REVA University B.Tech Environmental Science Past Paper PDF

UNIT - 1 Introduction to Environment B.TECH - Semester III Environmental Science School of Applied Sciences Program Details: Course Title: Environmental Science Course Code: B24AS0303 Course Type: FC/MC Course Presenter: Chandrashekar P Semester: III Acade...

UNIT - 1 Introduction to Environment B.TECH - Semester III Environmental Science School of Applied Sciences Program Details: Course Title: Environmental Science Course Code: B24AS0303 Course Type: FC/MC Course Presenter: Chandrashekar P Semester: III Academic Year: 2024-25 Course Pre-requisites: Basic knowledge of Environmental Science studied at higher secondary & school level. L T P: 1-0-0 Pedagogy: Blended Learning/Direct method/ICT & Digital Support 2 Course Objectives: 1. Graduates will be familiar with current and emerging environmental engineering and global issues, and have an understanding of ethical and societal responsibilities. 2. Graduates will have the ability to obtain the knowledge, and will recognize the need for engaging in life-long learning. 3. Will find the need of various types of energy (conventional & non-conventional) resources and natural resources. 1,2,5,7,10 4. Acquire knowledge with respect to biodiversity, threats, conservation and appreciate the concept of ecosystem. 5. Acquire knowledge about sources, effects and control measures of environmental pollution, degradation and waste management. 6. Explore the ways for protecting the environment. 3  Course Outcomes: On completion of this course the students will be able to: CO# Course Outcomes POs PSOs CO1 Understand, analyze and execute favourable environmental conditions. 1,2,5,7,10 1 CO2 List the causes, effects & remedial measures of environmental pollution and 1,2,5,7,10 1 degradation & find ways to overcome them by suggesting the pollution controlled products. CO3 Get motivation to find new renewable energy resources with high efficiency 1,4,5,6,10 1 through active research and innovation. CO4 Explore the condition of environmental degradation and waste management 1,2,3,4,7,10 1 techniques and take promising measures to make our environment ecofriendly. CO5 Know the role of individual, government and NGO in environmental protection 1,2,4,5,6,7 1 and provide recommendations (enact new Legislations) to protect the environment. CO6 Identify new methodologies for the conservation of our energy resources. 1,2,4,5,7,10 1 4  Programme Outcome: 1. PO 1: Engineering Knowledge: Apply the knowledge of mathematics, science, engineering fundamentals for the solution of complex problems. 2. PO 2: Problem Analysis: Identify, formulate, research literature and analyse engineering problems to arrive at substantiated conclusions using first principles of mathematics, natural, and engineering sciences. 3. PO 3: Design/development of solutions: Design solutions for complex engineering problems and design system components, processes to meet the specifications with consideration for the public health and safety, and the cultural, societal and environmental considerations. 4. PO 7: Environment and sustainability: Understand the impact of the professional engineering solutions in societal and environmental contexts, and demonstrate the knowledge of, and need for sustainable development. 5 Syllabus: Unit Topics Course Program Outcomes Outcomes INTRODUCTION TO ENVIRONMENT Basic of environment: Introduction to Environment, objectives and guiding principles of environmental education, Components of environment, Structure of atmosphere, Sustainable 1 environment/Development, Impact of technology on the 1 1,2,5,7,10 environment in terms of modern agricultural practices and industrialization, Environmental Impact Assessment 6  Lecture Topics / Topics to be discussed Unit-1: Environment and Environmental Protection Discussion of Multiple Choice Question or Objective type question.  ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE - IV SEMESTER B.TECH Question Bank - UNIT 1 (Environment and Environmental protection) 1. Which of the following conceptual spheres of the environment is having the least storage capacity for matter? A) Atmosphere B) Lithosphere C) Hydrosphere D) Biosphere ANSWER: 2. The range of temperature in the mantle of the earth’s interior part is, A) 400 to 800 degree Celsius B) 1000 to 2500 degree Celsius C) 700 to 1800 degree Celsius D) None of the above. ANSWER: 3. The largest reservoir of nitrogen in our planet is A) Oceans B) Atmosphere C) Biosphere D) Hydrosphere ANSWER: 4. The major atmospheric gas layer in stratosphere is A) Hydrogen B) Carbon dioxide C) Ozone D) Helium. ANSWER: 5. World Environment day is celebrated on A) 5th May B) 5th June C) 18th July D) 16th August. ANSWER: 6. Mesosphere extends roughly to the altitude of A) 50 to 80 km B) 75 to 105 km C) 55 to 100 km D) 65 to 125 km ANSWER: 7. Who proposed the term Environment? A) Tyler Brown B) Charles Darwin C) Charles Elton D) Carlyle ANSWER: 8. The Air (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year A) 1981 B) 1996 C) 2000 D) 1972 ANSWER: 9. In which of following country, WWF-International NGO is located A) Australia B) Britain C) Japan D) Switzerland ANSWER: 10. About ……… % of the earth’s surface is covered by water A) 53.5 % B) 33.5 % C) 74.5 % D) 94.5 % ANSWER: 11. First world summit on sustainable development was held at A) Johannesburg in 2002 B) Rio de Janeiro in 1992 C) Kyoto in 1994 D) Stockholm in 2000 ANSWER: 12. The leader of Chipko movement is A) Sunderlal Bahuguna B) Medha Patekar C) Vandana Shiva D) Suresh Heblikar ANSWER: 13. The first United National conference on Human Environment was held at …… in the year June 1972 A) Stockholm B) New York C) Montreal D) Basal ANSWER: 14. The first United National conference on Human Environment was held at …… in the year June 1972 A) Stockholm B) New York C) Montreal D) Basal ANSWER: 15. In which year the Honourable Supreme Court of India, directed to made environmental education as a compulsory subject at all level of education? A) 2003 B) 1997 C) 2002 D) 1986 ANSWER: 16. The plastic region in upper part of the mantle is called A) Biosphere B) Hemisphere C) Mesosphere D) Asthenosphere ANSWER: 17. Earth Day is held every year on A) June 5th B) November 23rd C) April 22nd D) January 26th ANSWER: 18. Which of the following is the authority to monitor industrial effluents? A) Center for Science & Environment B) State Pollution Control Board C) Indian Environmental Association D) None ANSWER: 19. Which of the following statement is true A) Surface runoff do not carry pesticides into streams B) Water percolating downward through agriculture lands carries with it dissolved chemicals and contaminates ground water C) Present agricultural practice does not contaminate water D) None of the above ANSWER: 20. Which of the following components of the environment are effective transporters of matter? A) Atmosphere and Hydrosphere B) Atmosphere and Lithosphere C) Hydrosphere and Lithosphere D) Biosphere and Lithosphere ANSWER: 21. Atmosphere consists of 78 percent Nitrogen and 21 percent Oxygen by A) Volume B) Weight C) Density D) None of the above ANSWER: 22. The word ‘Environment’ is derived from A) Greek B) French C) Spanish D) English. ANSWER: 23. Which atmospheric sphere is closest to the earth’s surface? A) Thermosphere B) Stratosphere C) Mesosphere D) Troposphere. ANSWER: 24. The temperature difference of Stratosphere is A) 25 to 55 degree Celsius B) -60 to -2 degree Celsius C) 10 to -5 degree Celsius D) None of these. ANSWER: 25. Bhopal Gas Tragedy caused due to leakage of A) Methyl Iso Cyanate B) Sulphur dioxide C) Mustard gas D) Methane ANSWER: 26. Sustainable development is A) Meeting present needs without compromising on the future needs B) Progress in human well beings C) Balance between human needs and the ability of Earth to provide the resources D) All of the above ANSWER: 27. Eutrophication is A) An improved quality of water in lakes B) A process in carbon cycle C) The result to accumulation of plant nutrients in water bodies D) A water purification technique ANSWER: 28. The adverse effect of modern agriculture is A) Nitrate pollution B) Soil degradation C) Water logging D) All of the above ANSWER: 29. Which of the following statement is false A) Soil erosion effects the productivity of agriculture fields B) It takes 300 years for one inch of agricultural top soil to form C) The amount of erosion depends on soil type, slope, drainage pattern and crop management practices D) Soil erosion helps to retain water and nutrients in the root zone ANSWER: 30. Which among the following is not the steps involved in the process of projects approval under EIA, A) Screening B) Mitigation C) Scoping D) Adjourning ANSWER: 31. The oceans are the largest storage of water of earth containing _________. A) 95 % of earth’s water B) 85 % of earth’s water C) 97 % of earth’s water D) 75 % of earth’s water. ANSWER: 32. Silent Valley movement succeeded in A) Waste management in sea coast B) Canceling the Kerala state government hydel project and saving the Lion Tailed Monkeys C) Promoting marine fishery business in Kerala D) None of the above ANSWER: 33. The committee which submitted its report to Government of India on Environmental education which recommended the formation of MOEF is, A) Tiwari Committee B) Mehta committee C) Banerjee Committee D) Agarwal Committee ANSWER: 34. Troposphere extends up to A) 5 to 10 km B) 0 to 20 km C) 0 to 12 km D) 10 to 15 km ANSWER: 35. E.I.A. can be expanded as A) Environment &Industrial Act B) Environment & Impact Activities C) Environmental Impact Assessment D) Environmentally Important Activity ANSWER: 36. Water logging is a phenomenon in which A) Crop patterns are rotated B) Soil root zone becomes saturated due to over irrigation C) Erosion of soil D) None of the above ANSWER: 37. The condition in which the temperature of the atmosphere increases with altitude in contrast to the normal decrease with altitude is called as A) Temperature inversion B) Temperature lapse rate C) Temperature adiabatic D) None of the above. ANSWER: 38. The percentage of fresh water available, compared to total amount of water on earth is A) Less than 1% B) More than 1% C) Exactly 1% D) None of the above. ANSWER: 39. The equatorial diameter of the earth is A) 15756 Km B) 12756 Km C) 24756 Km D) 6756 Km ANSWER: 40. The composition of earth’s core is A) Iron and Copper B) Iron and Silver C) Iron and Nickel D) All the above. ANSWER: 41. The approximate thickness of earth’s outer core is A) 2000 Km B) 2756 Km C) 2300 Km D) 3756 Km ANSWER: 42. The approximate thickness of earth’s inner core is A) 2250 Km B) 1000 Km C) 2300 Km D) 1200 Km ANSWER: 43. In which year the UNESCO published the guiding principles of environmental education? A) 1991 B) 1981 C) 1971 D) 2001 ANSWER: 44. Which among the following is not the objective of environmental education? A) Skill B) Participation C) Evaluation ability D) Punctuality. ANSWER: 45. What is the average mass density of the earth? A) 3.5 g/cc B) 5.5 g/cc C) 7.5 g/cc D) 10.0 g/cc ANSWER: 46. According to UNESCO’s guiding principles, environmental education must be compulsory right from Primary level up to _________ level. A. Under graduate B. Higher Secondary C. Post graduate D. None of the above. ANSWER: 47. Who invented the DDT? A. Paul Henderson B. Paul Muller C. Paul Linus D. Paul Carlyle ANSWER: 48. The definition to sustainable development was stated by A. Robert Angus Smith B. G H Brundtland C. James Watson D. A G Transley ANSWER:  Resources for Students Reference Books: 1. “Environmental Studies”, by R.J. Ranjit Daniels and Jagadish Krishnaswamy, (2017) 2. Wiley India Private Ltd., New Delhi, Co-authored & Customised by Dr.MS Reddy & Chandrashekar, REVA University. 3. “Environmental Studies”, by R.J. Ranjit Daniels and Jagadish Krishnaswamy, (2009) 4. Wiley India Private Ltd., New Delhi. 5. “Environmental Studies” by Benny Joseph, Tata McGraw – Hill Publishing Company Limited 6. Environmental Studies by Dr.S.M.Prakash, Elite Publishers Mangalore, 2007 7. Rajagopalan R. 2005,”Environmental Studies – from Crisis to cure”, Oxford University Press 8. Environmental Science by Arvind walia, Kalyani Publications, 2009. 9. Environmental Studies by Anilkumar Dey and Arnab kumar Dey.  Sources / Acknowledgements https://revaedu- my.sharepoint.com/:b:/g/personal/chandrashekar_p_reva_edu_in/EWkPTYT1gF1 OujR0Et4HURYBx5viiZZUI61RDopq5v6GWQ?e=FpWadZ https://revaedu- my.sharepoint.com/:b:/g/personal/chandrashekar_p_reva_edu_in/EQieOsDozs9 MuiksJajbGA4BpoXHJJGx7hGs-xrg3p2cRA?e=CeXADU  Sources / Acknowledgements https://revaedu- my.sharepoint.com/:b:/r/personal/chandrashekar_p_reva_edu_in/Documents/Basi cs_of_Environmental_Science_Michael%20Allaby..pdf?csf=1&web=1&e=4ucidL https://revaedu- my.sharepoint.com/:b:/g/personal/chandrashekar_p_reva_edu_in/ES6LpmYkbvZBr 68bEOougdMBIDh3TYx1OVD6WKXzYjdq4g?e=mehvHp Syllabus: Unit Topics Course Program Outcomes Outcomes Environmental pollution and degradation Environmental Pollution – Definition, sources and types, Pollutant- Definition & classification, Concepts of air pollution, water pollution, Automobile pollution-Causes, Effects & control measures. 2 2 1,2,5,7,10 Environmental degradation – Introduction, Global warming and greenhouse effect, Acid rain-formation & its effects, Ozone depletion in stratosphere and its effect. Montreal and Kyoto protocols 35  Lecture Topics / Topics to be discussed Unit-2: Environmental pollution and degradation Discussion of Multiple Choice Question or Objective type question.  ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE – III/IV SEMESTER B.TECH Question Bank - UNIT 2 Environmental pollution and degradation 1. The global warming potential of chlorofluorocarbons is A) 100 B) 1500 C) 21 D) 310 2. Bio-remediation means the removal of contaminants from A) Soil B) Wastewater C) Groundwater D) Both Soil and Groundwater 3. Minamata episode of Japan is due to poisoning of A) Lead B) Nickel C) Mercury D) Cadmium 4. A long term atmospheric impact of burning fossil fuel is A) Oxygen consumption B) Global warming C) Reduction in photosynthesis D) None 5. Which among the following is not a greenhouse gas? A) Carbon dioxide B) Sulphur dioxide C) Nitrous oxide D) Chlorofluorocarbon 6. Anthropogenic activity refers to A) Natural activity B) Human activity C) Insects activity D) Birds activity 7. The disease “pulmonary oedema” is causes by which among the following pollutant, A) CO B) SOx C) NOx D) Hydrocarbons 8. The atmospheric life time of the nitrous oxide (laughing gas) is, A) 100 Years B) 134 Years C) 154 Years D) 114 Years 9. Each chlorine atom is capable of destroying upto_____________ ozone molecule, A) 1000 B) 10000 C) 100000 D) 1000000 10. Which among the following is not an effect of automobile pollution? A) Smog and acidic rain B) Global warming C) Poor quality of air D) None of the above. 11. World ozone day is celebrated every year on A) September 16th B) October 16th C) November 16th D) December 16th 12. The pH of the acid rain water is A) 5.6 B) 6.5 C) 6.0 D) 7.0 13. The formation of Ozone in stratosphere is explained by A) Albert’s reaction B) Henderson’s reaction C) Chapman’s reaction D) Lekberg’s reaction 14. The atmospheric life time of the Methane is, A) 100 Years B) 11 Years C) 21 Years D) 114 Years 15. The global warming potential of Nitrous oxide is A) 100 B) 1500 C) 21 D) 310 16. The relative contribution of carbon dioxide towards the global warming is A) 45 % B) 50 % C) 55 % D) 60 % 17. The father of acid rain concept is A) Robert Angus Smith B) Charles Elton C) Robert Winston D) Robert Emerson 18. The relative contribution of agricultural activity towards the global warming is A) 45 % B) 13 % C) 18 % D) 25 % 19. The Snow blindness/Photokeratitis is caused by A) Ultraviolet radiation B) Infrared radiation C) X-ray radiation D) Gamma radiation 20. Which among the following pollutant causes damage to the respiratory system, blood vascular systems and excretory system? A) Carbon dioxide B) Sulphur dioxide C) Metal particulates D) Nitrogen dioxide 21. The international protocol to protect the Ozone layer is A) Vienna protocol B) Kyoto protocol C) Cartagena protocol D) Montreal protocol 22. The protocol that reduces greenhouse gas emissions are A) Kyoto protocol B) Cartagena protocol C) Montreal protocol D) Vienna protocol 23. Bharath – III emission standard came in to effect from A) April 2005 B) April 2010 C) May 2003 D) August 1999 24. The major effect of Acid rain is A) Reduces soil fertility. B) Increases atmospheric temperature. C) Causing respiratory problems D) Skin cancer 25. Normal average thickness of stratospheric ozone layer across the globe is around A) 200 DU B) 300 DU C) 400 DU D) 500 DU 26. Which of the following is not an ill effect of acid rain? A) Results in killing fish B) Causes stone leprosy. C) Leaches nutrients from the soil. D) Causes cataract. 27. Freons are also referred as A) Ozone B) Hydrocarbons C) Methane D) CFC 28. Ozone hole was first discovered over A) Arctic region B) Antarctic region C) Tropical region D) Equatorial region 29. CFCs have been used as A) Solvents B) Air conditioners C) Blowing agents for polymer forms D) All of these 30. The steady decline of ozone in the stratosphere is called A) Ozone destruction B) Ozone hole C) Ozone thinning D) None of the above 31. Acid rain has been increasing day by day due to A) Urbanization B) Industrialization C) Increase in vehicle population D) None of the above 32. Ozone layer thickness is measured in A) PPM B) PPB C) Decibels D) Dobson unit 33. Which of the following statements about ozone is true? A) Ozone is a major constituent of photochemical smog B) Ozone protects us from the harmful uv radiation of sun C) Ozone is highly reactive D) All of the above 34. Acid rain can be controlled by A) Reducing SO2 and NO2 emissions B) Reducing oxygen emission C) Increasing number of lakes D) Increasing the forest cover. 35. The emission of exhaust from automobiles can be reduced by adopting _______to the vehicles, A) Electrostatic precipitators B) Catalytic converters C) Wet scrubber D) None 36. The term acid rain was coined by Robert Angus Smith in the in the year, A) 1952 B) 1872 C) 1652 D) 1752 37. The term ‘pollution’ is derived from which language? A) Spanish B) Greek C) French D) Latin 38. Which of the following does not cause soil pollution, A) Use of inorganic fertilizers B) Use of synthetic pesticides C) Needle leaf afforestation D) None of these 39. The definition ‘Any liquid, solid or gaseous substance present in such a concentration as may be or tend to be injurious to the environment’ is called as A) Pollution B) Pollutant C) Deviant D) Habitat 40. ‘The points of entry of pollutants which are easily identifiable’ are called as A) Point source B) Non-point source C) Natural source D) Diffuse source 41. Which among the following is not a secondary pollutant? A) Peroxy Acetyl Nitrate B) Photochemical smog C) Ozone D) Carbon dioxide 42. “The substances that normally occurring in the environment and acquire the status of pollutant when their concentration increased due to the activities of humans” is called as A) Qualitative pollutant B) Biodegradable pollutant C) Quantitative pollutant D) Secondary pollutant 43. ISO 14000 standards deals with which among the following aspects; A) Pollution Management B) Risk Management C) Environmental Management D) Health Management 44. Which among the following is not an adverse effect of Sulphur dioxide on plants? A) Chlorosis of leaves B) Bleaching of leaves C) Death of living tissues D) Premature falling of leaves & Curling 45. Major pollutants from light petrol vehicles are, A) CO and Hydrocarbons B) CO and NOx C) CH4 and CO2 D) None of these 46. Bharath – VI emission standard came in to effect from A) April 2015 B) April 2010 C) May 2018 D) April 2020. 47. In which year the Montreal Protocol came into effect? A) 1985 B) 1987. C) 1990 D) 1993 48. Montreal protocol aims at which of the following matter? A) Reduction in the emission of greenhouse gases B) Phasing out ozone depleting substances. C) Prohibiting transboundary movement of hazardous wastes D) Enhancing cooperation among UN member states for peaceful uses of nuclear energy. 49. The only UN treaty related to environmental issues which has been ratified by all 197 UN member states is A) Montreal protocol. B) Paris Agreement C) Kyoto Protocol D) Basal Convention 50. What is the main aim of Kyoto Protocol? A) To prevent ozone depletion B) To increase carbon dioxide emissions C) To reduce greenhouse gases. D) To eradicate the use of CFCs and halons. 51. When the Kyoto protocol was held for the first time? A) December 1997. B) November 1997 C) December 1995 D) December 1995 52. Which countries rejected the idea that was tossed during the Kyoto protocol? A) Russia, France and Italy B) India, China and USA. C) Japan and Switzerland D) None of these 53. When did the Kyoto protocol came into force? A) June 16, 2005 B) January 16, 2005 C) December 16, 2005 D) February 16, 2005. 54. Which one of the following is not a very wise option for reducing carbon emissions? A) Using fly-ash instead of cement B) Adoption of wind or solar energy C) Tree plantation D) Using thermal power plant for energy production. 55. What is India’s global ranking in the carbon credit list? A) Fifth B) Second. C) First D) Tenth  Resources for Students Reference Books: 1. “Environmental Studies”, by R.J. Ranjit Daniels and Jagadish Krishnaswamy, (2017) 2. Wiley India Private Ltd., New Delhi, Co-authored & Customised by Dr.MS Reddy & Chandrashekar, REVA University. 3. “Environmental Studies”, by R.J. Ranjit Daniels and Jagadish Krishnaswamy, (2009) 4. Wiley India Private Ltd., New Delhi. 5. “Environmental Studies” by Benny Joseph, Tata McGraw – Hill Publishing Company Limited 6. Environmental Studies by Dr.S.M.Prakash, Elite Publishers Mangalore, 2007 7. Rajagopalan R. 2005,”Environmental Studies – from Crisis to cure”, Oxford University Press 8. Environmental Science by Arvind walia, Kalyani Publications, 2009. 9. Environmental Studies by Anilkumar Dey and Arnab kumar Dey.  Sources / Acknowledgements https://revaedu- my.sharepoint.com/:b:/g/personal/chandrashekar_p_reva_edu_in/EWkPTYT1gF1 OujR0Et4HURYBx5viiZZUI61RDopq5v6GWQ?e=FpWadZ https://revaedu- my.sharepoint.com/:b:/g/personal/chandrashekar_p_reva_edu_in/EQieOsDozs9 MuiksJajbGA4BpoXHJJGx7hGs-xrg3p2cRA?e=CeXADU  Sources / Acknowledgements https://revaedu- my.sharepoint.com/:b:/r/personal/chandrashekar_p_reva_edu_in/Documents/Basi cs_of_Environmental_Science_Michael%20Allaby..pdf?csf=1&web=1&e=4ucidL https://revaedu- my.sharepoint.com/:b:/g/personal/chandrashekar_p_reva_edu_in/ES6LpmYkbvZBr 68bEOougdMBIDh3TYx1OVD6WKXzYjdq4g?e=mehvHp Syllabus: Unit Topics Course Program Outcomes Outcomes Energy – Definition, classification of energy resources, electromagnetic radiation-features and applications, Conventional/Non-renewable sources – Fossil fuels based(Coal, petroleum & natural gas), nuclear energy. 1,4,5,6,10 3 3&6 Non-conventional/renewable sources – Solar, wind, hydro, biogas, biomass, geothermal, ocean thermal energy, Hydrogen as an alternative as a future source of energy. 68  Lecture Topics / Topics to be discussed Unit-3: ENERGY RESOURCES & ITS IMPORTANCE: MCQ – Discussion.  ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE III SEMESTER B.TECH Question Bank - UNIT 3 (Energy resources & its importance) 1. What percentage of geographical area of a country should be under forest cover? A) 23% B) 43% C) 13% D) 33% 2. The oceans are the largest storage of water of earth containing A) 95 % of earth’s water B) 85 % of earth’s water C) 97 % of earth’s water D) 75 % of earth’s water. 3. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy? A) Fossil fuels B) Solar energy C) Tidal wave energy D) Wind energy 4. ……….. are referred to as earth’s lungs. A) Forests B) Carbon cycles C) Water sources D) Minerals 5. Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the renewable energy sources A) Highly polluting B) High waste disposal cost C) Unreliable supply D) Low running cost 6. ‘OTEC’ is an energy technology that converts A) Energy in large tides of ocean to generate electricity B) Energy in ocean waves to generate electricity C) Energy in ocean due to thermal gradient to generate electricity D) Energy in the fast moving ocean currents to generate electricity 7. Which of the following source of energy is less ecofriendly? A) Biogas B) Wind C) Solar D) Nuclear 8. Solar energy is stored in A) Carbon_carbon bonds B) Green leaves C) Fossil fuels D) Biomass 9. Identify the non-renewable source of energy from the following A) Coal B) Fuel cells C) Wind Power D) Wave power 10. Wind Farms are located in A) River basin B) Plain area C) Hilly area D) Valley area 11. Wind energy generation depends on A) Direction of wind B) Velocity of wind C) Humidity D) Precipitation 12. With a minimum resource maximum energy can be created by A) Solar radiation B) Wind C) Nuclear fuels D) Tidal waves 13. Direct conversion of solar energy is attained by A) Solar photo voltaic system/Solar Cells B) Solar air heater C) Solar thermal system D) None of these 14. Which among the following is the source of power generation in Hydropower plants? A) Hot springs B) Wind C) Sun D) Water 15. Nuclear power is being produced from A) Carbon-14 B) Nuclear fission C) Petroleum combustion D) Natural gas 16. Nuclear fusion uses which among the following as a fuel A) Carbon B) Helium C) Hydrogen D) Water 17. Which is the source of energy that can be replaced at the same rate at which it is used? A) Coal B) Petroleum C) Oil D) Biomass 18. Biomass consists of A) Lignin B) Hemi cellulose C) Cellulose D) All of the above 19. Which of the following is used mostly as a moderator in the nuclear reactor? A) Graphite B) Helium gas C) Heavy water D) Light water 20. Nuclear wastes is active for A) 5 years B) 10 years C) 50 years D) Centuries 21. Nuclear power plant in Karnataka is located at A) Bhadravathi B) Sandur C) Raichur D) Kaiga 22. Fossil fuels are converted into energy by A) Combustion B) Cooling C) Sublimation D) Melting 23. Which among the following predominant component exist in Natural gas? A) Carbon dioxide B) Hydrogen C) Methane D) Nitrogen 24. Which among the following place in India, the tidal energy has been experimented first? A) Goa B) Karnataka C) Gujarat. D) Tamil Nadu 25. Highest producer of Oil and petroleum is A) Middle East countries B) America C) China D) India 26. Generally Cow Dung can be used for which among the following purpose? A) As Manure B) For production of Bio gas C) As fuel D) All of these 27. Biogas is gaseous fuel composed mainly of A) Methane and Carbon dioxide B) Methane and hydrogen sulphide C) Methane and carbon monoxide D) None of the above 28. Molasses from sugar industry is used to generate A) Biodiesel B) Hydrogen C) Bioethanol D) Biomethanol 29. Which of the following is conventional source of energy? A) Wind Energy B) Thermal Energy C) Wave Energy D) All 30. One Joule of energy is equivalent to ________ in terms of Calorie. A) 0.2389 B) 23.89 C) 238.9 D) 2.389 31. The World’s annual energy consumption rate is increasing at a rate of A) 5 to 10 % B) 10 to 20 % C) 2 to 5 % D) None of these 32. Radiated energy can be transferred in A) Medium of air B) Free space C) Solid medium D) Both medium of air and free space 33. EMR propagates energy with a velocity of A) 3 x 106 m/sec B) 3 x 108 m/sec C) 0.3 x 108 m/sec D) 30 x 104 m/sec 34. A long term atmospheric impact of burning fossil fuel is A) Oxygen consumption B) Global warming C) Reduction in photosynthesis D) All of these 35. Which solar thermal system can be used to achieve temperature of 1000 degree Celsius? A) Flat plate collector B) Parabolic dish collector C) Parabolic trough collector D) None 36. Physical & Chemical characteristics of Coal depends on A) Temperature of formation B) Pressure of formation C) Both temperature and pressure D) None of these 37. Heating of Coal in absence of air to produce coal gas is called A) Carbonization of Coal B) Coal gasification C) Coal liquification D) None of these 38. One gram of U235 can give electrical energy equivalent to A) 100 MW B) 10000 KW C) 1 MW D) 1000 MW 39. Most popular bio gas plants in rural India is having the capacity of A) 0.5 m3/day B) 3 m3/day C) 10 m3/day D) 650 m3/day 40. Out of the following nutrients in fertilizer, which one causes minimum water pollution? A) Nitrogen B) Phosphorous C) Potassium D) Organic matter 41. The term sustainable energy is applicable to which among the following sources; A) Fossil fuels B) Nuclear fuels C) Geothermal energy D) None of these. 42. What is the wavelength of ultraviolet radiation? A) 200 to 400 nm B) 400 to 700nm C) 700 to 3000nm D) 0.5 TO 200 nm 43. Kaiga nuclear power plant is located at A) Kerala B) Tamilnadu C) Maharashtra D) Karnataka 44. Mini and micro hydroelectric plants is of the capacity A) 10MW to 100 MW B) 100MW to 1000 MW C) 1MW to 10 MW D) 1KW to 100 KW 45. An electrochemical energy conversion device that converts hydrogen and oxygen into water, producing electricity and heat in the process is known as A) Battery B) Fuel cell C) Semiconductor D) OTEC 46. The technique involved in the removal of underwater mineral deposits is known as A) Area strip mining B) Counter strip mining C) Dredging D) Shredding. 47.The minerals which are removed from parent rocks and deposited at the bases of hills and valley bottoms are known as A) Placer deposits B) Sedimentary deposits C) Mineral deposits D) None of these 48. Which solar thermal system can be used to achieve temperature of 300 degree Celsius? A) Flat plate collector B) Parabolic dish collector C) Parabolic trough collector D) None of these 49. The first fuel cell was invented by which among the following person in the year 1838; A) Robert Angus Smith B) William Robert Grove C) Rutherford D) Charles Elton 50. The first hydrogen fuel cell automobile was developed by which among the following person in the year 1991. A) Roger Billings B) Francis Thomas Bacon C) Charles Chamberland D) None of these 51. Who is the father of hydrogen fuel? A) James Chadwick B) Sir Humphry Davy C) Rutherford D) Henry Cavendish. 52. Meaning of Gasohol; A) Blend of gasoline and Ethanol B) Blend of natural gas and Ethanol C) Blend of Diesel and Ethanol D) None of these  Resources for Students Reference Books: 1. R.J. Ranjit Daniels and Jagadish Krishnaswamy, “Environmental Studies”, Wiley India Private Ltd., New Delhi, Co-authored & Customised by Dr.MS Reddy & Chandrashekar, REVA University, 1st Edition. 2. R.J. Ranjit Daniels and Jagadish Krishnaswamy, “Environmental Studies”, Wiley India Private Ltd., New Delhi, 2nd Edition, 2014. 3. Benny Joseph, “Environmental Studies”, Tata McGraw – Hill Publishing Company Limited, 2nd Edition, 2008. 4. Dr.S.M.Prakash, “Environmental Studies”, Elite Publishers, Mangalore, 2nd Edition, 2009. 5. Rajagopalan R, “Environmental Studies – from Crisis to cure”, Oxford University Press, 3rd Edition, 2016. 6. Anil Kumar Dey and Arnab Kumar Dey, “Environmental Studies”, New age international private limited publishers, 2nd Edition, 2007. 7. Michael Allaby, “Basics of environmental Science”, Routledge-Tayler & Francis e-library, 2nd Edition, 2002. 8. Dr.Y.K Singh, “Environmental Science”, New age international private limited publishers, 1st Edition, 2006. Syllabus: Unit Topics Course Program Outcomes Outcomes Waste management & Environmental Protection Waste management: Municipal solid waste management, Bio-medical waste management and Electronic waste (E-Waste) management. 1,2,3,4,5, 4 4&5 7,10 Environmental protection: Role of Government - Assignments of MOEF, Functions of central and state boards, Institutions in Environment and People in Environment, Environmental Legislations, Initiative and Role of Non- government organizations in India and world. 97  Lecture Topics / Topics to be discussed Unit-4: Waste management and Environmental Protection Discussion of Multiple Choice Question or Objective type question.  ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE – III/IV SEMESTER B.TECH Question Bank - UNIT 4 Waste management & Environmental Protection 1. Which of the following is not the safe method for the disposal of solid waste A) Sanitary landfill B) Composting C) Ocean dumping D) Incineration 2. Which of the following is not the source of biomedical waste, A) Hospitals B) Agriculture C) Blood Banks D) Medical Institutes 3. Which of the following are the safe disposal methods for the biomedical wastes, A) Autoclaving & land filling B) Incineration C) Microwaving & Hydroclaving D) All the above. 4. An Autoclave device was invented by A) Charles Chamberland B) Charles Southwick C) Charles Elton D) None. 5. The method where the biomedical waste is subjected to indirect heating by applying steam in the outer jacket is called as A) Autoclaving B) Hydroclaving C) Microwaving D) Incineration 6. _____________ is a process by which the biomedical wastes are deshaped or cut into smaller pieces so as to make the wastes unrecognizable. A) Autoclaving B) Hydroclaving C) Microwaving D) Shredding 7. _______________ is a low-heat thermal process where steam is brought into direct contact with biomedical waste in a controlled manner and for sufficient duration to disinfect. A) Shredding B) Hydroclaving C) Autoclaving D) Microwaving 8. ______________ refers to the biochemical degradation of organic material in urban solid waste to yield a sanitary soil supplement. A) Incineration B) Hydroclaving C) Autoclaving D) Composting 9. Solder in printed circuit boards, glass panels and gaskets in computer monitors consists which among the following material? A) Mercury B) Chromium C) Cadmium D) Lead. 10. Chip resistors and semiconductors consists which among the following material that is teratogenic? A) Mercury B) Chromium C) Cadmium. D) Lead 11. Relays, switches & printed circuit boards consists which among the following material that causes chronic damage to brain? A) Mercury. B) Chromium C) Cadmium D) Barium 12. Front panel of Cathode ray tubes consists which among the following material that causes muscle weakness? A) Mercury B) Beryllium C) Cadmium D) Barium. 13. Motherboards consists which among the following carcinogenic material? A) Mercury B) Beryllium. C) Cadmium D) Barium 14. Which among the following methods adopted in electronic waste minimization in industries; A) Inventory management B) Production-process modification C) Volume reduction, recovery and reuse D) All the above 15. When the solid waste consists of large amounts of organic matter & if the moisture content is high, which of the methods of treatment will be ideal? A) Incineration B) Palletizing C) Recycling D) Composting 16. ISO 14000 standards deals with which among the following aspects; A) Pollution Management B) Risk Management C) Environmental Management D) Health Management 17. In which of following country, WWF-International NGO is located A) Australia B) Britain C) Japan D) Switzerland ANSWER: 18. The Air (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year A) 1981 B) 1996 C) 2000 D) 1972 ANSWER: 19. Which is the first country amended laws for the punishment of crimes relating to environmental pollution? A) Spain B) Brazil C) US D) Japan ANSWER: 20. The Forest Conservation Act was enacted in the year A) 1986 B) 1974 C) 1980 D) 1972 ANSWER: 21. The Central Pollution Control Board was established under the provision of A) Environmental (Protection) Act B) Air (Prevention & Control) Act C) Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act D) None of the above. ANSWER: 22. The leader of Chipko movement is A) Sunderlal Bahuguna B) Medha Patekar C) Vandana Shiva D) Suresh Heblikar ANSWER: 23. “The state shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment” as per the article A) 48-A B) 51-A C) 47 -A D) 21-B ANSWER: 24. The Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year A) 1986 B) 1974 C) 1994 D) 2004 ANSWER: 25. Environmental (Protection) Act was enacted in the year A) 1986 B) 1992 C) 1984 D) 1974 ANSWER: 26. Which of the following is the authority to monitor industrial effluents? A) Center for Science & Environment B) State Pollution Control Board C) Indian Environmental Association D) None ANSWER: 27. The first of the major environmental protection Act to be promulgated in India was A) The Wild Life Protection Act B) The Air (Prevention & Control of pollution) Act C) Water (Prevention & Control of pollution) Act D) Forest Conservation Act ANSWER: 28. The Wild Life Protection Act was enacted in the year A) 1986 B) 1974 C) 1994 D) 1972 ANSWER: 29. Environmental Protection is the fundamental duties of the citizen of India under the Article: A) 48-A B) 51-A C) 47 -B D) 21-C ANSWER: 30. Silent Valley movement succeeded in A) Waste management in sea coast B) Canceling the Kerala state government hydel project and saving the Lion Tailed Monkeys C) Promoting marine fishery business in Kerala D) None of the above ANSWER: 31. The committee which submitted its report to Government of India on Environmental education which recommended the formation of MOEF is, A) Tiwari Committee B) Mehta committee C) Banerjee Committee D) Agarwal Committee ANSWER: 32. In which year the “Municipal solid waste (Management and Handling) Rules” was formulated? A. 1993 B. 1995 C. 2000 D. 1999 ANSWER: 33. In which year the “biomedical waste rules” was formulated? A. 1993 B. 1998 C. 2000 D. 2003 ANSWER: 34. Which among the following is the oldest NGO in India, A. Gandhi peace Foundation B. UKSN C. TERI D. BNHS ANSWER: 35. In which year “Noise pollution rules” was framed? A. 2000 B. 1998 C. 2005 D. 1990 ANSWER: 36. “Motor vehicle act” was enacted in which among the following year? A. 1972 B. 1978 C. 1982 D. 1988 ANSWER: 37. “The national environment tribunal act” was promulgated in the year, A. 1970 B. 1975 C. 1990 D. 1995 ANSWER: 38. Which among the following is not an international NGO, A. WWF-I B. Green Peace C. UKSN D. Green Cross ANSWER:  Resources for Students Reference Books: 1. “Environmental Studies”, by R.J. Ranjit Daniels and Jagadish Krishnaswamy, (2017) 2. Wiley India Private Ltd., New Delhi, Co-authored & Customised by Dr.MS Reddy & Chandrashekar, REVA University. 3. “Environmental Studies”, by R.J. Ranjit Daniels and Jagadish Krishnaswamy, (2009) 4. Wiley India Private Ltd., New Delhi. 5. “Environmental Studies” by Benny Joseph, Tata McGraw – Hill Publishing Company Limited 6. Environmental Studies by Dr.S.M.Prakash, Elite Publishers Mangalore, 2007 7. Rajagopalan R. 2005,”Environmental Studies – from Crisis to cure”, Oxford University Press 8. Environmental Science by Arvind walia, Kalyani Publications, 2009. 9. Environmental Studies by Anilkumar Dey and Arnab kumar Dey.  Sources / Acknowledgements https://revaedu- my.sharepoint.com/:b:/g/personal/chandrashekar_p_reva_edu_in/EWkPTYT1gF1 OujR0Et4HURYBx5viiZZUI61RDopq5v6GWQ?e=FpWadZ https://revaedu- my.sharepoint.com/:b:/g/personal/chandrashekar_p_reva_edu_in/EQieOsDozs9 MuiksJajbGA4BpoXHJJGx7hGs-xrg3p2cRA?e=CeXADU  Sources / Acknowledgements https://revaedu- my.sharepoint.com/:b:/r/personal/chandrashekar_p_reva_edu_in/Documents/Basi cs_of_Environmental_Science_Michael%20Allaby..pdf?csf=1&web=1&e=4ucidL https://revaedu- my.sharepoint.com/:b:/g/personal/chandrashekar_p_reva_edu_in/ES6LpmYkbvZBr 68bEOougdMBIDh3TYx1OVD6WKXzYjdq4g?e=mehvHp THANK YOU