A. The interface is not participating in OSPF B. A point-to-point network type is configured C. The default Hello and Dead timers are in use D. There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface Answer: C Question 10 R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS, OSPF, RIP and Internal EIGRP. Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table? A. IS-IS B. RIP C. Internal EIGRP D. OSPF Answer: C Question 11 Refer to the exhibit. The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration. After testing, workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet. Which action corrects the configuration issue? R1#show run | b router ospf router ospf 1 R2#show run | b router ospf router-id 1.1.1.1 router ospf 1 log-adjacency-changes router-id 2.2.2.2 auto-cost reference-bandwidth 10000 log-adjacency-changes network 10.10.10.2 0.0.0.0 area 0 auto-cost reference-bandwidth 10000 default-information originate network 10.10.10.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 network 10.10.13.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 ==================================== == ================================== == R1#show ip route Gateway of last resort is not set R2#show ip route 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 3 masks Gateway of last resort is not set C 10.10.10.0/30 is directly connected, 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 3 subnets, 3 FastEthernet0/1 masks O 10.10.13.0/25 [110/5766] via C 10.10.10.0/30 is directly connected 10.10.10.1,00:33:22 C 10.10.13.0/25 is directly connected, Vlan20 C 10.10.10.16/30 is directly connected, C 10.10.13.144/28 is directly connected, Vlan40 FastEthernet0/24 O 10.10.13.144/28 [110/110] via 10.10.10.1, 01:33:33 A. Add the default-information originate command on R2 B. Add the always keyword to the default-information originate command on R1 C. Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1 D. Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.2 command on R2 Answer: C Question 12 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1. The new circuit uses eBGP and learns the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path. Router1#show ip route Gateway of last resort is 10.10.11.2 to network 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 8 subnets, 4 masks C 10.10.10.0/28 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0 C 10.10.11.0/30 is directly connected, FastEthernet2/0 O 10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.1,00:00:32, GigabitEthernet0/0 O 10.10.13.128/28 [110/2] via 10.10.10.1,00:00:32, GigabitEthernet0/0 O 10.10.13.144/28 [110/2] via 10.10.10.1,00:00:32, GigabitEthernet0/0 O 10.10.13.160/29 [110/2] via 10.10.10.1,00:00:32, GigabitEthernet0/0 O 10.10.13.208/30 [110/2] via 10.10.10.1,00:00:32, GigabitEthernet0/0 O 10.10.13.252/30 [110/2] via 10.10.10.1,00:00:32, GigabitEthernet0/0 S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 10.10.11.2 What is the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25? A. Traffic to 10.10.13.0.25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces B. Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1 C. Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is symmetrical D. Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the Gi0/0 interface remains in the routing table Answer: B Question 13 Refer to the exhibit. To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165? Router1#show ip route Gateway of last resort is 10.10.11.2 to network 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.0/27 is subnetted, 1 subnets B 209.165.200.224 [20/0] via 10.10.12.2,03:32:14 209.165.201.0/27 is subnetted, 1 subnets B 209.165.201.0 [20/0] via 10.10.12.2,02:26:53 209.165.202.0/27 is subnetted, 1 subnets B 209.165.202.128 [20/0] via 10.10.12.2,02:46:03 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subneted, 10 subnets, 4 masks O 10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.1,00:00:04, GigabitEthernet0/0 O 10.10.13.128/28 [110/2] via 10.10.10.5,00:00:12, GigabitEthernet0/1 O 10.10.13.144/28 [110/2] via 10.10.10.9,00:01:57, GigabitEthernet0/2 O 10.10.13.160/29 [110/2] via 10.10.10.5,00:00:12, GigabitEthernet0/1 O 10.10.13.208/29 [110/2] via 10.10.10.13,00:01:57, GigabitEthernet0/3 S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 10.10.11.2 A. Router2 B. Router3 C. Router4 D. Router5 Answer: B OSPF Questions 2 https://www.9tut.com/ospf-questions-2-2 Question 1 Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers? R1#show running-config R2#show running-config Building configuration… Building configuration… ! ! interface GigabitEthernet1/0 interface GigabitEthernet2/0 mtu 1600 ip address 192.168.0.2 255.255.255.252 ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.252 negotiation auto negotiation auto ! ! router ospf 1 router ospf 1 router-id 2.2.2.2 router-id 1.1.1.1 passive-interface default passive-interface default no passive-interface GigabitEthernet2/0 no passive-interface GigabitEthernet1/0 network 192.168.0.2 0.0.0.0 area 0 network 192.168.0.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 ! ! A. R2 is using the passive-interface default command B. R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0 C. R2 should have its network command in area 1 D. R1 interface Gi1/0 has a larger MTU size Answer: D Question 2 Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two) A. OSPF area B. OSPF MD5 authentication key C. IPv6 address D. OSPF process ID E. OSPF stub flag Answer: A D Question 3 Refer to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem? Router1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet1/1 Router2(config)#interface GigabitEthernet1/1 Router1(config-if)#description ***Connection to Router2(config-if)#description ***Connection to Router2*** Router1*** Router2(config-if)#ip address 10.10.10.2 Router1(config-if)#ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.252 255.255.255.252 Router2(config)#router ospf 1001 Router1(config-if)#ip ospf hello-interval 5 Router2(config-router)#router-id 2.2.2.2 Router1(config)#router ospf 1000 Router2(config-router)#network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 Router1(config-router)#router-id 1.1.1.1 area 0 Router1(config-router)#network 10.10.10.0 Router2(config-router)#passive-interface default 0.0.0.3 area 0 Router2(config-router)#no passive-interface GigabitEthernet1/1 A. The OSPF router IDs are mismatched B. Router2 is using the default hello timer C. The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured D. The OSPF process IDs are mismatched Answer: B Question 4 Which step in the link-state routing process is described by a router sending Hello packets out all of the OSPF-enabled interfaces? A. electing the designated router B. establishing neighbor adjacencies C. injecting the default route D. exchanging link-state advertisements Answer: B Question 5 Refer to the exhibit. If the switch reboots and all routers have to re-establish OSPF adjacencies, which routers will become the new DR and BDR? A. Router R3 will become the DR and router R1 will become the BDR. B. Router R4 will become the DR and router R3 will become the BDR. C. Router R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR. D. Router R3 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR. Answer: A Question 6 Refer to the exhibit. What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency? A. modify priority B. modify process ID C. modify hello interval D. modify network type Answer: C (?) Question 7 Refer to the exhibit. What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5? A. Loopback 0 B. 10.0.1.4 C. 10.0.1.50 D. 10.0.1.3 Answer: C Question 8 An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3. The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168.1.0/30 subnet. What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two) A. configure the hello and dead timers to match on both sides B. configure the same process ID for the router OSPF process C. configure the same router ID on both routing processes D. configure the interfaces as OSPF active on both sides E. configure both interfaces with the same area ID Answer: D E EIGRP Questions https://www.9tut.com/eigrp-questions-2 Question 1 A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path? A. cost B. administrative distance C. metric D. as-path Answer: C Question 2 Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two) A. The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting interface by 256 B. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor C. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route D. The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link E. The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route Answer: B C Question 3 By default, how does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table? A. It uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric B. It uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router C. It uses a reference Bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric D. It counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric Answer: A Question 4 Refer to the exhibit. Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output? A. internal BGP route B. /24 route of a locally configured IP C. statically assigned route D. route learned through EIGRP Answer: D NAT Questions https://www.9tut.com/nat-questions Question 1 Which statement about the nature of NAT overload is true? A. applies a one-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses B. applies a one-to-one relationship to internal IP addresses C. applies a many-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses D. can be configured only on Gigabit interface Answer: A Question 2 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct. Which IP address is the source IP? R1#show ip nat translations Pro Inside global Inside local Outside local Outside global tcp 172.23.104.3:43268 10.4.4.4:43268 172.23.103.10:23 172.23.103.10:23 tcp 172.23.104.4:45507 10.4.4.5:45507 172.23.103.10:80 172.23.103.10:80 A. 10.4.4.4 B. 10.4.4.5 C. 172.23.103.10 D. 172.23.104.4 Answer: C Question 3 Which keyword in a NAT configuration enables the use of one outside IP address for multiple inside hosts? A. source B. static C. pool D. overload Answer: D Question 4 Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device? A. outside global B. outside local C. inside global D. inside local E. outside public F. inside public Answer: C Question 5 Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is configured with static NAT. Addressing on the router and the web server are correctly configured, but there is no connectivity between the web server and users on the Internet. What is a possible reason for this lack of connectivity? R1(config)# ip nat inside source static 192.168.11.254 209.165.200.1 R1(config)#interface FastEthernet0/0 R1(config-if)#ip nat inside R1(config-if)#interface Serial0/0/1 R1(config-if)#ip nat outside A. The router NAT configuration has an incorrect inside local address B. The inside global address is incorrect C. The NAT configuration on interface S0/0/1 is incorrect. D. Interface Fa0/0 should be configured with the command ip nat outside Answer: A Question 6 An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.3.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3. Which configuration should be used? Option A: Option B: Option C: enable enable enable configure terminal configure terminal configure terminal ip nat pool mypool 192.168.3.1 ip nat pool mypool 192.168.3.1 ip nat pool mypool 192.168.3.1 192.168.3.3 prefix-length 30 192.168.3.3 prefix-length 30 192.168.3.3 prefix-length 30 route-map permit 10.10.0.0 access-list 1 permit 10.10.0.0 access-list 1 permit 10.10.0.0 255.255.255.0 0.0.0.255 0.0.0.255 ip nat outside destination list 1 ip nat outside destination list 1 ip nat inside source list 1 pool pool mypool pool mypool mypool interface g1/1 interface g1/1 interface g1/1 ip nat inside ip nat inside ip nat inside interface g1/2 interface g1/2 interface g1/2 ip nat outside ip nat outside ip nat outside A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C Answer: C NTP Questions https://www.9tut.com/ntp-questions-2 Question 1 Which command should you enter to configure a device as an NTP server? A. ntp server B. ntp peer C. ntp authenticate D. ntp master Answer: D Question 2 Which two pieces of information can you determine from the output of the show ntp status command? (Choose two) A. whether the NTP peer is statically configured B. the IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized C. the configured NTP servers D. whether the clock is synchronized E. the NTP version number of the peer Answer: B D Question 3 Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two) A. Enable NTP authentication B. Verify the time zone C. Disable NTP broadcasts D. Specify the IP address of the NTP server E. Set the NTP server private key Answer: A D Syslog Questions https://www.9tut.com/syslog-questions-2 Question 1 What will happen if you configure the logging trap debug command on a router? A. It causes the router to send messages with lower severity levels

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