Yellow Answers PDF

Sure ans Not sure ans 1. Match the Clinical Course Happening During Chickenpox (Some Choices: 1 to 3 weeks | Include symptoms such as N/V, headache, myalgia, loss of appetite, fever, and malaise | 1 to 2 days before the rash appears until all vesicles have dried or crusted | may present as (shingle...

Sure ans Not sure ans 1. Match the Clinical Course Happening During Chickenpox (Some Choices: 1 to 3 weeks | Include symptoms such as N/V, headache, myalgia, loss of appetite, fever, and malaise | 1 to 2 days before the rash appears until all vesicles have dried or crusted | may present as (shingles) i. Incubation Period - May take 1 to 3 weeks ii. Prodromal Period - Include symptoms such as N/V, headache, myalgia, loss of appetite, fever, and malaise iii. Infectious Period - 1 to 2 days before the rash appears until all vesicles have dried or crusted over iv. Reactivation Period - May present as shingles 2. Match the Clinical Course Happening During Chickenpox (Some Choices: 10 days | May present as fever, URTI (upper respiratory tract infection - catarrhal phase) symptoms, conjunctivitis, and Koplik’s spots | Highest during late prodromal period | may involve pneumonia, encephalitis, and otitis media (infection of middle ear) i. Incubation Period - 10 days ii. Prodroma Period - May present as fever, URTI symptoms, conjunctivitis, and Koplik’s spots iii. Infectious Period - Highest during late prodomal period iv. Complications - May involve pneumonia, encephalitis, and otitis media 3. Difference of Chickenpox and Measles i. Presence of Koplik's spots - Measles ii. Tiny vesicles (small blisters) surrounded by reddened area - Chickenpox iii. Disseminated flat erythematous rash - Measles iv. Involves Gl and respiratory symptoms - Measles v. Appears mainly on the trunk rather than the face and limbs - Chickenpox vi. Associated with the following rash seqelae: anterior scalp line and behind the ears, then face, then trunk, then extremities - Measles 4. Identify which red flags for referral for chickenpox and measles are being indicated by the following: (Choices: Bacterial superinfection, Measles, Dehydration, Cellulitis) i. High temperature, pain, and redness around lesions - Bacterial superinfection ii. Requires immediate referral and notification - Measles iii. Reduced urine output, lethargy, and reduced skin turgor - Dehydration iv. Erythematous rash or ulceration on the lower leg or ankles in an elderly person - Cellulitis 5. Which of the following is the MOST important lifestyle advice for people who have not yet contracted chickenpox or measles? a. Vaccination b. Exclusion from nursery or school c. Wear smooth cotton fabrics to minimize skin invitation d. Ensure adequate fluid intake 6. How would you BEST recommend the uptake of measles vaccine? a. Give at the age of 9 months, subcutaneously b. Given at the age of 12 months, then 4 years old, intravenously c. Given at the age of 12 months, then 4 years old, subcutaneously d. Given at the age of 12 months subcutaneously 7. identify whether the following recommendations are appropriate or not. (Choices: Appropriate or Inappropriate) i. Ibuprofen in patients with chickenpox - Inappropriate ii. Aspirin in adults with chickenpox - Inappropriate iii. Promethazine 25mg HS in a 3 y/o patient with chickenpox complaining of severe itchiness - Appropriate - PPT: Promethazine 6.5 to 12.5mg TID or 25mg HS (> 2y/o) - tama ka crissa more than 3 y.o. nmn yung patient ehe iv. Addition of 1% menthol to Topical Calamine Lotion for fever - Inappropriate - oke 8. How can impetigo and cold sores be differentiated from each other? (Some Choices: Cold Sores, Non-bullous impetigo, Bullous Impetigo)  i. Lesions may be seen on nerve innervations of the trigeminal nerve - Cold sores ii. Vesicles which rapidly break down to form golden crusts on face or extremities - Non-bullous impetigo iii. Prodrome of itching, burning pain, or tingling symptoms hours to days prior to vesicle eruption - Cold sores iv. Flaccid fluid-filled bullae whcih ruptures to form crust on the trunk area - Bullous Impetigo 9. Identify which red flags for referral for impetigo and cold sores are being indicated by the following: (Some choices: Widespread herpetiform eczema, Possible infection, May indicate sycosis harbo) i. Patient suffering from atopic eczema who has come into contact with an active cold sore - Widespread herpetiform eczema ii. Skin lesions accompanied by fever and malaise - Possible infection iii. Papular rash, with or without vesicles and crusting, In the beard area of men - May indicate sycosis barbae 10. Which of the following pharmacy product would you BEST recommend to a patient with history of cold sores? a. Face mask b. Sunblock c. Face shield d. Nail File 11. Which of the following would you BEST recommend to a patient with localized non-bullous impetigo? a. 1% Hydrogen Peroxide Cream b. Antibiotics c. Aciclovir 5% Cream d. Phenol 12. How should you counsel on the proper use of aciclovir cream for cold sores? a. May be continued for up to 30 days if healing has not occurred b. Minimum day of administration must be at least 3 days c. Must be applied OD d. Should be used as soon as symptoms exist 13. How can threadworm and roundworm be differentiated from each other? (Choice: Threadworm or Roundworm) i. May present as vague abdominal pain, N/V, diarrhea or bloody stools - Roundworm  ii. May present as persistent cough, SOB, wheezing - Roundworm iii. Night-time perianal itching - Threadworm iv. Patient is a pre-school child - Threadworm - 14. Identify which of the following is TRUE regarding use of Mebendazole in threadworms: a. Strict personal hygiene is complementary to pharmacological treatment - TRUE b. Should only be given to the patient and not the family members - FALSE c. Death of worms expected after 3 hours of use of Mebendazole - FALSE d. Two tablets of 100mg should be given as the initial dose - FALSE e. Repeat dose 14 days later often recommended to ensure complete eradication - TRUE 15. Which of the following is TRUE about acute pain? a. Circular in nature - PPT: Chronic Pain - Persists for extended periods of time (>3 months) that tends to be circular in nature b. Treatment include short-term symptomatic relief using NSAIDs and opiates - PPT: Acute Pain - Treatment include short-term symptomatic relief using NSAIDs and opiates c. Pests for 3 months d. Adjuvants such as anticonvulsants, benzodiazepines are used in the management - PPT: Chronic Pain - adjuvants (anticonvulsants, benzodiazepines, and antidepressants [such as TCAs]) 16. Identify the type of pain for the following situations encountered in the pharmacy. (Some Choices Choices: Visceral pain, Neuropathic pain, Superficial somatic pain, Musculoskeletal path, Deep somatic pain)  i. Phantom pain - Neuropathic Pain ii. Postherpetic neuralgia - Neuropathic Pain iii. Acute MI - Visceral Pain iv. Superficial burns - Superficial Somatic Pain v. Arthritis - Musculoskeletal Pain vi. Statin-induced myopathy - Musculoskeletal Pain vii. Post-operative pain - Deep Somatic Pain 17. Identify the BEST oral analgesic for the following conditions: Choice: Ibuprofen or Naproxen i. Back pain - Ibuprofen ii. Tension headache - Ibuprofen iii. Pain and fever in children - Ibuprofen iv. Dysmenorrhea - Naproxen v. Dental pain - Ibuprofen 18. Identify whether the following statements is TRUE or FALSE regarding oral analgesics: a. Naproxen is more potent vs ibuprofen - TRUE - PPT: More potent vs Ibuprofen b. Ibuprofen max daily dose for adults is 4000mg - FALSE - PPT: maximum daily dose 1200 mg daily c. Aspirin has more side effects vs ibuprofen - TRUE - PPT: Side Effects – Aspirin > Ibuprofen d. Diclofenac can be used for up to 10 days - FALSE  - PPT: For short-term relief of children aged 14 and over. MAX DOSE OF 6 TABLETS e. Naproxen has less side effects vs ibuprofen - FALSE - PPT: Low incidence of S/E but higher than Ibuprofen f. In a pregnant woman, paracetamol is safe to use - TRUE - PPT: Safe for elderly people, children under 16 years of age, pregnant women, and patients with a history of asthma or GI problems 19. Which of the following is the MOST common side effect of codeine-containing combination analgesics? a. Diarrhea b. Headache c. Hepatotoxicity d. Constipation 20. Which of the following is the BEST option for topical analgesics? a. Capsaicin b. Ketoprofen - PPT: Ketoprofen - Significantly better vs other topical NSAIDs c. Camphor d. Salicylic acid e. Menthol 21. Which type of headache is likely present in a patient with unilateral pain around the eye with abrupt onset? [select all that apply] a. Migraine headache - PPT: Unilateral in ∼70%; bifrontal or global in ∼30% b. TTH - tension type headache - PPT: Tension - Usually bilateral; may be generalized or localized to the back of the head and upper neck or to the frontotemporal area c. Cluster headache - PPT: Cluster - Unilateral, usually behind or around the eye or temple 22. Who among the following patients presenting with headache is MOST likely showing symptoms of meningitis? [select all that apply] a. 65 y/o elderly with new and severe headache - PPT: suggest sinister pathology and further investigation b. Patient who had recent trauma injury - PPT: possible hematoma c. 6 y/o child who has a stiff neck or skin rash - PPT: possible meningitis 23. Which of the following could BEST be recommended to a patient with newly-diagnosed migraine?  a. Naproxen b. Inhaled oxygen c. Paracetamol d. Sumatriptan 24. Arrange the steps when consulting with an active smoker. a. Assist in quit attempt - 4 b. Ask about tobacco use - 1 c. Arrange follow up - 5 d. Advise to quit - 2 e. Assess willingness to make a quit attempt - 3 PPT: 5A’s of a Pharmacist 25. Who among the following are candidates for NRT? [select all that apply] a. Breastfeeding mother b. Light smoker (2 sticks per day) c. Pregnant patient d. Smokeless tobacco user e. Patient aged 14 y/o f. Heavy smoker (22 sticks per day) - PPT: Offer first-line agents to all patients, EXCEPT for: - Patients who smoke less than 10 cigarettes/day (light smokers) - Pregnant or breastfeeding women - Children and adolescents (< 18 years of age) - Smokeless tobacco users 26. Which of the following is TRUE regarding oral NRT? [select all that apply] a. Safe in patients with heart problems like arrhythmia - PPT: Use with caution in CV patient groups b. Require OD (once a day) dosing - PPT: Require frequent dosing or non- traditional routes of administration c. Orange juice may be used anytime while on oral NRT - PPT: Eating or drinking acidic beverage must be avoided 15 minutes before or after use d. Ideal for patients requiring oral gratification - PPT: Good for oral gratification 27. Which of the following type of insomnia is likely to be caused by substance abuse? [select all that apply] - nasa ppt about the likely causes a. Transient b. Chronic c. Short-term 28. Which of the following is the first-line therapy for insomnia?  a. Zolpidem b. Diphenhydramine c. CBTI d. Melatonin 29. A patient is taking a diuretic for his heart failure. How would you BEST recommend its administration to avoid insomnia? a. Take dose after dinner b. Take dose before bedtime c. Take dose in the afternoon d. Take dose in the morning - PPT: Ensure doses are not taken after midday to stop nocturia 30. Which of the following could be advised to a patient with insomnia? [select all that apply] a. Go to bed if sleepy or not b. Place a playstation in the bedroom for relaxation c. Nap during daytime d. Avoid blue spectrum light from TV when preparing to sleep - PPT: Avoid blue spectrum light from TV, smart phones, tablets, and other mobile devices 31. A patient on CBTI is also currently taking Diphenhydramine for insomnia. How long would you BEST recommend its use? a. It can be used indefinitely as an adjuvant to CBTI b. NMT 10 days - PPT: Diphenhydramine is less efficacious, and must be used in caution due to its anticholinergic effect. Limit use to chondroitin for osteoarthritis-associated low back pain d. Capsaicin - TBH chat gpt said yes - PPT: Topical NSAIDs > Rubefacients (Ex. Salicylates, Capsicum oleoresin, Capsaicin, Menthol, Camphor and Turpentine Oil) Rubefacients = topical placebo  in acute and chronic LBP; except for capsaicin. — meaning capsaicin is ok for acute LBP coz it not placebo 43. Identify the soft tissue injury beingg referred to by the following. (Choice: Achilles Tendon Injuries, Tennis Elbow, Rotator Cuff Syndrome, Chondromalacia, Thigh Strains) - nasa PPT i. Pain usually felt behind the heel, just above the calcaneus - Achilles Tendon Injuries ii. Pain and tenderness felt over outer aspect of the elbow joint that might also spread up the upper arm - Tennis Elbow iii. Rubbing of the combined tendons of the scapula muscles - Rotator Cuff Syndrome iv. Pain is experienced usually at the front of the knee or behind the kneecap - Chondromalacia v. Tears of the quadriceps and hamstring - Thigh Strains 44. Match the function/description of each of the component of RICE therapy for soft tissue injuries: (Choice: Allows immobilization, enhan, Should be applied whilst the, Use of crepe bandage and tul, Helps fluid drain away from) i. Rest - Allows immobilization, enhancing healing and reducing blood flow ii. Ice - Should be applied whilst the injury feels warm to the touch iii. Compression - A crepe bandage provides a minimum level of compression. iv. Elevation - Ideally the injured part should be elevated above the heart to help fluid drain away from the injury 45. A Filipino patient has a BMI of 23.5. What is its classification according to the WHO BMI for Asians? a. Underweight b. Overweight c. Normal d. Obese 46. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to an obese patient who would like to lose weight? a. Diet and exercise - PPT: First line treatment of obesity b. Orlistat c. Diet only d. Senna 47. Which of the following is a realistic short-term weight loss goal for an obese patient? a. Weight loss of 2kg per month - PPT: Recommended goals are 1–4 kg per month in the short term b. Weight loss of 10kg per month c. Weight loss of 10% of body weight - PPT: 10–20% of body weight in the medium to long term 48. Identify which of the following is TRUE regarding use of Orlistat for weight loss: a. Should be taken with a mildly hypocaloric, lower-fat diet - TRUE - PPT: SHOULD BE TAKEN IN CONJUNCTION with a mildly hypocaloric, lower-fat diet b. May reduce absorption of Vitamin D - TRUE - coz Vit D is fat-soluble vitamin? - PPT: May possibly reduce absorption of fat-soluble medications c. Discontinue use if weight loss is not achieved after 12 weeks - TRUE - PPT: Discontinue use if weight loss is not achieved after 12 weeks → refer d. Must be taken if there is not fat in the meal of the patient - FALSE - PPT: Do not take dose if a meal will be missed, or if it contains no fat e. Severity of Gl side effects decrease with an increase in fat content in diet - FALSE - PPT: Side Effect - GI in Nature - Increases with fat content in diet 49. Identify how should the following be examined: (Choice: Gently pull down the lower li, Ask patient to read small print, Apply pressure to the area be, Pulling down the lobule, bleeding of gums) i. Conjunctiva - Gently pull down the lower lid and ask patient to look upwards and to both the left and right ii. Visual Activity - Ask patient to read small print with the affected eye iii. Mastoiditis - Apply pressure to the mastoid area directly behind the pinna iv. Ear canal - May use otoscope, or for pharmacists, may use pen torch: may pull down lobule (child) or pull up helix (adult) v. Periodontal disease - bleeding of gums 50. Differentiate the types of conjunctivitis (Choice: Bacterial, Allergic, Viral) i. Has purulent discharge - Bacterial ii. Has itching feeling - Allergic iii. Redness is generalized and diffused - Bacterial iv. Associated with coughs and colds - Viral v. Associated with family history of atopy - Allergic 51. Identify the possible reasons for referring the following to a physician: (Some Choices: Suggest glaucoma | requires removal of foreign body | scleritis, keratitis, acute glaucoma | may suggest sinister pathology) i. Clouding of cornea - Suggest glaucoma ii. Redness caused by a foreign body - requires removal of foreign body iii. Photophobia - may suggest sinister pathology iv. True eye pain - may suggest sinister pathology 52. Which of the following is an appropriate lifestyle advice to a patient with conjunctivitis? [select all that apply] a. Expose patient to allergens for desensitization - PPT: Avoidance of allergen in allergic conjunctivitis  b. Bathe the eyelids with hot water - PPT: Bathe the eyelids with lukewarm water to remove any discharge c. Used tissues should be used to wipe the eyes d. Avoid wearing contact lenses until symptoms have resolved 53. Identify the BEST recommendation for the following: (Some Choices: Chloramphenicol eye drops, Intraocular sodium cromoglicate, Tetrahydrozoline, Strict hygiene measures, Antazoline) i. Bacterial conjunctivitis - Chloramphenicol eye drops ii. Viral conjunctivitis - Strict hygiene measures iii. Allergic conjunctivitis with eye redness - Tetrahydrozoline iv. Allergic conjunctivitis prophylaxis - Intraocular sodium cromoglicate v. Allergic conjunctivitis with ocular symptoms - Antazoline 54. Identify which of the following statements is TRUE or FALSE a. Chloramphenicol eye ointment must be stored in fridge - FALSE - PPT: Eye ointment stored at room temperature b. Opened chloramphenicol eye drops may be used again after 1 month - FALSE - PPT: Once opened, discard after 5 days c. Patients using both chloramphenicol eye drops and ointment must apply the former first, before the latter - TRUE - Eye drops first, then ointment d. Chloramphenicol eye drops may be used for a maximum of 5 days duration - TRUE e. Patients on chloramphenicol already do not require strict hygiene measures - FALSE 55. Identify the possible reasons for referring the following to a physician: (Choice: Suggests ectropion, Suggests Sjogren's Syndrome, Suggests Bell's Palsy) i. Outward turning of lower eyelid - Suggests ectropion ii. Associated dryness of mouth and other mucous membranes - Suggests Sjogren's Syndrome iii. Unilateral facial paralysis, often with sudden onset - Suggests Bell's Palsy 56. Which of the following may cause medicine-induced dry eyes? [select all that apply] a. Tricyclic antidepressants b. Beta-blockers c. Isotretinoin 57. Which of the following would be the BEST basis for selecting the appropriate artificial tears for a patient with dry eyes? a. Patient preference b. Relative cost c. Relative safety d. Relative efficacy 58. Identify which artificial tear formulation is being referred to by the following: (Some Choice: Hypromellose 2% Eye Drops, Carbomer 940, Tears Naturale, PVA 14%, ??) i. May cause crusting and bluing of vision - Hypromellose 0.3% Eye Drops ii. Has evidence of being better tolerated vs PVA - Carbomer 940 iii. Has same surface tension as normal tears for optimal wetting characteristics - PVA 14% iv. Uses Dextran 70 as fluid volume expander - Hypromellose 2% Eye Drops v. Contains hyaluronate - I-Visc®, Lacritin®, Acuvis® 59. Identify the possible reasons for referring the following to a physician: (Choice: May suggest orbital cellulitis, Suggests entropion, Suggests ectropion, Possibly carcinoma) i. Patient with swollen eyelids and associated feelings of being unwell - May suggest orbital cellulitis ii. Inward turning of lower eyelid - Suggests entropion iii. Outward turning of lower eyelid - Suggests ectropion iv. Middle aged/elderly patient with painless nodular lesion on or near eyelid - Possibly carcinoma 60. Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation a patient with blepharitis or stye? a. Dibromopropamidine isethionate ointment b. Artificial tears c. Conservative treatment - PPT: No OTC medication generally required as conditions respond well to conservative treatment (warm compress) d. Fusidic acid gel 61. Which of the following is a component of good lid hygiene? [select all that apply] a. Use of 1:1 baby shampoo and water solution for wiping eve discharge - PPT: May gently wipe away eye discharge with mild soapy solution (1:10 baby shampoo and water), or with eyelid wipes b. Use of cold compress 3 to 5 times a day  -PPT: Apply warm washcloth to the eyelid for 5 to 15 minutes at a time, from three to five times per day c. Avoid squeezing of stye 62. Identify the possible extent of ear part affected with the following signs and symptoms: (Some Choice: External middle, or inner ear | External or middle ear | Inner ear | Middle or inner ear) - nasa PPT a. Presents with itch - External middle b. Presents with discharge - External or middle ear c. Presents with tinnitus - Inner ear d. Presents with deafness - External or middle ear + inner 63. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to an adult presenting with earache? a. Use choline salicylate b. Use oral analgesic for up to 2 days - PPT: May be used up to 48 hours in adults, then refer if earache persists c. Always refer this type of cases d. Increase dose of oral analgesic if earache persists after 1 day of use 64. Identify the possible reasons for referring the following to a physician. (Choice: Requires further investigation, Possible middle ear infection) - nasa PPT Red Flags i. Associated trauma-related conductive deafness - Requires further investigation ii. Fever and general malaise in children - Possible middle ear infection 65. Identify which of the following statements is TRUE or FALSE: a. Docusate is the most effective cerumenolytic - FALSE - PPT: For ear wax (confirmed as such) – sodium bicarbonate ear drops are cheap and probably as effective as anything else; Rx docusate may be useful too b. Cerumenolytics are better supplied if the patient has already seen a doctor - TRUE - PPT: Better supplied if seen by doctor; only softens ear wax but does not remove compacted plugs c. Cotton wool plug must be placed after instillation of hydrogen peroxide on to the affected ear - FALSE - PPT: Does not require cotton wool plug; may cause mild temporary effervescence in the ear d. Docusate Sodium 0.5% Ear Drops must be used on the affected ear for not more than 2 consecutive nights - TRUE - PPT: Enough drops to sufficiently fill affected ear on not more than two consecutive nights 66. Which of the following is an appropriate lifestyle advice for a patient with otitis externa? [select all that apply] a. Silicone rubber earplugs for swimmers - nasa PPT b. Placing a cotton wool coated in Vaseline on the inner ear  c. Avoid use of cotton buds to poke ear canal - PPT: Do not use corners of towels or cotton buds to dry any water that does get in the ear canal 67. Which of the following is an appropriate recommendation for teething infants? [select all that apply) a. Use frozen and hard teething toy - PPT: Use chilled, soft rubber, non-gel teething toy b. Administer paracetamol tablets c. Let baby chew on a cool washcloth - nasa PPT toh 68. Identify which type of mouth uler is being referred to by the following: (Some Choices: Herpetiform ulcer, MAU, Trauma-induced ulcer, Leukoplakia) i. Occurs singly or in small crops of up to 5 ulcers - MAU - PPT: MAU occur singly or in small crops of up to 5 ulcers ii. Ulcers located toward the back of the mouth - Herpetiform ulcer - PPT: Ulcers located toward the back of the mouth are more consistent with major or herpetiform ulcers iii. Irregularly-shaped ulcers - Trauma-induced ulcer - PPT: Irregular-shaped ulcers tend to be caused by trauma. iv. Painless ulcer - Leukoplakia - PPT: Any patient presenting with a painless ulcer in the oral cavity must be referred as this may indicate sinister pathology such as leukoplakia or carcinoma 69. Identify which of the following statements is TRUE or FALSE: a. Choline salicylate has analgesic affect in MAU - TRUE - PPT: Choline Salicylate showed analgesic effect in MAU, but does not affect ulcer resolution b. It is better to use alcohol-containing chlorhexidine mouthwash for MAU - FALSE - PPT: Use an alcohol-free medicated (preferably containing chlorhexidine gluconate) mouthwash twice daily c. Teeth discoloration caused by chlorhexidine mouthwash is irreversible - FALSE - PPT: May cause reversible tongue and tooth discoloration, burning of tongue, and taste disturbances d. If stinging occurs with benzydamine solution, discontinue use - FALSE - PPT: If the product is too concentrated or stinging occurs, may be diluted with water 70. Which of the following patients may likely present with medicine-induced oral thrush? [select all that apply] a. Asthma patient using budesonide inhaler b. Hypertensive patient using amlodipine c. Dyslipidemia patient using statin d. DM patient using metformin 71. How would relapse and reinfection with oral thrush be prevented with the use of miconazole? a. Minimize contact of gel with the mouth surface b. Use before meals c. Continue treatment for up to 2 days after symptoms have cleared d. Increase dose to every 4 hours 72. Which of the following is an appropriate lifestyle advice for prevention of gingivitis? [select all that apply] - tinama ni mara KAYA TOH HAHAHA a. Regular and proper dental flossing b. Overzealous toothbrushing c. Use of toothpaste containing 1000ppm fluoride in children Hexetidine and Hydrogen Peroxide c. All are equal in terms of efficacy d. Hexetidine 0.1%