All OB-GYN MCQs PDF 2011

All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 History and Examination in OB-GYN: 1. The Expected date of delivery of a human pregnancy can be calculated: A. From a change in the patient's weight. B. As 10 lunar months after the time of ovulation...

All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 History and Examination in OB-GYN: 1. The Expected date of delivery of a human pregnancy can be calculated: A. From a change in the patient's weight. B. As 10 lunar months after the time of ovulation. C. As 40 weeks after last menstrual period. D. As 280 days from the last full moon. E. As 36 weeks after the last menstrual period. 2. The last menstrual period was June 30. the expected date of delivery (EDD) is approximately: A. March 23. B. April 7. C. March 28. D. April 23. E. March 7. 5 All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 Anatomy of the female genital tract, bony pelvis and fetal skull: 1. Uterine Cervix: A. Is the portion of the uterus below the isthmus B. External OS cell lining is columnar epithelium C. Laterally is attached to the round ligament D. The cervical canal is covered with stratified squamous epithelium E. Can be dilated with dilators without the need of anesthesia 2. The main support of the uterus is provided by A. The round ligament B. The cardinal ligament C. The infandilo-pelvic ligament D. The integrity of the pelvis E. The broad ligament 3. The most important muscle in the pelvic floor is: A. Bulbo cavernousus. B. Ischio-cavernosus. C. Levator ani. D. Superficial transverse Perineal muscle. E. Deep transverse Perineal muscle. 4. The pelvis includes which of the following bones: A. Trochanter, hip socket, ischium, sacrum & pubis. B. Ilium, ischium, pubis, sacrum & coccyx. C. Ilium, ischium & pubis. D. Sacrum, Ischium, ilium & pubis. E. Trochanter, sacrum, coccyx, ilium & pubis. 5. The joint between the two pubic bones is called the: A. Sacroiliac joint. B. Pubis symphysis. C. Sacrococcygeal joint. D. Piriformis. E. Intervertebral joint 6. The greatest diameter of the fetal head is: A. Occipitofrontal. B. Occipitomental. C. Suboccipit bregmatic. 6 All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 D. Bitemporal. E. Biparietal. 7. Molding of the fetal head: A. Usually cause brain damage. B. Becomes progressively easier as gestational age increase. C. Increase the difficulty of delivery. D. Does NOT have time to occur in breech delivery. E. Does not happen when maternal pelvis is adequate. 8. The main blood supply of the vulva is: A. Inferior hemorrhoidal artery. B. Pudendal artery. C. Ilioinguinal artery. D. Femoral artery. E. Inferior Hypogastric artery. 9. The following are typical in the female bony pelvis EXCEPT: A. Has a transverse diameter of the inlet greater than the antero-posterior diameter. B. Has an obstetric conjugate of 11-12 cm. C. Is funnel shaped. D. Has an obtuse greater sciatic notch. E. Has a pubic angle greater than 90 degrees. 10. Regarding fetal head, Choose the CORRECT answer: A. Can be delivered vaginally in persistent occipito-mental Presentation. B. Will show Spalding's sign within 12 hours of Intrauterine death. C. Can be delivered vaginally in persistent brow presentation. D. Is likely to be a vertex presentation when the head is deflexed. E. Considered to be engaged when the Biparietal diameter passes the level of the pelvic inlet. 11. The ovarian artery is a branch of: A. Common iliac artery. B. Internal iliac artery. C. Aorta. D. Hypogastric artery. E. Sacral artery. 12. The normal lining of the fallopian tube is: A. Squamous epithelium. B. Transitional epithelium. C. Cuboidal epithelium. 7 All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 D. Columnar epithelium with cilia. E. Fibrous connective tissue. 13. The cilia of the fallopian tube has the following function: A. Remove the zona pellucida which surrounds the ovum. B. Transport the ovum towards the uterus. C. Enhance the rapid division of the zygote. D. Transport the ovum towards the peritoneal cavity. E. Has a bactericidal function to prevent peritoneal function 8 All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 Labor and Fetal Surveillance and Mechanism of Labor: 1. Hyperextension of the fetal head is found in: A. Vertex presentation B. Face presentation C. Shoulder presentation D. Breach presentation E. Hydrocephalic baby 2. Stages of labor A. The first stage commences at the time of membrane rupture B. The cervix dilates at consistent rate of 3 cm per hour in the first stage C. The third stage end with the delivery of the placenta and membranes D. Forceps or ventose may be useful in slow progress of the late 1st stage E. Syntometrine is a combination of oxytocin and Ergometrine which is used in the treatment of secondary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) 3. All the following characteristics are applied to a pelvis favorable to vaginal delivery EXCEPT: A. Sacral promontory can not be felt. B. Obstetric conjugate is less than 10 cm. C. Ischial spines are not prominent. D. Subpubic arch accepts 2 fingers. E. Intertuberous diameter accepts 4 knuckles on pelvic exam. 4. In the fetus: A. The coronal suture lies between the two parietal bones. B. The umbilical artery normally contains one artery and two veins. C. Fetal lie describes the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the mother. D. Entanglement of the umbilical cord is common in diamniotic twins. E. The anterior Fontanelle is usually closed by the time of labor. 5. Which of the following terms best describes the pelvic type of small posterior saggital diameter, convergent sidewalls, prominent ischial spines, and narrow pubic arch? A. Android. B. Gynecoid. C. Anthropoid. D. Platypelloid. E. Mixed. 9 All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 6. The second stage of labor involves: A. Separation of the placenta. B. Effacement of the cervix. C. Expulsion of the placenta. D. Dilation of the cervix. E. Expulsion of the fetus. 7. Which is true? A. Position – cephalic. B. Station – level of ischial spines. C. Presentation – flexion. 8. A pelvic inlet is felt to be contracted if : A. The anterio-posterior diameter is only 12 cm. B. The transverse diameter is only 10 cm. C. Platypelloid pelvis. D. The mother is short. E. The patient had a previous C-section. 9. During clinical pelvimerty, which of the following is routinely measured: A. Bi-ischeal diameter. B. Transverse diameter of the inlet. C. Shape of the pubic arch. D. Flare of the iliac crest. E. Elasticity of the levator muscles. 10. At term, the ligaments of the pelvis change. This can result in: A. Increasing rigidity of the pelvis. B. Degeneration of pelvic ground substance. C. Decreasing width of the symphysis. D. Enlargement of the pelvic cavity. E. Posterior rotation of the levator muscles. 11. During clinical pelvimetry, which of the following is routinely measured: A. True conjugate. B. Transverse diameter of the inlet. C. Shape of the pubic arch. D. Flare of the iliac crest. E. Elasticity of the levator muscles. 10 All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 12. During the delivery, the fetal head follow the pelvic axis. The axis is best described as: A. A straight line. B. A curved line, 1ST directed anteriorly then caudal. C. A curved line, 1ST directed posteriorly then caudal. D. A curved line, 1ST directed posteriorly then cephalic. E. None of the above. 13. A head of level (one fifth) indicates: A. Indicates that one fifth of the head is below the pelvic brim. B. Indicates that the head is engaged. C. Indicated that forceps may not be used. D. Indicates that head is at the level of the ischial spines. E. Always occur in a term brow presentation. 14. In a vertex presentation, the position is determined by the relationship of what fetal part to the Mother's pelvis: A. Mentum. B. Sacrum. C. Acromian. D. Occiput. E. Sinciput. 15. Signs of Placental separation after delivery include: A. Bleeding. B. Changes of uterine shape from discoid to globular. C. Lengthening of the umbilical cord. D. Presentation of the placenta at the cervical os. E. All of the above. 16. The persistence of which of the following is usually incompatible with spontaneous delivery at term: A. Occiput left posterior B. Mentum posterior. C. Mentum anterior. D. Occiput anterior. E. Sacrum posterior. 17. An unstable lie is related to all of the following EXCEPT: A. Prematurity. B. Grand multiparty. C. Placenta previa. D. Fundal fibroid. E. Cervical fibroid. 11 All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 18. The relation of the fetal parts to one another determines: A. Presentation of the fetus. B. Lie of the fetus. C. Attitude of the fetus. D. Position of the fetus. E. None of the above. 19. The relationship of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the mother is called: A. Lie. B. Presentation. C. Position. D. Attitude. E. None of the above. 20. Engagement is strictly defined as: A. When the presenting part goes through the pelvic inlet. B. When the presenting part is level with the ischial spines. C. When the greatest Biparietal diameter of the fetal head passes the pelvic inlet. D. When the greatest Biparietal diameter of the fetal head is at the level of ischial spines. E. None of the above. 21. The fetal head may undergo changes in shape during normal delivery. The most common etiology listed is: A. Cephalohematoma. B. Molding. C. Subdural hematoma. D. Hydrocephalus. E. None of the above. 22. If the large fontanel is the presenting part, what is the presentation? A. Vertex. B. Sinciput. C. Breech. D. Face. E. Brow. 23. Methods of determining fetal presentation & position include: A. Cullen's sign. B. Leopold's maneuver. C. Mauriceau-Smelli-Veit maneuver. D. Carful history taking. 12 All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 E. All of the above. 24. A transverse lie of the fetus is least likely in the presence of: A. Placenta previa. B. Pelvic contraction. C. Preterm fetus. D. Grand multiparity. E. Normal term fetus. 25. What is the station where the presenting part is at the level of the ischialspines A. -2. B. -1. C. 0. D. +1. E. +2. 26. A primpara is in labor and an episiotomy to be cut. Compared with a mid line episiotomy, an advantage of medio-lateral episiotomy is: A. Ease of repair B. Fewer break downs C. Lower blood loss D. Less dyspareunia E. Less extension of the incision 27. A patient sustained a laceration of the premium during delivery, it involved the muscles of Perineal body but not the anal sphincter. Such a laceration would be classified as : A. First degree B. Second degree C. Third degree D. Forth degree E. Fifth degree 28. An unstable lie is associated with all the following EXCEPT : A. Prematurity B. Grand multiparity C. Placenta previa D. Fundal fibroid E. Cervical fibroid 29. A primipara is in labor & and an episiotomy is about to be cut. Compared with a midline episiotomy, an advantage of mediolateral episiotomy. A. Ease of repair, B. Fewer break downs. 13 All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 C. Lower blood loss. D. Less Dyspareunia. E. Less extension of the incision. 30. Which of the following statements about episiotomy if FALSE: A. Median (midline) episiotomy is generally considered to be less painful the mediolateral episiotomy. B. Mediolateral or lateral episiotomy may be associated with more blood loss than median one. C. Indications for episiotomy include avoiding an imminent Perineal tear, the use of forceps, breech delivery, & the delivery of premature infants. D. The earlier the episiotomy is done during delivery, generally the more beneficial it will be un speeding delivery. E. Episiotomy incisions are repaired anatomically in layers. 31. Regarding Episiotomy: A. Commonly done in Left medio lateral side. B. External anal sphincter is included in episiotomy. C. It is done after the head crown appear ( crowning ). 32. The first stage of labor : A. Separation of the placenta. B. Effacement of the cervix. C. Expulsion of the placenta. D. Ends with fully Dilation of the cervix. E. Expulsion of the fetus. 33. The heart rate of a normal fetus at term: A. 80-100 bpm. B. 100-120 bpm. C. 120-160 bpm. D. 160-180 bpm. E. There is no baseline heart rate. 34. Repetitive late decelerations most commonly indicate: A. Fetal academia. B. Fetal hypoxia. C. Fetal sleep state. D. Fetal efforts of maternal sedation. E. Rapid cervical dilation 35. Electronic fetal monitoring: A. Has high specificity but low sensitivity. B. Has low specificity but high sensitivity. 14 All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 C. Has low specificity & sensitivity. D. Has high specificity & sensitivity. E. Has moderate sensitivity & specificity. 36. What is the uterine blood flow at term: A. 50 ml/min. B. 100 to 150 ml/min. C. 300 to750 ml/min. D. 500 to 750 ml/min. E. 200 ml/min. 37. Regarding Fetal blood pH: A. Can only be measured postnatally. B. Is not a reliable way of assessing fetal distress. C. Is dangerous to perform & should not be done. D. Of 6.9 is considered to be normal. E. Can be measured during labor. 38. The following are major indicators of fetal asphyxia: A. Old meconium at the time of induction of labor. B. Loss of acceleration. C. Deep type I deceleration in the 2ND stage of labor. D. Type II (late) decelerations with tachycardia. E. Excessive fetal movements 39. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of normal labor: A. Progressive cervical dilation. B. Increasing intensity of contractions. C. Uterine relaxation between contractions. D. Moderate bleeding. E. Moderate pain. 40. Bishop score includes all the followings EXCEPT: A. Dilation of the cervix. B. Position of the cervix. C. The presenting part of the fetus. D. Length of the cervix. E. Consistency of the cervix.. 41. During which of the following conditions would the serum Prolactin level be greatest: A. sleep. B. Ovulation. C. Parturition. 15 All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 D. Menopause. E. Suckling. 42. Regarding Prostaglandins: A. Maintain the corpus luteum of early pregnancy. B. Have no role in the development of menorrhagia. C. Are involved in the onset of labor. D. Have no rule in the development of dysmenorrhea. E. Are small polypeptides. 43. Early deceleration is : A. Associated with unengaged head of the fetus. B. Associated usually with brain asphyxia. C. A decrease in the fetal heart beat that peaks after the peak of uterine contraction. D. An indication of C-section. E. Results from increased vagal tone secondary to head compression. 44. The normal cord pH is : A. 6.1. B. 6.2. C. 7.0. D. 7.1. E. 7.2. 45. The bishop score is used to predict : A. The state of the fetus at the time of delivery. B. The success rate of the induction of the labor. C. The fetal condition in the uterus. D. The maternal well being in labor. E. The maternal well being postpartum. 46. Which of the following fetal scalp pH results should prompt immediate delivery: A. 7.30. B. 7.22. C. 7.18. D. 7.26. E. 7.25 47. The volume of amniotic fluid is: A. Is closely related to the fetal crown-rump length in the 3rd trimester of A. Pregnancy B. Maybe predicted by Ultrasound 16 All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 C. Is reduced in sever rhesus disease D. Increases following amniocentesis E. Is increased in sever pre-eclampsia 48. Fetal nutrition is dependent on: A. Maternal nutrient stores. B. Maternal diet. C. Placental exchange. D. Maternal metabolism. F. All of the above. 49. Cephalopelvic disproportion in the absence of gross pelvic abnormality can be diagnosed by: A. Ultrasound. B. A maternal stature of less than 158 cm. C. Trial of labor. D. X-ray pelvimetry. E. Pelvic examination. 50. Maternal mortality is lowest in mothers between what age groups: A. 10 - 20. B. 20 - 30. C. 30 - 40. D. 40 - 50. E. 50 - 60. 51. Umbilical cord prolapse is associated with all the following, EXCEPT : A. Post maturity. B. Cephalo pelvic disproportion. C. Multiparity. D. Footing breech presentation. E. Anencephaly. 52. In a Case of labor with meconium stained amniotic fluid, your next step is: A. Amnio-infusion B. Close observation C. Fetal scalp blood sample D. Immediate C/S 17 All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 Embryology of Female genital tract, Malformations, intersexuality and Puberty: 1. In patient with bicornuate uterus when getting pregnant can get all these complication, EXCEPT: A. Polyhydramnios B. Abortion C. Preterm labor D. Abnormal fetal lie E. Retained placenta 2. In Turner's syndrome: A. A chromosomal structure of 45 XY is characteristic B. Secondary amenorrhea is usual C. Ovaries are streak D. The ovaries are multicystic E. Phenotypically are male 3. Sexual differentiation A. Development of male genitalia depends on the presence of functioning testes and responsive end organs B. Due to the absence of testes XX fetus exposed to androgens in uteri will NOT be musculinized C. The development of the female genital requires presence of the ovary D. 45 XO fetus will have normal ovaries E. The development of the testes does not require presence of the Y chromosome 4. Turner syndrome: Which is true? A. Genetically is 46 X O B. Has testis in inguinal area C. Usually presents with primary amenorrhea. D. Has low I.Q E. Usually tall 5. Androgen insensitivity syndrome: Which is true? A. Genotype is 46 XX B. Phenotype they are female but with ill-developed breast C. Usually have secondary amenorrhea D. They have testes that should be kept to produce hormones E. They have no uterus 18 All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 6. The karyotype of patient with Androgen insensitivity Syndrome is A. 46XX B. 46XY C. 47XXY D. 45XO E. 45 XY 7. In Turner syndrome the following are usually present EXCEPT: A. the ovary are usually well developed. B. The nipple are widely spaced C. The girls are of short stature D. Has web neck E. The condition can be diagnosed by chromosomal 8. Regarding Androgen insensitivity syndrome all true EXCEPT: A. The chromosomal sex is 46XX. B. Scant or no pubic and axillary hair. C. No uterus D. Normal female external genetailia E. Breast are usually well develop 9. Which is not true about Turner's syndrome: A. Short stature B. Buccal smear is chromatin positive C. The majority are 45XO D. Very low urinary estrogen titer E. High pituitary gonadotropin titer. 10. Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome: A. The characteristic features include normal uterus and breast development, and ambiguous genitalia. B. The Karyotyping is 46XX. C. They have normal female testosterone level. D. Gonadectomy must be performed after puberty because of the increased risk of malignancy. E. Estrogen replacement therapy is not indicated because they have enough estrogens to produce breast development. 11. While evaluating a 30-year-old woman for infertility, you diagnosed a bicornuate uterus. You explain that additional testing is necessary because of the woman's increased risk of congenital anomalies in which system? A. Skeletal. B. Hematopoietic. C. Urinary. 19 All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 D. Central nervous. E. Tracheoesophageal. 12. Development stage: A. Testosterone is secreted by Sertoli cells. B. Anti-müllerian hormone is secreted by Leydig cells. C. Anti-müllerian hormone is responsible for involution of normal müllerian system. 13. Bicornuate uterus can cause all of the following EXCEPT: A. Abortions B. Abnormal fetal lie. C. Infertility. D. Retained placenta. E. Congenital anomalies of the baby. 14. In Turner’s syndrome patients, all of the following are true EXCEPT: A. The streak ovaries should be removed surgically due to 25% tendency to be malignant. B. Are usually less than 5 feet tall. C. Have raised FSH levels. D. Have female internal genitalia. E. Have normal but infertile external genitalia. 15. The adenxea Uteri include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Ovary. B. Fallopian tubes. C. Uterus. D. Broad ligament. E. Round ligament. 16. In the development of external genitalia: A. Genital tubercles from the labia minora. B. Genital smoothing from the labia majora. C. Genital fold from scrotum in male. D. Chlydrotestone is essential for muscularity of external genitalia. E. Müllerian system develops to external genitalia. 17. Congenital uterine malformations causes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Spontaneous abortions. B. Premature labor. C. Pregnancy induced hypertension. D. Abnormal fetal lie. E. May Obstruct labor. 20 All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 18. Ovarian Dysgenesis is associated with the elevation of which of the following hormones. A. Pituitary Gonadotropins. B. Estradiol. C. Estriol. D. Pregnandiol. E. Progesterone. 19. Confirmation of the diagnosis of Turner syndrome is best done by: A. Gyn PV examination. B. Pregnantriol estimation. C. Hysterosalpingography (HSG) D. Chromosomal analysis (Karyotyping). E. Estimation of hypophyseal gonadotropins. 20. In cases of androgen insensitivity syndrome the following findings are true EXCEPT: A. The chromosomal sex is 46 XX B. Scant or no pubic or axillary hair. C. No uterus. D. Normal female external genitalia. E. Breast are usually well developed. 21. In testicular feminization syndrome: A. There are usually normal testes. B. Kalman's syndrome is a recognized cause. C. Breast development is usually lacking. D. There's usually very low testosterone level. E. The karyotype is 46 XX. 22. In Turner's syndrome, the following are usually observed EXCEPT: A. The ovaries are usually well developed. B. The nipples are widely spaced. C. The girl is of short stature. D. Has a webbed neck. E. The condition can be diagnosed by chromosomal analysis. 23. Regarding the Development of internal genital organs: A. The uterus, fallopian tubes, cervix & upper vagina develop from the mesophrenic duct. B. The testes secretes testosterone which cause regression of the müllerian ducts in the male fetus. C. The vagina is formed by the Urogenital sinus. 21 All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 D. Müllerian agenesis (Mayer- Rokittanky - Kuster - Huser syndromes) is characterized by the absence of the uterus & upper vagina with normal female external genetailia & 46 XX. E. Bicornuate uterus & uterus didelphus result from vertical fusion defects of the müllerian ducts. 24. Regarding puberty, all of the following are true EXCEPT: A. It is the transitional period of development during which an individual matures from childhood to sexual & reproductive maturity. B. Breast budding is the 1ST visible sign of puberty. C. The maximum growth velocity occurs at 12 years. D. The age of menarche has decreased over the last 3-4 decades due to improved nutrition, general health & lifestyle changes. E. Thelarche marks the attainment of reproductive maturity. 25. Turner's syndrome is associated with : A. Absent uterus B. Normal breast development C. Primary amenorrhea D. Hirsutism E. Normal height 26. Anomalies or the uterus can be associated with the following EXCEPT: A. Urinary tract abnormalities. B. Recurrent pregnancies loss. C. Preterm labor. D. Müllerian tract anomalies. F. Polycystic ovary. 27. First endocrine influence in 2ry sexual characters: A. Secretion of delta-4 Androstenedione from the adrenal gland B. Pineal body maturation C. Pituitary maturation D. Hypothalamic down regulation. 28. Follicular growth (in non-ovulating follicle) is usually followed by: A. Ovulation. B. Cyst formation. C. Atresia. D. Arrest. E. Regression. 22 All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 29. The normal sequence of pubertal changes in the female is: A. Thelarche, Maximal growth velocity, menarche. B. Maximal growth velocity, Thelarche, menarche. C. Thelarche, menarche, maximal growth velocity. D. Menarche, maximal growth velocity, Thelarche. E. Menarche, body weight, Thelarche. 30. The barr body is: A. The condensed nonfunctioning X chromosome. B. The darkest, widest band found on chromosomes. C. On extra lobe on the female polymorpholnuclear leukocytes. D. Found only in females. E. The largest chromosome in the female genotype. 31. The most common cause of precocious puberty is : A. Idiopathic. B. Gonadoblastoma. C. Albright syndrome. D. Abnormal skull development. E. Granulosa cell tumor. 32. The normal sequence of puberty is : A. Thelarche , adrenarche, growth, menarche. B. Menarche, adrenarche, thelarche ,growth. C. Growth. thelarche, adrenarche, menarche D. Adrenarche , thelarche, growth, menarche E. Thelarche , menarche, adrenarche, growth. 23 All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 Physiology of Menstrual Cycle: 1. Which of the following is suggestive of ovulation: A. Basal body temperature drop at least 0.5C in the second half of the cycle B. Day 21 estrogen level is elevated C. Progesterone level on day ten of the cycle is elevated D. Regular cycle with dysmenorrhea E. Oligomenorrhoea 2. The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is associated with: A. High luteinizing hormone level B. High progesterone levels C. High prolactin level D. Low basal body temperature E. Proliferative changes in the endometrium 3. The follicular phase of menstrual cycle is characterized by: A. Endometrial gland proliferation. B. Decreased Ovarian Estradiol production. C. Progesterone dominance. D. A fixed length of 8 days. E. A reduction in aromatase activity. 4. A sample of cervical mucus is taken on day 12 of the menstrual cycle. The mucus is thin, clear, & stretchy. It placed on a slide and allowed to air dry. When placed under microscopic, what would you expect: A. Calcium citrate. B. Clear fields, devoid of bacteria Cell. C. Thick mucus with background bacteria. D. A fren pattern characteristic of estrogen. E. Clearly defined para-basal cells. 5. Estrogen hormone is produced from all of the following organs EXCEPT: A. Corpus luteum. B. Anterior pituitary (anterior lobe of hypophysis). C. Placenta. D. Testes, E. Adrenal glands. 6. The midcycle LH surge: A. Enhances thecal cell androgen production. B. Luteinizes granulose cells. C. Initiates resumption of meiosis. 24 All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 D. Facilitates oocyte expulsion. E. All the above. 7. An involuted corpus luteum becomes a hyalinized mass known as a: A. Corpus delicti. B. Corpus granulosa. C. Graafian follicle. D. Corpus atrectica. E. Corpus albicans. 8. Which of the following is the best method to predict the occurrence of ovulation: A. Thermogenic shift in basal body temperature. B. LH surge. C. Endometrial decidulaization. D. Profuse, thin, acellular cervical mucous. E. Mittelschmerz. 9. Luteal phase deficiency: A. Has inadequate luteal progesterone production. B. Has inadequate follicular estrogen production. C. Can be corrected by estrogen. D. Associated with delayed menstruation. E. Can lead to hypoprolactenemia. 10. On Examination of endometrial tissue obtained from a biopsy reveals simple columnar epithelium with no sub nuclear vacuoles. The stroma is edematous, & a tortuous gland contains secretions. These findings are consistent which stage of menstrual cycle: A. Mid-proliferative. B. Late proliferative. C. Early secretory. D. Mid-secretory. E. Non-ovulatory cycle. 11. Ovulation occurs: A. Immediately after LH surge. B. 6-8 hours after LH surge. C. After Prolactin surge. D. After follicles ripened in the ovary. E. 36 hours after LH surge 12. Regarding Estrogen hormone: 25 All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 A. It is produced in corpus luteum. B. It is responsible for secretory changes in endometrium. C. It is mainly secreted as E3 by the ovary. D. Can not be detected in the blood of postmenopausal. E. Stimulates sebaceous gland activity 13. Regarding Human Chorionic Gonadotropin, all of the following are true EXCEPT: A. It is produced by the placenta. B. Is reversible for the maintenance of corpus luteum. C. It's level doubles every 48 hours in ectopic pregnancy. D. Reaches a peak concentration in maternal serum by 10 weeks gestation. E. Forms the main tumor marker for trophoblastic neoplastic diseases. 14. Endometrial changes during the menstrual cycle: A. The basal layer of the endometrium is responsive to hormonal stimulation. B. The functional layer of the endometrium remains intact throughout the menstrual cycle. C. The increased thickness of the endometrium during the proliferative phase is due to estrogen action. D. Estrogen induces secretory changes in the endometrium & reduces mitotic activity. E. The zona compacta & spongiosum layer the basal layer of the endometrium. 15. Inadequate luteal phase is associated with all of the following EXCEPT: A. Insufficient secretion on FSH in the antecedent follicular phase. B. Induction of ovulation with Clomiphene citrate. C. Induction of ovulation with human menopausal gonadotropins. D. Administration of progesterone in the luteal phase. E. Hyperprolacternemia. 16. In the days after ovulation, all of the following occurs EXCEPT: A. The basal temperature rises. B. The endometrium undergoes secretory changes. C. The plasma progesterone concentration falls. D. Cervical mucous becomes more viscous & scanty. E. Corpus luteum form. 17. The following hormones are secreted from the anterior pituitary gland EXCEPT: A. FSH. B. HCG. 26 All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 C. LH. D. TSH. E. Prolactin. 18. Ovulation may be indicated by all the following, EXCEPT : A. Endometrial biopsy revealing secretary changes. B. Upward shift in the basal temperature. C. Changing of cervical mucous to thick and scanty. D. Progesterone level > 6.5ng/ml. E. Mid-cycle elevation in Prolactin. 19. Which of the following is the primary source of estrogen ? A. Theca interna cells. B. Theca externa cells. C. Granulosa cells. D. Interstitial cells. E. Epithelial cells. 20. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of: A. Opiate peptides. B. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). C. LH. D. Growth hormone. E. Thyroid-stimulating hormone. 22. Effect of estrogen on the Cervix mucous: A. Increase the glycoprotein level & thus allow the penetration of the sperms B. Decrease the watery content 23. Raised FSH levels are found in all of the following conditions EXCEPT: A. Postmenopausal women. B. Turner's Syndrome. C. Women on Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills. D. Gonadal dysgenesis. E. Peri-menopausal women who had hysterectomy with bilateral salpingooophorectomy. 24. Estrogen have all of the following actions, EXCEPT: A. Produce proliferation of the endometrium. B. Development of secondary sexual characteristics. C. Fusion of the epiphysis. 27 All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011 D. Increase cervical mucous. E. Prevention of thrombosis. 25. Which of the following pubertal events in is NOT mediated by gonadal estrogen production? A. Menstruation. B. Pubic hair growth. C. Breast development. D. Skeletal growth E. Vaginal cornification 26. Which of the following statement regarding Prolactin is true? A. Prolactin levels decreases shortly after sleep. B. Prolactin levels increase levels increase after ingesting high glucose meals. C. Prolactin levels decreases during surgery. D. Prolactin levels increase during stress. E. Prolactin levels increases after menopause. 27. Besides infertility, the most common symptoms of a luteal phase defect: A. Vaginal dryness. B. Early abortion. C. Tubal occlusion. D. Breast tenderness. E. Ovarian enlargement. 28